GI cancers Flashcards

1
Q

GEJ adenocarcinoma type of treatment

A

multimodality approach chemoradiation f/b surgery even if lymph nodes (mediastinal and celiac). Not if RP. Also even if extends to other organs.

Adenocarcinoma is treated with chemoradiation f/b surgery.

SCC sometimes try to avoid surgery (especially MSKCC)

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2
Q

nasopharyngeal carcinoma staging

A

MRI given the anatomic location of the nasopharynx, this tumor has a propensity for skull base invasion, bone destruction and parapharyngeal space involvement, and involvement of retropharyngeal lymph nodes which have treatment and prognostic implications.

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3
Q

Recurrent symptomatic CLL after treatment with fludarabine?

A

Can do fludarabine again if greater than 12 months. Alemtuzumab is approved for use in patients with disease refractory to fludarabine. In such patients, the response rate was 33%, including a 2% rate of complete response. Response rates varied with a number of clinical factors, and were markedly lower in patients with enlarged lymph nodes. Bendamustine is a bifunctional alkylator that provides responses in 70-80% of patients with recurrent CLL, including those with enlarged lymph nodes.

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4
Q

surgery in mesothelioma

A

good performance status and the pulmonary reserve to tolerate surgery, an extrapleural pneumonectomy should be attempted. Patients with negative mediastinal nodes and an epithelial histology are most likely to benefit from surgery.

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5
Q

indolent HL

A

Nodular lymphocyte-predominant

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6
Q

Breast cancer under 30 genetics?

A

BRCA1 or TP53 TP53 is associated with leukemia and sarcoma

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7
Q

When to do RPLND for residual mass in seminoma?

A

complete a PET scan at least 6 weeks after completion of chemotherapy, and proceed with surgical resection only if there is a residual mass ≥ 3 cm that is FDG avid consistent with persistent viable seminoma

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8
Q

when do you use in anthracycline in APL?

A

when patient is defined as high risk with wbc >10 are at risk for potentially fatal differentiation syndrome and benefit from cytoreduction using anthracycline or gemtuzamab.

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9
Q

criteria for multiple myeloma

A

MM Clonal BMPC ≥10% or biopsy proven bony or extra-medullary plasmacytoma, AND ≥1 of the following myeloma defining events (MDE): - Evidence of end organ damage attributed to PC proliferative disorder: serum Ca ≥ 11 mg/dL, renal insufficiency (creatinine ≥ 2mg/dL/creatinine clearance ˂ 40mL/min, anemia (Hb ˂10 g/dL), lytic bone lesions - ≥ 1 of the following Clonal bone marrow plasma cell percentage ≥ 60% Involved:un-involved serum free light chain ratio ≥ 100 ˃1 focal lesion on MRI

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10
Q

smoldering multiple myeloma criteria

A

SMM Must meet both of the following criteria: - Serum monoclonal protein ≥ 3g/dL or urine monoclonal protein ≥ 500 mg/24 hour, and/or BMPC 10 to 60% - Absence of MDEs and amyloidosis

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11
Q

MGUS definition

A

-Serum monoclonal protein <30 g/L Bone marrow plasma cells <10% Absence of myeloma defining events or amyloidosis (or Waldenström macroglobulinemia in the case of IgM MGUS)

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12
Q

Older head and neck patients:

A

Surgery, radiation, and chemoradiation appear to be equally efficacious in older and younger patients The available data suggest that patient-reported quality of life is not significantly reduced after treatment in older patients with HNC. However, we do not recommend using these data to inform patient counseling and treatment decisions. Older patients with HNC require more supportive care. We recommend prophylactic feeding tubes. We also recommend coordinating care with the patient’s other general practitioners and specialists.

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13
Q

HPV related oropharyngeal cancer in unresectable cancer treatment?

A

Randomized phase III studies comparing sequential chemotherapy and RT to concurrent chemotherapy RT alone are ongoing and have not demonstrated a convincing survival benefit with incorporation of induction chemotherapy. Cisplatin based induction chemotherapy followed by high-dose every 3 weeks cisplatin chemoradiation is not recommended due to toxicity concerns. After induction chemotherapy, multiple options can be used for RT based portion of therapy including carboplatin or cetuximab.

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14
Q

capecitabine and anticoagulation

A

increased anti-coagulant activity of warfarin

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15
Q

second line chemo for advanced gastric cancer

A

phase III Rainbow trial found that the addition of ramucirumab to paclitaxel improved response rate, progression-free survival and OS among patients who had previously received a platinum and fluoropyrimidine. Neither cetuximab nor bevaziumab improve survival in metastatic gastric cancer and are not part of routine care.

