Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pance Re-Up > Dermatology #3 > Flashcards

Dermatology #3 Flashcards

1
Q

MC type of skin cancer

A

basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain a basal cell carcinoma

A

slow growing, local invasion, no METs

MC on head, neck, trunk, nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does a basal cell carcinoma LOOK like

A

Small, raised, pearly, raised borders and central ulceration with telangiectasias that is friable (bleeds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What diagnostic should be done for basal cell carcinoma

A

Punch or shave biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treatment for basal cell carcinoma

A

Moh’s for facial involvement

Cryotherapy, Imiquimod, 5-FU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2nd MC type of skin cancer

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Risk factors for SCC

A

Sun exposure (biggest)
Actinic Keratosis
HPV Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Bowen’s Disease?

A

SCC in situ (hasn’t invaded the dermis yet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Symptoms of a SCC

A

Erythematous, elevated nodule with white scaly or crusted, bloody margins

Nonhealing ulcer or erosion on the head, lips, hands, neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Because a shave biopsy is often inadequate, what is the diagnostic of choice for SCC?

A

Punch or excisional biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treatment for SCC

A

-Surgical excision
-Moh’s, Imiquimod, 5FU
-Chemo if METs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MCC of skin-related cancer death

A

Melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where does a melanoma usually MET to?

A

Liver, lungs, lymph nodes, brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Biggest risk factor for melanoma

A

UV radiation

Large number of nevi, tanning, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the MC type of melanoma and where does it occur in both genders?

A

Superficial spreading

-Trunk in men
-Legs in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is acral lentiginous?

A

Type of melanoma that occurs in dark-skinned people on the palms, soles, nail beds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Explain ABCDE and how it relates to melanoma?

A

Symptoms of melanoma and when you should be suspicious

Asymmetry
Borders (irregular)
Color (varied)
Diameter (>6 mm)
Elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Diagnostics for melanoma

A

-Full thickness excisional biopsy + lymph node biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How much should you excise based on size of melanoma?

A

> 1-2mm thick: take 2 cm
2-4 mm thick: 2cm marginal tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A Kaposi Sarcoma is associated with _______ and is predominantly in which population?

A

HHV8 infection

HIV with CD4 < 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Symptoms of Kaposi Sarcoma and Treatment

A

Painless, nonpruritic macular papule or nodules brown, red in color, plaque or violaceous lesions

HAART therapy if HIV related
Chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Condyloma Acuminata are _______ and appear as cauliflower like lesions on the genitals. How do you diagnose these?

A

Genital warts

Whitening of the lesion with acetic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Although 80% of condyloma acuminata spontaneously resolve, what are some treatment options?

A

Cryotherapy

Topical Podofilox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the vaccine given to prevent genital warts and what is the schedule?

A

2 doses, 6 months apart

Gardasil 9: 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Name the 9 HPV strains protected against in Gardasil 9. Is this vaccine safe in pregnancy?

A

6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 45

Not safe in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Molluscum Contagiosum is due to _______ and appears as

A

Poxvirus

Discrete, dome-shaped flesh colored or pearly waxy papules with central umbilication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Treatment for molluscum contagiosum

A

None needed

28
Q

HSV Type 1 vs HSV Type 2

A

Type 1: Saliva (oral lesions)
Type 2: Sexual contact (genital lesions)

29
Q

Explain primary lesions of Type 1 vs Secondary lesions

A

Primary: Tonsillopharyngitis in adults and gingivostomatitis in kids

Secondary: herpes labialis (cold sore) grouped vesicles on erythematous base

30
Q

What is a herpetic whitlow?

A

on finger, from contact of a Type 1 lesion

Happens a lot in health care workers

31
Q

What is the most sensitive and specific test for HSV? But what is the gold standard for HSV 1?

A

PCR

HSV Serology for Type 1

32
Q

What other diagnostic can be done for HSV and what is seen?

A

Tzanck smear: multinucleated giant cells

33
Q

Treatment for HSV

A

Orał Valacyclovir or Acyclovir

34
Q

Varicella Zoster Virus, caused by ______, has two parts. Which is which.

