GI clinical sessions Flashcards

1
Q

what are the main functions of the liver

A
  • cholesterol metabolism
  • drug metabolism
  • carbohydrate metabolism
  • -FA metabolism
  • NH3 metabolism
  • protein synthesis
  • bile formation
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2
Q

what are the 4 clinical problems we can get with the liver

A

acute hepatitis
chronic liver disease
extrahepatic billary obstruction
fatty liver disease

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3
Q

what is Hep A? how is it spread? how does it affect the liver

A

RNA virus
spread via the faecal-oral route
- causes hepatocyte necrosis and inflammation as it replicates in hepatocytes

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4
Q

what are the symptoms of hep A

A
jaundice 
dark urine (bilirubin metabolism is altered)
pale stools 
malaise 
anorexia 
nausea 
abdominal pain
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5
Q

what are the clinical features of hep A

A

jaundice
hepatomegaly
splenomegaly
rash

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6
Q

what are the consequences of hep A

A

can cause relapsing hepatitis or cholestatic hepatitis (prolonged phase of jaundice) which can be recovered from

or acute liver disease which can lead to death if no liver transplant (v rare)

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7
Q

can people be asymptomatic with hepA

A

yes- for most people lines normally short and no treatment is required

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8
Q

what is chronic liver disease

A

a permeant and progressive pathological change throughput the liver (associated with repeat liver injury)

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9
Q

how does chronic liver disease effect the structure of the liver

A

changes the lobular architecture - portal tracts separated from portal viens

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10
Q

what can chronic liver disease lead to

A

fibrosis and cirrhosis

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11
Q

what are the causes of cirrhosis

A
alchohol 
fatty liver disease 
hep C and B
primary billary cirrhosis 
auto immune liver disease
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12
Q

what are the morphological changes in cirrhosis

A
  • hepatocytes damaged and function poorly
  • sinusoidal/canalicular pathways disturbed
  • disrupted intrahepatic biliary drainage
  • disturbed vascular perfusion
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13
Q

what are the clinical effects of cirrhosis

A
  • jaundice
  • ascites
  • encephalopathy (abnormal brian function)
  • portal hypotension
  • splenomegaly
  • renal failure
  • heptocelluar carcinoma
  • bleeding tendency
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14
Q

how can portal hypertension cause renal failure

A

increased pressure in portal vein openes up channels in liver that are normally not needed leading to the liver becoming differ and the sinusoidal channels disrupted = blood flow in liver is disrupted and flows around the liver = urea and waste not removed

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15
Q

what are the symptoms of liver disease

A
jaundice 
anemia 
heptomegaly
splenomegaly 
thin: muscle wasting 
liver palms 
clubbing 
dilated periumbical viens 
spider nevai
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16
Q

what are spider nevi

A

spider like marking on the skin

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17
Q

what characteristic is associated with portal hypertension

A

distended abdomen - larger than pregnancy

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18
Q

what are liver palms ? why do they happen

A

dilated hands- sex steroid hormones not verbalised and accumulate

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19
Q

what is billary obstruction ? what are the main causes ?

A

obstruction of the extraheptic billary system leading to decreased excretion of bile

commonly due to gallstones or pancreatic cancer

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20
Q

what is billary obstruction also known as

A

obstructive jaundice

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21
Q

what are the clinical effects of biliary obstruction

A
  • jaundice
  • dark urine
  • pale stools
  • itching
  • steatorrhoea
  • weight loss
  • vit déficiences (lipid soluble ones:AKED)
  • pain
  • disturbed lipid metabolism
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22
Q

what can cause fatty liver disease

A
lots of things:
alchohol 
drugs 
diabetes 
obesity
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23
Q

what is the metabolic syndrome? what is it also known as

A

also known as the deadly quartet :

  • abdominal obesity
  • hypertension
  • diabetes mellitus
  • dyslipidaemia
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24
Q

what is the 2 immunological cells in the liver and what are they involved in

A

kupfer cells- bacterial degradation

pit cells –> liver NK cells

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25
what are the 3 most common causes of liver disease in the UK
viral hepatitis alchohol consumption Non alcoholic fatty liver disease : NAFLD)
26
what is viral hepatitis
liver inflammation
27
what is the least serious type of Hepatitis
Hep A
28
do people normally become chronically affected with hep A
no usually resolves within a few weeks
29
which type of hepatitis mainly causes chronic liver disease
Hep B (usually no acute hepatitis but can remain chronically affected for their lifetimes ) Hep C
30
what are the symptoms of Hep B
similar to Hep A but fever more common also many include: raises, pain and polyarhritjs
31
what is polyarthritis
swelling of the joints
32
do individuals recover form hep B
yes usually full revcovery made, however 1-5% patients remain chronically affected
33
what can chronic infection of Hep B lead to
cirrhosis and liver cancer (hepatocellular carcinoma- HCC)
34
do symptoms start early for Hep B
no usually patients dont know they have been effected in the early stages
35
what does the treatment of Hep B involve
48 week course of Pegylated interferon injection administered weekly or oral antiviral agens - Tenofovir to supress levels of virus
36
what kind of infection does Hep C involve (acute or chronic?)
usually asymptomatic acute infection and 70-80% develop chronic infection , remaining asymptotic
37
when is Hep C usually diagnosed
when patients present with chronic liver disease years after original infection
38
how is Hep C usually transmitted
usually by blood to blood products (therefore in drug users) *also common in patents with haemophilia*
39
does Hep B or C carry a better chance of cure
Hep C - successful treatment prevent progression of liver disease
40
which Hep is the commost common in the UK
Hep E
41
how can Hep E be transmitted
via faecal-oral route or consumption of raw undercooked pork or shellfish
42
which individuals are most at risk of Hep E
those with underlying liver diseases or alcohol-related liver disease
43
what is the treatment for Hep E
normally resolves on own
44
what is alcoholic liver disease
inflammation (alcoholic hepatitis) and fatty acid accumulation (accumulation of triglycerides) in heptocytes
45
what are the long term effects of alcoholic liver disease
fibrosis or cirrhosis
46
why do we get fatty acid accumulation in alcoholic liver disease
decrease in fatty acid metabolism and increase in fatty acid synthesis
47
what are the risk factors for non alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)
hypertension obesity insulin resistance type 2 diabetes
48
how does NAFLD affect the liver
fat accumulation can be associated with inflammation which may lead to fibrosis or cirrohsis
49
are patients with NAFLD usually asymptomatic or not?
usually asymptomatic until complications of liver disease and cirrhosis present (jaundice, ascites, bleeding, HCC)
50
in most. cases what does inflammation of the liver usually lead to ?
fibrosis and cirrhosis
51
describe the structural changes to the liver of cirrhotic patients on a cellular level
- micro nodular aperence (due to the regeneration ) - thick bands of collagen (scar tissue) - cells swollen ( with fat droplets) - mallory body (cytoplasms with denatures keratin)
52
what are inherited conditions that cause liver cirrhosis
- galactosaemic - glycogen storage diseases - Wilsons disease
53
how can immune mediated damage effect the liver
primary billary cirrhosis
54
how can bile duct damage effect the liver
bile accumulates and damages the liver and tissues = secondary billary cirrhosis
55
what is the difference between hepatitis and cirrhosis of the liver? are they reversible?
hepatitis = inflammation - reversible cirrhosis = scarring = irreversible
56
what do you normally test for in a liver function test
``` albumin total bilirubin alkaline phosphatase alkaline transaminase aspartate transaminase y-glutamyl transferase ```
57
in liver disease are albumin levels high or low? what does this normally cause
low levels | can result in oedema and ascites
58
in liver disease are bilirubin levels high or low? what is this due to?
high | due to damage in the liver or bile duct blockage
59
high levels of billirbun causes...
jaundice
60
are levels of alkaline phosphatase in liver disease usually high or low ? why
high as released when cells are destroyed- from damaged bile ducts
61
are levels of alanine and aspartate transaminase in liver disease usually high or low ? why
high due to liver damage - enzymes are released when hepatocytes damaged usually used to show ongoing liver damage
62
what does y-glutamyl transferase indicate in a LFT
induced by alcohol so can indicate early liver dysfunction NOTE- not specific can be raised from drugs
63
other than a liver function test what other tests could you carry on on patients suspected for liver damage
imaging of the liver : ultrasound or biopsy
64
why might oesophageal varicies lead to the vommiting of blood
blood flow through varices - can burst - patient can bleed to death
65
why would oesophageal varicies develop
fibrosis of the liver can disrupt the portal vein increasing resistance so blood flow through other vessles in the oesophagus
66
why might someone with liver disease have itchy skin
accumulation of bile salts in skin = irritation
67
why might someone with liver disease have steatorrhoea
due to pancreatitis which occurs with increased alcohol use = lipase not released = fat not broken down
68
why might someone with liver disease have more bruising and bleeding
lack of synthesis of clotting factors and Vit K
69
why might heavy drinkers be hypoglycemic.
liver damage = less hepatocytes = cant store glucose as well or carry out gluconeogensis
70
Why are patients with liver disease always given an i.v. injection of thiamine (vitamin B1) before administration of glucose
because B1 is a cofactor for pyruvate dehydrogenase involved to allow pyruvate to enter the Krebs
71
how can lack of B1 lead to WKS
without B1 pyruvate turn to lactate leading to lactic acidosis and neurological damage =WKS
72
Why should alcohol be consumed with caution when taking other drugs?
competition between alchohol and drugs for cytochrome P450 enzymes and so slower clearance of both substances = increasing side effects from both
73
what drugs should not be taken with alcohol
antihistamines NSAIDS antibiotics antidepressants
74
why might heavy drinkers beed increased dosage of prescribed drugs
because high levels of CYP450 enzymes always present so you have increased metabolism of drugs
75
what drugs can decrease withdrawal symptoms of alcohol
chlordiazepoxide chlorometriozole diazepam
76
what does disulphiram do
inhibits the action of aldehyde dehydrogenase making person feel ill to drink
77
what treatments are given to patients with severely damaged livers
``` diruretics - oedema antibiotics - infections b blockers -portal hypertension clotting agents - internal bleeds liver transplant if v sevre ```
78
what does 'dys' and what does 'pepsis' mean in latin
``` dys = bad pepsis = digestion ``` = dyspepsia = indigestion
79
what are the 4 different types of dyspepsia
- dyspepsia with alarm symptoms (with red flag features) - uncomplicated/ simple dyspepsia (dyspepsia without 'red flag' features) - uninvestigated dyspepsia (dyspepsia presenting to physician for the first time) - functional ('non-ulcer') dyspepsia (have symptoms of dyspepsia but no evidence on endoscopy)
80
what are alarm features for dyspepsia
- weigh loss - dysphagia : difficultly swallowing - odynophagia : pain when swallowing - haematemesis : vomiting blood - melaena : dark poo, upper GI bleeding - palpable epigastric mass - family history of gastric cancer - over 45-55 years
81
what are potential causes of dyspepsia
- gastro-oesophageal reflex - peptic ulcer - gastric cancer
82
which type of dyspepsia is most common ? why
functional dyspepsia due to a normal endoscopy
83
why would you perform a urgent GI endoscopy
if a patient presents with alarm symptoms
84
what is GI endoscopy poor in predicting
GI cancer
85
what are the strategies for managing dyspepsia
- endoscopy - test for H.pylori - empirical PPI (proton pump inhibitors)
86
what is the problem with endoscopy
v expensive on NHS , not cost effective
87
symptoms and signs of peptic ulcer?
epigastric pain - epigastric tenderness - nausea - anorexia - weight loss
88
in a peptic ulcer when does the epigastric pain present ? how can it be relieved
- after eating | - antacids, eating, drinking milk
89
what are the causes of peptic ulcers
*H.pylori * *non-steroidals/NSAIDS: aspirin, ibuprofen* Zollinger-ellison syndromes Crohn's disease
90
what is Zollinger-Elison syndrome
too much gastric acid production due to tumour cells in pancreas
91
what does H.pylori cause
gastric and duodenal ulcers | gastric cancer
92
how does H.pylori create an environment to enable to it survive
bacterium produces urease ---> converts urea to NH3 anf H20 ---> cloud of ammonia neutralises gastric acid pH in stomach = damages gastric linning (gastritis) and causes ulceration = it can survive
93
what methods can we use to diagnose for H.Pylori
- carbon urea breathe test - H.Pylori serology (blood test) - H.pylori stool antigen invasive: done at time of endoscopy - rapid urease test - histological examinations of biopsy
94
what would you tyts for in a H.Pylori serology (blood test)
IgG - once have H.Pylori will always have the antibodies present
95
how do we treat patients with H.Pylori (ie. gastric ulcer/cancer, functional dyspepsia)
``` PPI- proton pump inhibitor and 2 ANTIBIOTICS: -amoxicillin -clarithromycin -metronidazole ```
96
what are the complications of peptic ulcers
- perforation (GI contents leak into peritoneal cavity:peritinitis ) - haemorrhage - bleeding (haemteasis, maleana) - gastric outlet obstruction (pyloric stenosis)
97
how does gastric outlet obstruction (pyloric stenosis) presents
- persistant abdominal pain and discomfort | - massive somtach (food and build builds up)
98
how would you treat perforation or pyloric stenosis
surgery
99
how would you treat a bleeding ulcer
coagulation of bleeding point with adrenaline injections if not work- heat probe
100
what are the symptoms and signs of a bleeding peptic ulcer
- haematemesis - coffe-ground vomiting - melaena - rectal bleeding - tachycardia - hypotension
101
how does a peptic ulcer develop in the stomach/duodenum
break in the epithelial cells which penetrates to the muscularis mucosa
102
what is the difference between epigastric pain in stomach and duodenual ulcers
epigastric pain/ upper abdomen pain is worse at night in duodenal ulcers
103
what are the consequences of peritonitis caused by perforation of ulcers
sevre abdominal pain shock collapse
104
what kind of bacteria is H.Pylori
gram negative
105
what are the 2 strains of H.Pylori and how do they differ
CagA and VacA - Cag A infects the epithelial cells, altering cell replication and leading to apoptosis - VacA increases permeability of host cells and prevents stomal immune response so increases the ease of infection
106
how does H.pylori cause ulceration
causes infection and inflammation by increasing gastrin release and inhibiting somatostatin release
107
which blood group is at an increased risk of duodenal ulceration
blood group O
108
how do NSAIDS work
inhibit COX enzyme responsible for converting arachidonic acid into wide range of substances including prostaglandins
109
how might aspirin cause ulcers
inhibits prostoglands = more activation of parietal cells= increase gastric acid secretion
110
how many COX isoenzymes do we have
COX 1 (expressed all the time on gastric mucosa, kidneys, endothelial cells, platlets) and 2(expressed only in response to inflammation on monocytes and macrophages)
111
which COX isoenzyme is responsible for an inflammatory response and which is responsible for effects on gastric mucosa
COX 1 =effects on gastric mucosa | COX2 = inflammatory response
112
why might COX 2 specific NSAIDS be preferable to ibuprofen? what are the side effects of this?
more specific to inflammatory prostoglands not gastric mucosa prostoglands however can increase clotting and constriction of capillaries leading to additional heart disease
113
why might aspirin promote haemorrhage from peptic ulcers
inhibits thromboxin formation = inhibiting blood clotting
114
what does a proton pump inhibitor inhibit
K+/H+ ATPase
115
other than PPI what other anti-ulcer drug can be used ? how do they work
H2 antagonists - prevent the binding of histamine one the H2 receptor = decrease acid release
116
why might someone with a haemorrhaged gastric ulcer become breathless and have a raised pulse but low BP
due to anaemia from blood loss
117
what abnormalities might someone with a haemorrhaged gastric ulcer have in their blood test
low Hb | high levels of urea (digestion of large amounts of RBC\
118
Does perforation or ulceration go through more layers
perforation
119
what is malabsorption
defective mucosal uptake and transport of adequately digested protein, fat, carbs, nutrients
120
disturbances to what 3 normal digestive functions leads to malabsorption
- intraluminal digestion (pancreatic enzyme secretion and emulsification by bile salts) - terminal digestion (enzymatic hydrolysis in brush border of small intestine) - trans-epithelial transport (nutrients, fluid and electrolytes transported across the epithelium)
121
why is absorption of electrolytes and nutrients paticulllary sodium important absorption ?
because all the water that is absorbed is absorbed via osmosis
122
what can a disturbance in electrolyte absorption lead to?
osmotic diarrhoea
123
what protein does cholera effect and how can it lead to watery diarrhoea
activates CFTR chloride channel and leads to large amounts of Na+, Cl-, and HCO3- secretion into lumen meaning water follows = watery diarrhoea
124
what 2 molecules are hydrolysed by brush border enzymes
starches: a-dextrins | peptides
125
what is lactose intolerance
defences in brush border enzymes (eg.lactase) = can lead to failure to breakdown disaccharides (eg.lactose) into glucose and galactose
126
how can lactose intolerance cause diarrhoea
disaccharides are not digested and remain in the gut so increases osmotic potential = draws more fluid into gut = diarrhoea
127
what is steatorrhea
presence of excess fat in faeces
128
what are the charcteriscts of steatorrhea
- stools may float in pan- hard to flush - oil apprentice - foul smelling
129
in what diseases do we see steatorrhoea
cholestatic liver disease pancreatitis coeliac disease
130
what is cholestatic liver disease
inadequate flow of bile
131
if fat absorption is impaired which vitamins will we see deficiencies in
A K E D
132
what is calcium absorption greatly reduced by
vit D deficiency
133
what can calcium malabosoprtion lead to
osteoporosis - reduced bone density
134
what are the causes for osteoporosis
``` anorexia smoking alcoholism malabsorption steroid therapy vit D or calcium defiancey ```
135
what is osteomalacia
normal amount of bone but the mineral content is low (poor quality- dense but soft)
136
what disease can lead to osteomalacia
ricks (if it happens during the period of bone growth)
137
what are the causes pf osteomalacia
- vit D deficiency | - malabsorption (coeliac, intestinal resection, cholestasis), renal disease
138
levels of which minerals does osteomalacia effect
- mildly decreased: calcium and phosphate | - increased: alkaline phosphate and parathyroid hormone
139
where is lit A mainly absorbed
small intestine
140
what can vitamin A deficiency cause
Xerophthalmia - eye problems
141
where is vitamin B12 absorption
small intestine
142
what can deficiencies in vitamin B12 lead to
angular stomatis (raw cuts around the mouth) cheilitis (inflammation of the lips)
143
what is vitamin B1 also known as
thiamine
144
where is vitamin B1 absorbed
small intestine
145
what can deficiencies in vitamin B1 lead to
Beriberi and WKS
146
where is vitamin B6 absorbed
small intestine
147
what can deficiencies in vitamin B6 lead to
polyneuropathy
148
where is vitamin B12 absorbed
terminal ileum
149
what can deficiencies in vitamin B12 lead to
anemia large RBC/macrocytic anemia SCDC- degeneration of the spinal chord
150
where is vitamin C absorbed ? defines?
proximal ileum | scurvy
151
where is vitamin D absorbed? defines can lead to?
small intestine/skin osteomalacia
152
where is vitamin E absorbed? defines can lead to?
small intestine bleeding disorders
153
where is vitamin K absorbed? defines can lead to?
small intestine bleeding disorders
154
how does vitamin B12 get absorbed
forms a complex with intrinsic factor in the stomach, facilitating its absorption ---> absorbed in the terminal ileum
155
what diseases can lead to B12 defiency
- gastric mucosal atrophy | - terminal ideal disease
156
what does B12/folate control
the normal proliferation of cells - necessary for efficient thymidilate synthesis and production of DNA
157
where do we get our iron intake from
diet
158
where does iron normally get absorbed
duodenum
159
why might we get iron loss
bleeding
160
what is coeliac disease
inflammatory condition of the small intestinal mucosa produced by an autoimmune reaction to ingestion of gluten
161
how does coeliac disease effect the structure of the small intestine mucosa
villous atrophy - flat and blunted intestinal inflammation intraepithelial lymphocytosis
162
what is the clinical presentation of coeliac disease in infants
impaired growth diarrhoea vomiting abdominal distension
163
what is the clinical presentation of coeliac disease in older children
``` anaemia short stature pubertal delay rickets recurrent abdominal pain behavioural disturbance ```
164
what is the clinical presentation of coeliac disease in adults
chronic anemia, diarrhoea, abdominal pian, bloating, nutritenial deficiencies, reduced fertility, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, abnormal Liver function tests
165
what can intestinal inflammation in coeliac disease lead to
intestinal transit = things move into gut v quickly
166
what does intestinal transit lead to
-decreased macronutrient absorption -negative/calorie protein balance = diarrhoea and weight loss
167
what can villous atrophy lead to
reduced surface area for absorption = decreased absorption of osmotically active substances = diarrhoea
168
what specific nutrient defences can occur in coeliac disease and what can they lead to
- iron/ folate --> anaemia - calcium --> osteomalacia - fat soluble vitamins AKED --> clotting disorders
169
how would you diagnose a patient for coeliac disease
- clinical history - serological tests (for anti-tissue trnasglutaminase antibodies) - duodenal biopsy via upper GI endoscopy
170
what is the management for coeliac disease
- gluten free diet - replace nutritional deficneies (iron, calcium, folate, vit D) - monitor bone density - repeat small intestinal biopsy
171
is coeliac disease more common in men or women
women
172
what is parasthesia? why is it caused? what disease is it linked to
tingling in hands- caused by malabsorption of calcium seen in coeliac disease
173
what is pancreatic insufficiency
reduced delivery of pancreatic enzymes to duodenum
174
in what diseases can we get pancreatic insufficiency
CF (reduced HCO3- and pancreatic fluid secretion ad blockage of ductus with mucous) Chronic pancreatitis
175
what is chronic pancreatitis
irreversible glandular destruction and alteration of anatomy/ function due to chronic inflammation
176
what are the clinical features of chronic pancreatitis
- epigastric pain- often radiating towards the back - food or alcohol may exacerbate the pain - wright los
177
what are the causes of chronic pancreatitis
``` alchohol familial congenital autoimmune genetic ```
178
what other disease is closely linked with chronic pancreatitis? why?
diabetes due to endocrine insufficiency
179
what investigations would you carry out for suspected chronic pancreatitis
- facael elastase-1 (produced by pancreas and passed into stool largley unaltered) - abdominal X-ray - ultrasound/CT
180
how do you manage chronic pancreatitis
- remove precipitant (eg.alchohol) - pain control - treat diabetes - pancreatic enzyme supplemts (lipase, protease, amylase) - vitamin supplements
181
what is cholestatic liver disease
impairment of bile formation of flow
182
what are the consequences of cholestatic liver disease
steatorrhoea | fat vitamin malabsorption
183
what is primary sclerosis cholangitis - PSC? what does it lead to
inflammatory/ fibrotic process affecting intra/extrahepatic bile ducts - type of cholestatic liver disease leads to bile duct strictures (narrows bile ducts)
184
what is primary sclerosis cholangitis most commonly associated with
IBD
185
how does cholestatic liver disease (and PSC) present
- pruritus : itching as bile salts in skin - fatigue - jaundice
186
what does cholestatic liver disease (and PSC) lead to
cirrhosis and liver failure as bile can cause liver inflammation
187
what is the treatment for cholestatic liver disease (and PSC)
liver transplant
188
what is small bowel bacterial overgrowth to ? what is it normally seen with? how is it treated
bacteria degonjugate bile salts and metabolise B12 seen with structural abnormality (eg. Crohn's) rotating course of antibiotics
189
where are NA+/K+ ATPase normally found
all cells - distributed evenly on cell surface or clustered in membrane domains in basolateral membrane
190
how is Na rapidly excreted out of a cell? why is this importnant
sodium pumps - pumps it into intercellular spaces between adjacent enterocytes establishes a high osmotic potential
191
how is sodium trnaprted into the cell
down its conc gradient alongside glucose and amino acids or H+/Na+ antiport pump
192
how do chloride ions enter the cell
antiport Exchange with bicarbonate ions
193
how do we treat someone who is severely dehydrated form sevre diarrhoea
oral rehydration solutions containing water salts and glucose
194
why do oral rehydration solutions not only contain water
because the glucose and salts (Na and Cl) creates the osmotic gradient which is more negative allowing water to follow
195
what are the 2 processes which establish an osmotic gradient
- increase in luminal osmotic pressure from influx and digestion of foodstuffs - crypt cells actively secreting electrolytes via their ion channels
196
what ion channel do crypt cells contain
CFTR
197
what 2 cells are villi mainly covered in
enterocytes and goblet cells
198
what cells are the crypts of leubrikun covered in
younger cells and stem cells (give rise to younger enterocytes which make their way up the villi as they mature)
199
highlight the process of water secretion across crypt cells
1- Na/K+ pump pumps sodium from cells = establishes Na gradient 2- symporter on basolateral surface transports Na, Cl, K into cell = secondary active transport via Na 3- CFTR activated from cAMP lead to Cl secretion 4- accumulation of Cl in crypt draws Na+ acrosss via tight junctions = secretion of NaCl 5- accumulation of NaCl creates transepithelial osmotic gradient drawing water across
200
what are the 3 main reasons we get malabsorption
- impaired digestion (pancreatic insifficnecy-CF, chronic pancreatisis) - lack of bile - lack of intestinal enzymes (lactose intolerance)
201
what are the 4 differnt types of diarrhoea
- osmotic: stuff in GI tract that cant be absorbed - secretory : excess secretions into GI overwhelms ability to reabsorb fluid - inflammatory : prevents absorption - abnormal motility : chyme moving too rapidly through GI tract so absorption cant take place fully
202
why might we get bloating and flatulence from sugar
sugar is fermented by bacteria in large intestine producing acidic stools and gas
203
what are symptoms of lactose intolerance in a child
failure to gain weight
204
what are symptoms of lactose intolerance in an adult
- audible bowel sounds - abdominal bloating - flautulence - nausea - urge to defecate - diarrhoea - abdominal cramps
205
how do we diagnose for lactose intolerance
- eating dose of lactose and monitoring what happens in the 20-30 mins and whether the glucose levels go up (they shouldn't) - biopsy of small intestine to rule out coeliac disease
206
what is the treatment for lactose intolerance
avoid foods containing lactose | calcium suplements
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what secretions are reduced in CF and why
pancreatic fluid and HCO3- due to blockage of ducts with mucous = preventing delivery from pancreas to duodenum (leading to steatorrhea)
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what is meconium ileus
most common cause of CF in babies - disability of baby to pass first poop/meconium as pooop too thick and stickyyyyyyyy that it blocks the ileus
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why do we get diarrhoea in adults with CF? what kind of diaoreha is this
osmotic diarrhoea thickened mucus blocks the pancreatic duct = lack od digestive enzymes = poor digestion of food = increase osmotic potential of gut lumen
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what are the 3 phases to cholera infection ? which phase can be/is fatal
- evacuation phase --> profuse watery 'rice water' diarrhoea and sometimes vomittin - collapse phase --> caused by dehydration and decreased blood volume - can be fatal - recovery phase - if you survive
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why is it a selective advantage against cholera if you are a carrier of CFTR mutation gene
have half the number of CFTR channels so if you get cholera you lose less water - might survive
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what would you check in a blood test for anemia in coeliac disease
components of erhypoeisis: ferritin folic acid B12
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what are the 3 components of the innate immune system
- toxic/ inhibitory substances - complaint system - cells which make up out in=immune system
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give examples of toxic/inhibitory substances of the innate immune system
CRP- C reative protein (enhances phagocytosis) deffensins in skin and gut enzymes (lysozymes in tears)
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what are the cellular components of the innate immune system
- phagocytes: neutrophils, monocytes, dendritic cells, eosinophils - NK cells - mast cells and eosinophils (release mediators- eg.histamine)
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are T cells or B cells long lived
T cells are long lived most produced before puberty B cells are short lived
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where are B and T cells produced and matured
B cells are produced and matured in the bone marrow \ | T cells are produced in the bone marrow and matured in the thymus
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a region on which chromosome codes for MHC
region on chromosome 6
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what are the antigens that MHC present called ? what is the significance of these antigens
Human leukocyte antigens : HLAs HLAs are polymorphic and so its hard to find 2 individuals with matching HLAs so imunosupressents given in transplant
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briefly describe humoral immunity
B cells trigged by matching antigen --> B cell engulfs and digests antigen ---> displays antigen via MHC molecule --> attracts T-cell ---> T cell releases cytokines ---> helps B cell mature and multiply into plasma cells ---> released into blood ---> antigen antibody complexes formed ---> removed via complement cascade
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what are the 3 types of T helper cells ? describe their function
- Th1 --> promote inflammation, stimulator phagocytosis- responses to microbial pathogens - Th2--> promote antibody production - specially IgE (involved in parasite and allergic reactions) - Th17 --> roles in intestinal lamina propia
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what are T helper cells also known as
CD4+ T lymphocytes
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what are the 3 components of the mucosal immune system
GALT intraepithelial lymphocytes lamina propria lymphocytes
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what are the components of GALT (gastric associated lymphocytic tissue)
- tonsils - adenoids - Peyers patches - appendix
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what are intraepithelial lymphocytes and where are they found
intersperse amongst epithelial tissues - contain mainly CD8+ T cells
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what do lamina propia lymphocytes contain
CD4+ T cells, B lymphocytes, mast cells
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what are the 3 IBD (inflammatory bowel diseases)
ulcerative colitus | Crohn's disease
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what is IBD
chronic relapsing and remitting inflammatory disorders of the intestines
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what I the aeiotology if IBD
remains mainly unknown
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what is the cure for IBD
no real medical cure
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what is thought to be the trigger for the inflammorty response in IBD
inappropriate response to stimuli in genetically susceptible individuals
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what are trigger stimuli in IBD
genes, environment, gut microbiome
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where is Cronhs disease and where is ulcerative colitis located in the gut
Crohn's --> anywhere in GI | ulcerative collitus --> colon/rectum
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what is the disease distribution in crohns disease
full wall thickness | patchy 'cobblestone' appearance ---> spaces with active inflation and normal intestinal cells in between
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what is the disease distribution in ulcerative collitus disease
only effects the mucosa | continuous areas of inflammation
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what are the histological findings in Crohns disease
- transmural inflamamtion (entire wall of intestine inflamed) - granulomas --> spherical areas formed during chronic inflammation, if not degradable foreign matter or presence of pathogens present (absence of necrosis)
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what are the histological findings in ulcerative collitus
mucosa and submucosal inflammation crypt abcesses gland destruction lack of goblet cells
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what are the complications associated with Crohns disease
- fistulas (abnormal connection between the GI tract and the outside to other organs in the abdominal cavity) - leads to perforation and abcess formation
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what are the complications associated with ulcerative collitus
colonic dilation | toxic megacolon
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which IBD does smoking improve disease course
ulcerative collitus
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which IBD may surgery be a possible cure
ulcerative collitus as an remove part of colon or rectum
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what are the symptoms of IBD
- diarrhoea - rectal bleeding - production of mucous in. stools - faecal urgency - incontinence (need to pee immediately) - abdominal and perianal pain - weight loss - fatigue and lethargy - mouth ulcers
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what are mouth ulcers called
aphthous stomatitis
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what are the signs of IBD
- abdominal tenderness - mass on palpitation - anaemia (caused by malabsorption ) - fistulae - perianal abcess
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what are dermatological extra intestinal manifestations of IBD?
``` erythema nodusum (painful fleshy bumps on skin) pyoderma gangrenosum (necrotic ulcer on legs) aphthous stomatitis (mouth ulcers) ```
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what are musculoskeletal extra intestinal manifestations of IBD?
inflammation resulting in: - peripheral arhtitius - sacroileitis (inflation of sacroiliac joint) - ankylosing spondylitis (arthritis in spine) - osteoporosis
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what are vascular extra intestinal manifestations of IBD?
vasculitis | venous thromboembolism
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what are ocular (eyes) extra intestinal manifestations of IBD?
- aveitis - iritis - scleritis
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what are renal extra intestinal manifestations of IBD?
- kidney stones - glomeruloneptitis : inflation of glomeri - tubulo-intestinal nephritis : inflammation of intestinal tissue surrounding tubules of kidney
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what are hepatobillary extra intestinal manifestations of IBD?
primary sclerosing cholargitis
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what is the first line of treatment we would use for Crohns disease
short term anti-inflammatory : corticosteroids | to induce remission
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what is the second line of treatment we would use for Crohns disease to maintain remission
- immunosuppressants : azathioprine, 6-mecraptoparine - aminosaclicylates : for disease in the colon (mesalazine) - methotrexate: anti inflammatory and immunosuppressant - antibiotics
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how do aminosalicylates work
aspirin analogues are broken down in the colon providing aspirin directly to the colon
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how does azathioprine works as an immunosuppressant
converted to 6-mercaptopurine ---> purine analogue incorporated in DNA --> = poor proliferation of leukocytes = suppression of immune system
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what is infliximab
a biological therapy of monoclonal antibodies against TNF-a
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what does infliximab contain
human constant region and mouse variable region = chimeric
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what does chimeric mean
consisting of material from 2 differnt species
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how does infliximab work
binds to TNF-a on surface of T cells --> indices apoptosis of inflammatory cells and reduced amount of TNF
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name 5 autoimmune diseases other than IBD
``` diabetes 1 (organ specific) graves (organ specific) MS rheumatoid arhtitis systemic lupus erythematous coeliac disease myasthenia gravis ```
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which sex do autoimmune diseases mainly effect
females
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what are the diagnostic features of anorexia nervosa?
active maintenance of low body weight (<85% of expected weight or BMI <17) extreme shape and weight concern
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give some physical signs of anorexia nervosa?
``` sever weight loss low blood pressure constipation and bloating hair falls out and downy hair over body swelling in feet and hands low body temperature periods stop ```
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what was the minnesota experiment?
study of human starvation with 36 conscientious objectors in WWII 3 month stability phase on 3600 kcal followed by 6 month starvation phase on 1800 kcal
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what are the diagnostic features of bulimia nervosa?
recurrent binge eating compensatory behaviour (vommiting, laxatives, fasting, exercise) extreme shape and weight concern binge 1/week for 3 months
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what are physical signs of bulimia?
``` fatigue stomach pain and constipation regular changes in weight enlarged salivary glands electrolyte imbalance swelling of hands and feet ```
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what is the difference between binge eating disorder and bulimia nervosa?
binge eating disorder has no compensatory behaviour
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what do eating disorders have in common?
behaviour around food (restriction) core beliefs and associated concerns levels of distress (mood disorders?)
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what might make someone more likely to develop an eating disorder?
``` mental health problems family history perfectionism history of dieting being part of a sport or activity with emphasis on appearance ```
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what are the specific risks for eating disorders?
body dissatisfaction (contextual, physical and developmental) - negative body image - weight preoccupation - dietting
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what are non-specific risks for eating disorders?
self-regulatory (parental physcopathology, trauma, biological predispositions) - low self esteem - affective dysregulation - insecure attachment
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what are the three stages of ed treatment?
weight management psychological therapies relapse prevention
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what is the most common mutation of CFTR
F508del
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what are the symptoms of CF
- airways clogged with mucous - chest infections - persistent cough - pancreatic insufficiency - CF related diabetes
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what does cross infection refer to in CF
CFs cant mix as bugs in lungs are transmissible between patients and dangerous
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what is the medication used in CF
- 50 different pills a day: inc pancreatic enzymes - physiotherapy - nebulisers - inhalers - insulin - supplement drinks
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why do people with CF have a high fat diet
- pancreatic insufficiency - stable BMI helps fight infections - helps regain weight - malabsorption of vitamins and minerals - strong correlation between weight and lung function
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what is percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy in CF
used for weight management = instant liquid feed fitted directly into stomach to help patients regain weight
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CF in diabetes can lead to a problem with the use of ....
steroids
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what are other related complications with CF
- osteoporosis - liver disease - kidney disease - CF related arthritis - sinus issues (polyps) - infertility in males - bowel cancer
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how many years can a transplant extend a CFers life
5 years