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16
Q

Patient on CAPEOX with significant myelotoxicity and, to a lesser extent, GI toxicity

A

highly suspicious for him being homozygous for the germline UGT1A1*28 polymorphism. educed clearance of SN-38 (the active metabolite of irinotecan), resulting in excessive neutropenia and, possibly to a lesser extent, diarrhea.

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17
Q

Patient receives 5FU and develops myelotoxicity and GI toxicity

A

DPYD

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18
Q

Lobular breast cancer, particularly under the age of 50, and diffuse gastric cancer (also known as signet ring carcinoma, linitus plasticus) should b tested for??

A

CDH1, located on 16q22.1, with autosomal dominance inheritance, codes for the E-Cadherin protein, involved in cellular adhesion

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19
Q

head and neck cancer receiving moderate dose radiation therapy (up to 50 Gy),

A

Benzydamine mouthwash

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20
Q

grade 3 mucositis

A

prevents the patient from eating any solids

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21
Q

Palifermin

A

has been shown to improve oral mucositis symptoms in patients undergoing hematopoietic cell transplantation.

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22
Q

Hemicolectomy for Incidentally found carcinoids of the appendix?

A

recommended for patients with tumors over 2 cm in maximum dimension. For small (< 1) cm lesions the risk of recurrence is so small as to not warrant additional follow-up testing or surveillance.

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23
Q

Pathway has shown activity in the treatment of low-grade ovarian cancer

A

MAP-kinase with selumetinib

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24
Q

Venetoclax MOA

A

B-cell lymphoma 2 (BCL-2) inhibitor. CLL who have a 17p deletion and have been treated with at least one prior therapy.

25
Q

Primary mediastinal B-cell lymphoma (PMBL)

A

It can present similar to classical Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) in clinical presentation and on imaging. The role of the pathologist is important in making the distinction. PBML is derived from a thymic B-cell and expresses pan B-cell markers such as CD20 and CD79a. Pax5 is also positive. CD30 can be negative or dim and CD15 is negative. This is in comparison to Hodgkin lymphoma which shows Reed-Sternberg cells morphologically and expresses CD15 and strong expression of CD30. In addition, CD20 and Pax5 are negative in HL. The majority of these patients are young, with a female predominance. PMBL is curable and patients are expected to have a normal life span. It is best to avoid radiation if possible to prevent long term complications. Dose-adjusted EPOCH-R has been shown to have a 5 year event-free survival of 93% and is given without radiation. Alternatively, R-CHOP x 6 can be given but must be followed with radiation and has worse outcomes.

26
Q

Standard of care for patient has clinical T1N0 small cell lung cancer (SCLC)

A

clinical T1-2 N0 SCLC is to perform mediastinoscopy and if pathological mediastinal staging is negative then proceed with surgical resection (lobectomy is preferred). Patients subsequently should still receive adjuvant chemotherapy regardless of the T staging. Adjuvant radiation therapy is considered if a positive lymph node is identified (in particular unexpected N2). There is no role for neoadjuvant treatment prior to surgery in clinical T1-2 N0 cases. Definitive concurrent chemoradiation is the standard of care for any patient with limited stage in excess of T1-2, N0 SCLC

27
Q

osteosarcoma prognostic factor

A

Less than 90% necrosis to neoadjuvant chemotherapy has been found to significantly impact survival from osteosarcoma.

28
Q

Ph1-negative standard-risk young patients with ALL

A

Stem cell transplantation adds nothing to overall prognosis Rituximab enhances results in such patients.

29
Q

MSI-high tumors expression

A

CK7+ and CK20- as opposed to the opposite for microsatellite stable tumors. retain CDX staining

30
Q

adjuvant chemo in colon cancer

A

Adjuvant chemotherapy with fluoropyrimidine plus oxaliplatin for six months decrease risk of relapse and improves survival in these patients per MOSAIC and NSABP C-07 trials. The IDEA (International Duration Evaluation of Adjuvant Chemotherapy) was a joint effort of investigators from six randomized phase 3 trials that evaluated 3 versus 6 months of adjuvant chemotherapy (FOLFOX or CAPOX). For low risk patients (T3N1) 3 months of treatment was non inferior (3yDFS 83.3 vs 83.1%, HR=1.01, 95% CI 0.9-1.12). However, for high risk patients (T4N2) non-inferiority could not be confirmed In addition, for FOLFOX treated patients, 3 months was statistically inferior (3yDFS 6 vs 3m = 76 vs 73.6 %, HR=1.16, 95% CI 1.06-1.26). However, non-inferiority was proven for CAPOX 3 months

31
Q

MEN1 cancers

A

3 Ps. Pituitary tumor, parathyroid tumor, PNET

32
Q

MEN2 cancers

A

MPH Medullary thyroid, hyperparathyroid, pheochromocytomas

33
Q

Li-Fraumeni

A

SBLA syndrome sarcoma, breast cancer, leukemia, adrenocortical tumors

34
Q

Peutz-jeghers syndrome

A

GI cancers, breast, ovarian, and hyperpigmented mucosal lesions

35
Q

GEJ cancer work-up

A

includes CT C/AP and PET (not gastric work-up)

If met, look at HER2 status.