A

HHV 3

Primary/Varicella (Chickenpox)
Secondary (Zoster) Shingles

35
Q

Symptoms of Varicella

A

-Prodrome Period
-Erythematous macules–> papules–>vesicular –> crust over
-Asynchronous rash that evolves
-Dew drops on a rose petal

36
Q

True or False: Chickenpox can spread 48 hours PRIOR to onset of the rash

A

True

37
Q

What is seen on a Tzanck smear of VZV, even though it is mostly a clinical diagnosis?

A

Multinucleated giant cells (same as HSV)

38
Q

Treatment for Varicella

A

-12 years or younger: supportive
-13 years or older: Acyclovir

39
Q

Two MC complications of varicella

A

-Bacterial superinfection (MC in kids) and varicella PNA (leading cause of death)

40
Q

Risk factors for Zoster

A

Age > 50
Immunocompromised

41
Q

Describe the rash of VZV Zoster

A

-Eruption of painful rash that is unilaterally present in a single dermatome that doesn’t cross the midline

42
Q

What is a common condition associated with Zoster and what is the treatment?

A

Post-herpetic neuralgia

Gabapentin or Pregabalin
–TCA if no relief with above

43
Q

What is given post-exposure as prophylaxis to those exposed to Zoster or if they are immunocompromised?

A

VZ IG

44
Q

Post Exposure to varicella, what should be given? And to whom?

A

VZ IG given within 96 hours of exposure to immunocompromised, newborns of moms with VZV, or those with no evidence of immunity

45
Q

Neonatal Varicella occurs if the mom has the virus in what time frame?

A

5 days before to 2 days after delivery

46
Q

When should VZ IG be given to neonates at risk for varicella and when is it not needed?

A

If mom has it 5 days prior to 2 days post delivery

Not needed if infection in mom > 5 days before birth

47
Q

What is herpes zoster ophthalmicus?

A

Shingles in the ophthalmic division of CNV (Trigeminal Nerve)

48
Q

Symptoms of herpes zoster opthalmicus

A

Unilateral pain in eye, forehead, top of head

Keratitis, uveitis, conjunctivitis

Hutchinson’s Sign: vesicles at the tip of the nose

49
Q

What diagnostic is done for herpes zoster opthalmicus and what is seen?

A

Slit lamp examination: dendritic branching with fluorescein

50
Q

Treatment for herpes zoster ophthalmicus

A

Oral acyclovir

51
Q

What is Herpes Zoster oticus?

A

AKA Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome

VZV in facial nerve (CNVII)

52
Q

If CNVIII is involved, what should you expect in herpes zoster oticus?

A

Vestibular disturbances (vertigo, dizziness, etc.)

53
Q

Symptoms of herpes zoster oticus

A

Triad: Ipsilateral facial paralysis + ear pain + vesicles in ear canal/auricle

54
Q

Treatment for herpes zoster oticus

A

Valacyclovir + Prednisone

55
Q

What are veruccae, what causes them, and what is one common exam finding?

A

Warts caused by HPV

Thrombosed capillaries

56
Q

Cervical warts, MCC by which strains of HPV, increase the patient’s risk for cervical cancer

A

HPV 16 and 18

57
Q

Although most veruccae resolve within 2 years, what are some treatment options you can give the patient?

A

Topical: Imiquimod, 5-FU

Cryotherapy

58
Q

MC opportunistic pathogen

A

Candida

59
Q

What is seen on exam in a patient with oropharyngeal candidiasis (thrush)?

A

Friable white plaques that leave erythema if scraped off

60
Q

Treatment for thrush

A

Nystatin swish and swallow
Clotrimazole troches

61
Q

What is seen on exam in a patient with Candida Esophagitis?

A

On endoscopy, you see white linear plaques

62
Q

Treatment for Candida Esophagitis

A

Oral Fluconazole

63
Q

How do you diagnose Candidiasis in general?

A

KOH smear = budding yeast and pseudohyphae

64
Q

What is intertrigo?

A

Candida infection that causes pruritic beefy red rash with distinct borders and satellite lesions in moist areas

65
Q

What is the treatment for intertrigo

A

Clotrimazole topical

Pance Re-Up (76 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions