Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

cyanosis of arms but not legs is indicative of what lesion?

A

TGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

bounding pulses?

A

large PDA (or aortic valve insufficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

systolic ejection click?

A

bicupsid aortic valve, aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

midsystolic click?

A

mitral valve prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what should you be thinking about with the following EKG values: 1.) +I and +aVF? 2.) +I and - aVF? 3.) -I and + aVF?

A

1.) nothing - normal. 2.) LAD (tri atresia, AV septal defects, LVH). 3.) RAD (RVH, PS, ASD, RBBB, TOF, pulm htn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how to find RR on EKG?

A

count big boxes and divide 300 by # of boxes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

normal PR interval?

A

3-5 small squares (120-200ms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

normal QRS duration?

A

<100ms (1/2 big square)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what overdose can lead to prolonged QT?

A

tricyclic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what EKG finding does RA enlargement cause?

A

peaked P waves in II and V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what P wave finding indcated LA hypertrophy?

A

notched in II or negative in V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the drug of choice for a patient with WPW who develops atrial flutter?

A

procanimide (shock if unstable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the best treatment for atrial flutter?

A

synchronized cardioversion (can also use beta blocker, dig or diltiazem)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what should you think about in a patient with new a fib?

A

hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what disease should you think about in a patient with multiple types of PVCs?

A

tuberous sclerosis (cardiac tumor causing the pVCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what side effect can adenosine cause?

A

bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

side effect of procanimide?

A

lupus, blood disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

side effects of quinidine?

A

torsades, autoimmune ITP, hearing loss, psychosis, tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

side effects of amiodarone?/

A

gray skin, thyroid, liver damage, pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what type, muscular or membranous, of VSD is commonly detected after age 1?

A

membranous (the muscular ones usually close by age 1)

21
Q

how do VSDs present?

A

heart failure at age 2 months

22
Q

heart sound finding in older children with ostium secundum ASDs (mid septal)

A

widely split S2 with no variation

23
Q

is the mumur for aortic regurgitation systolic or diastolic?

A

diastolic

24
Q

causes of aortic regurgitation?

A

congenital aortic stenosis, marfan, rheumatic fever, endocarditis

25
Q

most common cause of mitral regurgitation?

A

worldwide: rheumatic fever; US: mitral valve prolapse (late systolic murmur often with click at the apex)

26
Q

where can you hear the murmur for PS?

A

LUSB, radiates to clavicle and back; has a systolic ejection click along LSB

27
Q

what genetic syndromes are associated with pulmonic stenosis?

A

alagille and noonan

28
Q

murmur for aortic stenosis?

A

crescendo=decrescendo, harsh systolic murmur with suprasternal notch thrill

29
Q

how is HOCM inherited?

A

AD (murmur gets louder with standing, softer with squatting)

30
Q

what should you test for in someone with an interrupted aortic arch?

A

digeorge

31
Q

what cyanotic heart lesion most commonly presents within first few days?

A

d-TGA (2 parallel circulations)

32
Q

how does EKG differ in tricupsid atresia vs TOF/TGA?

A

tri atresia will have LVH/left axis vs the others will have right axis and RVH

33
Q

how do infants with TAPVR present?

A

FTT and tachypnea (xray will have “snowman” on it_

34
Q

what genetic syndrome do you test for with truncus arteriosus?

A

digeorge

35
Q

how do kids with HLHS present?

A

poor perfusion, CHF within first days to weeks

36
Q

what GI finding is common with asplenia or polysplenia?

A

malrotation

37
Q

what will you see on barium swallow with vascular ring?

A

posterior indentation of esophagus

38
Q

what is the most common arch abnormality that causes significant symptoms?

A

double aortic arch (persistence of both 4th arches)

39
Q

what symptoms will an infant have with ALCAPA

A

poor feeding, tachypnea, crying as if in pain, heart failure from MI or ischemia (also consider diagnosis in suddent death of athlete)

40
Q

what is kussmaul sign?

A

rise in venous jugular pressure with inspiration (because blood can’t get into heart secondary to tamponade)

41
Q

what is pulsus paradoxus?

A

drop in aortic pressure >10-15 during inspiration during tamponade

42
Q

do you see kussmaul sign more in tamponade or constrictive pericarditisi?

A

pericardititis

43
Q

what are common causes of constrictive pericarditis?

A

radiation, TB or bacterial pericarditis

44
Q

other than hyperkalemia, what side effect can occur with spironolactone?

A

gynecomastia

45
Q

what conditions require antibiotic prophylaxis for dental procedures?

A

prosthetic valves, previous history of endocarditis, unrepaired cyanotic heart disease, completely repaired congenital disease with prosthetic material or device for 6 months post-op, cardiac transplant recipients with valvulopathy

46
Q

what are the 5 major jones criteria?

A

carditis, chorea, subcutaneous nodules, polyarthritis, erythema marginatum

47
Q

what positive test must you have for RF?

A

elevated or risingASO titer, positive throat culture

48
Q

how do you treat RF?

A

penicillin, aspirin - then will need prophylaxis for 5 years or until age 21