If no distant mets EUS and FNAB.

36
Q

Chemo regimen for GEJ junction tumors and other treatment tidbidts

A

Both Magic and Cross trial showed benefit of neoadj chemo. In MAGIC it was ECF.

Other studies have shown that carbo/taxol is effective and less toxic than 5FU/taxol

ChemoRT for nonsurgical candidates

CROSS trial which used carboplatin (area under the curve (AUC) 2) and paclitaxel (50 mg/m^2 intravenous) weekly chemotherapy along with 41.4 Gy of concurrent radiation followed by surgery. This showed a pathologic complete response rate of 29% and an R0 resection rate of 92%. Median overall survival was 49.4 months in the chemotherapy and radiation arm as compared to the surgery alone arm. The CROSS regimen appears to be better tolerated than cisplatin and 5-fluorouracil.

37
Q

early stage gastric cancer treatment options

A

magic trial also showed benefit of preop chemo here.

Surgery critical

can do periop chemo or adjuvant chemo

can do sandwich chemo, chemo rt, chemo as well

38
Q

treatment for metastatic gastric/GEJ junction tumors

A

2 vs 3 drugs

3 may have small benefit

Do 5FU/platinum or ECF (epirubicin, cis, 5FU) or DCF (taxol, cis 5FU)

FOr gastric can do EOX or FOLFIRI as irinitecan is active for non platinum candidates

Add HER2! ToGa trial

39
Q

Second line metastatic GEJ/gastric cancer?

A

taxol/ram

40
Q

Unresectable pancreatic cancers?

A

>180 celiac axis or SMA

aortic invasion

41
Q

metastatic pancreatic cancer treatment options?

A

gem/abraxane

FOLFIRINOX

gem

gem + elortinib

42
Q

adjuvant treatment for pancreatic cancer?

A

ESPAC2

gem/cape

or gem

43
Q

BRCA mutated pancreatic cancer treatment metastatic?

A

can do gem/cis

44
Q

HCC treatment

A

usually local treatments.

If advanced and Child Pugh A then sorafenib and second line nivo

45
Q

cholangiocarcinoma treatment early and late stage

A

early if positive margins after surgery then chemo/RT. If positive LN then chemo RT and chemo

advanced disease = gem/cis

46
Q

Colon cancer staging review

A

T1 - submucosa and muscularis propria

T2 - invades in the serosa

T3 - into visceral periotneum

T4 through visceral peritoneum

1-3 nodes is N1

4 or more N2

Any N is automatically sstage 3 same goes for rectal.

Not stage 3 until nodal involvement.

47
Q

colon cancer treatment for stage II

A

LOOK FOR HIGH RISK FEATURES - LVI/PNI/POOR DIFF/T4

then cosnider 5FU or cape only. High risk folfox

If MSI-HI no response to 5FU

48
Q

colon cancer stage III

A

adjuvant mFOLFOX or capeOX

Over 70 no benefit from Ox

IDEA trial 3 months if low risk (T3 or N1)

49
Q

rectal cancer treatment

A

If T1 or T2 muscularis propria and no lymph nodes - can do surgery only.

If not trimodality treatment

50
Q

EGFR inhibitors

and

VEGF inhibitors

A

EGFR - cetuximab and panitumimab

Don’t give if mutated KRAS/NRAS/BRAF

VEGF - bev and ziv-aflibercept

51
Q

Anal cancer treatment

A

metastatic 5FU/Cis

locally advanced - chemoRT with mitomycin/cape or cis

52
Q

If 5FU vasospasm

A

Then stop all treatment?

53
Q

risk factors for esopageal cancer

A

adnenocarcinoma: barretts and obesity.

Prior gastrectomy, atrophic gastritis, and HPV infection are risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma, but not esophageal adenocarcinoma.

NSAID use appears to possibly be protective against esophageal carcinoma.

54
Q

lung toxicity gem/abraxane in met pancreatic cancer

A

can be related to either treatment.

stop and switch regimen

55
Q

Patients known to be homozygous for the UGT1A1*28 allele

A

dose reduce irinotecan by 25% at least

56
Q

cholangiocarcinoma + margins treatment?

cholangio + LN treatment?

A

+margins = chemo RT

LN+ = chemoRT + chemo (gem/cis)

57
Q

pnet second line after octreotide?

A

sunitnib and everolimus

58
Q

MSI HI early stage disease does not benefit from?

A

5FU

59
Q

Right sided colon cancer

A

no benefit from cetuximab