GI and Nutrition Flashcards

1
Q

what is marasmus?

A

severe calorie malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is kwashiorkor?

A

severe protein deficiency (will have pitting edema, fatty liver)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are common manifestations of vitamin C deficiency?

A

follicular hyperkeratosis, “corkscrew-coiled” hairs, gingival bleeding, brittle bones, anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
A

white lines of frankl - associated with vit c deficiency (scurvy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are characteristics of vitamin A deficiency?

A

Vitamin A Night blindness, xerophthalmia, Bitot spots, follicular hyperkeratosis

if corneal clouding present - emergency, needs large doses of IV vitamin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what causes scaly skin, pseduotumor cerebri and hepatomegaly?

A

vitamin A overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is seen with vitamin D deficiency?

A

weight-bearing age and results in poor growth, curvature of weight-bearing bones (Fig. 10-9), widening of epiphyses, and costochondral “rachitic rosary” beading (Fig. 10-10). Craniotabes, or softening of the skull, may be seen in infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

lab findings in rickets?

A

high PTH

low 25-OH D3

high 1,25-OH2

low calcium

low phos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

before and after of what disease?

A

Rickets. Radiograph of the wrist of a patient with rickets. A, Irregularity and widening of the epiphyses in the distal radius and ulna. B, With appropriate therapy, remineralization and healing occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the other name for vitamin E?

A

tocopherol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

manifestations of vitamin E deficiency?

A

neurologic dysfunction, neuroaxonal degernation and loss of reflexes, hemolytic anemia, peripheral neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what vitamin deficiency causes:

Beriberi: parasthesias, foot and wrist drop

Wernicke encephalopathy: opthalmoplegia, ataxia, confusion

A

thiamine (b1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what vitamin deficiency causes:

cheilosis and sore tongue?

A

riboflavin (b2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what vitamin deficiency causes:

pellagra: dermatitis, dementia and diarrhea

A

niacin B3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what vitamin deficiency causes:

megaloblastic anemia?

A

cobalamin B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what vitamin deficiency causes:

diarrhea, rash, hypoguesia

A

zinc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

in what syndromes can esophageal perforation occur spontaneously?

A

marfan and ehlers danlos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what metabolic derrangement occurs with pyloric stenosis?

A

hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is menetrier disease?

A

protein-losing gastropathy secondary to CMV

swollen fundus and body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is zollinger-ellison syndrome?

A

gastrin-secreting tumor (gastrinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is associated with gastrinomas?

A

MEN-1

so look for hyperparathyroidism and adrenal tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

at what age do kids start to develop lactase deficiency?

A

2yrs and up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is abetalipoprotinemia?

A

autosomal recessive

absence of apo B

inability to synthesize chylomicrons

maldorous steatorrhea, FTT

need fat soluble vitamins, limit fat intake

24
Q

what is hartnup disease?

A

defect in transport of free neutral amino acids

25
what is defective in blue diaper syndrome?
tryptophan (malabsorption of it)
26
how do children with abnormal zinc absorption present?
bullous and pustular dermatits alopecia blepharitis conjunctivitis diarrhea FTT
27
what is absorbed in the ileum (important for short gut kids)
bile salts vitamin B12
28
name some things associated with UC
clubbing ankylosis spondylitis erythema nodosum pyoderma gangrenosum primary sclerosing cholangitis dvt/pulm embolism
29
name some things associated with chron's disease
apthous ulcers fissures anal fistulas abscesses weight loss growth failure
30
which responds to bowel rest: UC or chrons
chrons
31
how does peutz-jeghers present
autosomal dominant GI harmartomatous polyps and mucocutaneous hyperpigmentation lip and buccal freckles! intermittent colicky abdominal pain increased risk of cancers
32
what is proteus syndrome?
hemihypertrophy, hamartomatous polyps, gigantism of extremities, angiomas (PTEN related)
33
what is Gardner syndrome?
familial adenomatous polyposis with extraintestinal tumors desmoid tumors, epidermoid cysts, osteomas, need screening colonoscopies, thryoids studiesn, and upper GI studies to monitor for cancer
34
what type of lymphoma is common in the small intestine
burkitt's lymphoma (non-hodgkins)
35
what are omphaloceles associated with?
beckwith-wiedemann, pentalogy of cantrell, trisomies
36
which is located on the midline - omphalocele or gastroschisis?
omphalocele - umbilical cord connects to it gastroschisis is to the right of the umbilicus
37
what are the top three causes of rectal prolapse?
1. constipation 2. diarrhea 3. CF
38
what are the top two causes of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?
1. CF 2. Shwachman-Diamond syndrome
39
what makes up shwachman-diamond syndrome?
pancreatic insufficiency, short stature, neutropenia, skeletal abnormalities autosomal recessive higher risk of myelproliferative disorders
40
what is the cullen sign? the grey turner sign?
cullen: bluish discoloration around/near umbilicus grey turner: bluish discoloration of the flanks both associated with acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis
41
what is the triad for choledocal cyst? how do you image it?
abdominal pain, jaundice, RUQ mass ultrasound will show extra and intrahepatic dilitation ERCP can show anatomy
42
what is associated with congenital hepatic fibrosis?
autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
43
what is caroli disease?
abnormality of the hepatic ductal plate - congenital dilation of the larger, segmental intrahepatic bile ducts can occur with congential hepatic fibrosis (dilated bile duct structuresand portal tracts without interlobular ducts in the center)
44
what is alagille syndrome?
autsomal dominant associated with peripheral pulmonary stenosis and neonatal cholestasis "paucity" of small intrahepatic ducts, butterfly vertebrae, abnormal radius/ulna, and facies including pointed chin and prominent forehead
45
what do you use for hepatitis A prophylaxis in case of exposure?
immunoglobulin also give to household contacts, needlesharing partners, daycare, nursing home
46
does gilbert cause conjugated or unconjugated hyperbili?
unconjugated alteration in UDP-GT gene prominent during times of illness or fasting
47
what is difference between crigler-najjar type 1 and type 2?
type 1: no conjugated bilirubin (complete absence of UDP-GT activity), need exchange transfusion as neonate type 2: partial activity, hyperbili \<10 is common, resolves with phenobarb
48
what is dubin-johnson syndrome?
deficiency of MOAT/MRP2 gene - mild conjugated hyperbili, no hepatocellular injury
49
how does a1-antitrypsin present?
neonatal cholestasis, juvenile cirrhosis, chronic hepatitis, hepatocellular cancer
50
what are the screening tests for wilson disease?
ceruloplasmin (will be low) 24-hr urinary copper (high) liver biopsy can give D-penicillamine (will increase urinary excretion even higher)
51
what is the triad for hemochromatosis?
elevated iron levels, bronzed skin, diabetes
52
what are teh antibodies anti-sla and anti-lkm associated with?
autoimmune hepatitis | (look for other autoimmune diseases)
53
what will you see on cholangiogram in primary sclerosing cholangitis?
"beading" - alternating normal and strictured portions of biliary tree
54
what is fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome?
gonococcal perihepatitis
55
what all is hydrops of the gallbladders associated with?
kawasaki, strep pharyngitis, prolonged fasting, tpn, HSP noninflammatory enlargement of gallbladder
56
what is the most common malignant liver tumor in children?
hepatoblastomas elevated afp