GI Re-Up #4 Flashcards

1
Q

Neonatal jaundice is yellowish discoloration of the skin, sclera, and conjunctiva due to elevated plasma bilirubin in a newborn. This presents on days ________ of life and bilirubin levels fall in about 50% of neonates during the first week of life.

What is a physiologic cause of this condition (specific enzyme activity)?

What are some symptoms?
-What are the specific bilirubin levels associated with both symptoms?

A

-Days 3-5 is neonatal jaundice

-Transient decrease in UGT enzyme (this conjugates bilirubin).
-Breast milk jaundice - infant liver is not mature enough to process lipids. Mother should continue to breastfeed.

-Jaundice: Yellowing of skin, sclera, conjunctiva. Bilirubin levels > 5.0
-Kernicterus: cerebral dysfunction and encephalopathy (seizures, lethargy, irritability, hearing loss, developmental delays). Bilirubin levels > 20.

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2
Q

Initial management of choice for neonatal jaundice, even though none is needed for physiologic jaundice.

When is this indicated (specific bilirubin levels at a certain age)

A

Phototherapy

-24 hours of age > 12
-48 hours of age > 15
-72 hours of age > 18

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3
Q

In severe cases of neonatal jaundice, what is the treatment?

A

Exchange transfusion

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4
Q

What exactly is bilirubin?

What does UGT do?

A

A yellowish pigment that is made when RBC’s are broken down. It passes through the liver and is excreted from the body.

UGT conjugates bilirubin so it can be excreted from the body. The bilirubin is unconjugated (indirect) if there is decreased UGT activity.

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5
Q

What is Dubin-Johnson Syndrome?

A

-Hereditary conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia due to decreased hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin (gene mutation MRP2)

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6
Q

What lab would be shown for Dubin-Johnson Syndrome?

What is seen on liver biopsy?

Treatment?

A

-Isolated conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia (between 2-5 mg/dL) but can increase with illness, pregnancy, OCPs

-Biopsy: grossly black liver

-No treatment needed

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7
Q

On the other hand, Crigler-Najjar Syndrome is?

What is the pathophysiology of this?

Symptoms, as it occurs in neonates.

A

-Hereditary unconjugated (indirect) hyperbilirubinemia

-No UGT activity

-Neonatal jaundice with sever progression in the second week, leading to kernicterus (hypotonia, oculomotor palsy, lethargy, deafness)

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8
Q

What is one way to remember the facts about Dubin-Johnson Syndrome?

A

D’s

-Dubin
-Direct Hyperbilirubinemia
-Dark, Black Liver

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9
Q

Labs for Crigler-Najjar Syndrome

What is the mainstay of treatment?

A

Isolated indirect (unconjugated) hyperbilirubinemia + otherwise normal liver function tests
(between 20-50 mg/dL)

Phototherapy

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10
Q

On that same note, Gilbert’s Syndrome is?

The pathophysiology of this, like Crigler-Najjar Syndrome is…

What are unique symptoms of this?

A

-Hereditary unconjugated (indirect) hyperbilirubinemia

-Reduced UGT activity and decreased bilirubin uptake

-Transient episodes of jaundice during periods of stress, fasting, alcohol, or illness.

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11
Q

Much like Crigler-Najjar Syndrome, what do labs for Gilbert’s Syndrome show?

What is the treatment?

A

-Isolated indirect bilirubin level with otherwise normal liver function tests

-No treatment needed for this mild, benign disease

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12
Q

Anorectal Abscess and Fistulas MC occur at what site?

What is the MCC?

What are some symptoms of an anorectal abscess?

A

Posterior rectal wall

Staph Aureus

Anorectal swelling, rectal pain worse with defecation/sitting/coughing, focal edema, induration, fluctuant.

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13
Q

What is the mainstay of treatment for an anorectal abscess or fistula?

A

-Incision and drainage then WASH
–Warm water cleansing, analgesics, sitz baths, high fiber diet

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14
Q

On the other hand, an anal fissure is a painful linear crack/tear in the distal anal canal. What are some symptoms of this?

Explain what this looks like on exam findings.

A

-Severe painful rectal pain and bowel movements causing patient to refrain from defecating, bright red blood per rectum.

-Longitudinal tear in anoderm that extends no more proximally than dentate line. MC at posterior midline. Skin tags seen in chronic.

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15
Q

Treatment for an anal fissure

A

> 80% resolve spontaneously

Supportive measures: sitz baths, analgesics, high fiber diet, increased water intake, stool softeners, laxatives, mineral oil.
-Topical vasodilators (Nitroglycerin)
-Botox injections
-Lateral internal sphincterotomy reserved for refractory cases

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16
Q

Ischemic colitis, much like mesenteric ischemia, is decreased colonic perfusion, leading to inflammation. What’s the MCC of this and where does it MC occur?

What are some risk factors for this?

A

-Due to transient systemic hypotension or atherosclerosis involving super and inferior mesenteric arteries.
-MC occur at splenic flexure and rectosigmoid junction

-RF: Elderly, DM, cardiac catheterization, MI, constipation inducing medications

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17
Q

Symptoms of Ischemic Colitis

What is the first imaging study you would do and what is seen?

A

-left sided (LLQ) crampy, abdominal pain with tenderness, bloody diarrhea, or hematochezia

CT abdomen: thumb printing: segmented bowel wall thickening

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18
Q

Treatment for ischemic colitis

A

-Supportive care: restore perfusion, bowel rest, IVF and observe for signs of perforation

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19
Q

Regarding colon polyps, pseudopolyps/inflammatory polyps are due to _____________. These are not considered cancerous.

On the other hand, the MC non-neoplastic polyp type is…

A

IBD (UC or Crohn’s)

Hyperplastic is the MC non-neoplastic type.

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20
Q

The MC neoplastic colon polyp type

There is a type of this kind that has the least risk (and is the MC) and then the kind that has the highest risk of becoming cancerous.

A

Adenomatous Polyps
-Tubular Adenoma: MC type and lowest risk
-Villous Adenoma: highest risk of becoming cancerous

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21
Q

Most colorectal cancers arise from ________.

Name some risk factors associated with CRC

A

-Adenomatous Polyps

-RF: Age > 50, AA, Family History of CRC, IBD (UC > Crohn’s), Diet (low fiber, high in red meat), obesity, smoking, ETOH.

22
Q

Explain Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

A

Genetic mutation of APC gene. Adenomas begin in childhood and almost all develop colon cancer by age 45.

Prophylactic colectomy is best for survival.

23
Q

Lynch Syndrome, also known as Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer, is an autosomal dominant gene mutation that increases risk of what two types of cancers?

A

Colorectal
Endometrial

24
Q

Finally, Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome, another autosomal dominant genetic factor in CRC, is associated with what type of polyps? What other symptom do they generally have?

A

Hamartomatous Polyps (benign)

Mucocutaneous hyperpigmentation (lips, oral mucosa, hands)

Risk of breast and pancreatic cancer

25
Q

Name some protective factors against CRC

What is the diagnostic of choice for CRC

A

-Physical activity, regular use of aspirin and NSAIDs

-Colonoscopy is the DOC

26
Q

Colorectal cancer is the MCC of ______ in adults.

Name some general symptoms that would lead you to suspect CRC.
-Right sided (proximal) symptoms
-Left sided (distal) symptoms

A

-Large bowel obstruction

-Iron deficiency anemia (fatigue, weakness), rectal bleeding, change in bowel habits, abdominal pain, ascites

-Right: chronic occult bleeding (iron deficiency anemia, diarrhea, positive Guaiac)
-Left: bowel obstruction, changes in stool diameter.

27
Q

What is seen on barium enema in CRC?

Lab findings:

Tumor Marker:

A

-Apple bore lesion (filling defect)

Iron deficiency anemia

CEA

28
Q

Treatment for CRC
-Localized
-Metastatic

A

-Localized: surgical resection followed by postoperative chemotherapy
-Metastatic: palliative chemotherapy

29
Q

Screening for CRC with…
-Average risk
-1st degree relative 60 or older
-1st degree relative younger than 60

A

-Average risk: Fecal occult blood test annually at 50 OR Colonoscopy Q10 years (or flex sig q5 years)
-1st degree relative 60 or older: fecal occult blood test annually at 40 OR colonoscopy Q10 years
-1st degree relative younger than 60: FOB annually at 40 or 10 year before age relative dx OR colonoscopy Q5 years

30
Q

At what age should you STOP screening for CRC?

In a patient with FAP, what should screening look like?

A

-Stop at 75 years old

-Screen starting at age 10-12 with flexible sigmoidoscopy yearly

31
Q

Esophagitis has many different types and causes. What is the MCC?

What are there three classic symptoms of esophagitis?

What diagnostic allows for direct visualization in this condition?

A

-GERD is MCC

-Odynophagia, dysphagia, and retrosternal chest pain

-Upper endoscopy

32
Q

Name some etiologies in the following types of esophagitis:
-Infectious:
-Eosinophilic:
-Pill-Induced:
-Caustic (Corrosive):

A

Infectious: Candida, CMV, HSV (Immunocompromised states)

Eosinophilic: due to allergic reaction

Pill-Induced: bisphosphonates, BB, CCB, NSAIDs

Caustic: due to acidic or basic substances

33
Q

Infectious Esophagitis occurs MC in ________ and the MCC is __________

The normal symptoms of esophagitis are present. Name them again.

A

Immunocompromised states (HIV, post-transplant, chemotherapy, malignancy)

Candida

Odynophagia, Dysphagia, retrosternal chest pain

34
Q

Explain what is seen on upper endoscopy with the following organisms, and what the treatments are.
-Candida
-CMV
-HSV

A

-Candida: linear yellow-white plaques = PO Fluconazole

-CMV: large superficial shallow ulcers = Ganciclovir

-HSV: small, deep ulcers = acyclovir

35
Q

With eosinophilic esophagitis, what symptom is generally present and worse as compared to the other types?

What is seen on endoscopy with this type?

A

-Dysphagia (especially solids)

-Multiple corrugated rings, white exudates

36
Q

Treatment for eosinophilic esophagitis

A

-Remove foods that illicit allergic response
-Inhaled topical corticosteroids (without a spacer)

37
Q

Name some drug classes/medications that cause pill-induced esophagitis

What is seen on endoscopy?

What are some recommendations for patients with this type of esophagitis?

A

-NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, CCB, BB, iron pills, Vitamin C

Small, well-defined ulcers of varying depths

Take pills with 4 ounces of water, avoid recumbency for 30-60 minutes after pill ingestion

38
Q

What is esophageal atresia?

What are two associations with this condition?

How do these patients present?

A

-Complete absence or closure of a portion of the esophagus

-tracheoesophageal fistula, polyhydramnios

-Immediately after birth with excessive oral secretions that leads to choking, drooling, inability to feed, respiratory distress, and coughing.

39
Q

What is done for patients with esophageal atresia?

A

-Surgical ligation of the fistula

40
Q

What is achalasia?

Explain why this occurs

What is one symptom you should remember with this condition?

A

-Loss of peristalsis and failure of relaxation of LES

Degeneration of the Auerbach’s Plexuses leads to increased LES pressure and impaired LES relaxation

Dysphagia to both solids and liquids at the same time
-Others: regurgitation of undigested food, chest pain, cough, weight loss, dehydration.

41
Q

What is the most accurate test for achalasia?

What is seen on Barium esophagram?

What test is usually performed prior to starting treatment?

A

-manometry: increased LES pressure and lack of peristalsis

-Barium: births break appearance, LES narrowing wit proximal esophageal dilation and loss of peristalsis distally

Do an endoscopy prior to starting treatment to rule out esophageal SCC

42
Q

True or False: Achalasia is a risk factor for esophageal SCC?

A

True!

43
Q

Treatments for achalasia
-Initial
-Definitive

A

-Decrease LES pressure: botox injection
-Pneumatic dilation of LES
-Esophagomyomectomy (definitive)

44
Q

What is a Zenker’s Diverticulum?

What is the pathophysiology of this (there is a specific spot)

A

-Pharyngoesophageal pouch (false diverticulum)

-Outpouching occurs due to weakness at junction of Killian’s Triangle (between fibers of cricopharyngeal muscle and lower inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle)

45
Q

Symptoms of Zenker’s Diverticulum

What is the initial diagnostic of choice and what is seen?

A

Dysphagia, cough, feeling of lump in throat, choking sensation
Halitosis (due to food retention in pouch)

Barium esophagram: collection of dye behind the esophagus at pharyngoesophageal junction

46
Q

Treatment for Zenker’s Diverticulum

A

-Observation if small and asymptomatic
-Diverticulectomy, cricopharyngeal myotomy

47
Q

Regarding esophageal cancer, what is the MC type in the US? Which part does this normally occur in? Name one specific risk factor.

What is the most common type worldwide? Which part does this normally occur in? Name one specific risk factor.

A

MC in US: Adenocarcinoma. In distal esophagus. Caucasian Males.

MC in world: Squamous Cell. In mid to upper third of esophagus. In African Americans.

48
Q

Risk factors for Adenocarcinoma

Risk factors for Squamous Cell Carcinoma

A

-Adenocarcinoma: Barrett’s Esophagus, GERD, smoking, and high BMI

-SCC: Smoking, Alcohol, poor nutrition, HPV infection, drinking beverages at hot temperatures, Achalasia

49
Q

Symptoms of esophageal cancer

A

-Progressive dysphagia: solid food dysphagia progressing to include liquids, odynophagia
-Weight loss, anorexia
-Iron deficiency anemia (chronic blood loss)
-Chest pain, hoarseness (recurrent laryngeal nerve)
-Horner’s Syndrome
-Hypercalcemia with SCC

50
Q

What is the diagnostic study of choice for esophageal cancer?

What is the diagnostic done for loco regional staging?

A

Upper endoscopy with biopsy initially

Endoscopic ultrasound

51
Q

Management for esophageal cancer

A

-Esophageal resection +/- chemotherapy
-Palliative stenting to improve dysphagia if advanced