GI Flashcards

1
Q

You are caring for a patient with a severe duodenal ulcer who suddenly complains of severe pain spreading over the abdomen, likely due to a perforation. What should be the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

A

Insertion of an NG tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most common cause of peptic ulcers?

A

H. Pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What hormone (that stimulates gastric acid secretion) is released by distention of the stomach?

A

Gastrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Xerostomia?

A

Decreased saliva production in the elderly population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the characteristic sign of Peritoneal inflammation?

A

rebound tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A patient with Gastritis from H. Pylori is generally put on which meds?

A

Antibiotic(s), proton pump inhibitor, and bismuth (Pepto Bismol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is tenesmus?

A

the sensation of incomplete bowel evacuation (associated with ulcerative colitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the “classic sign” of perforation of an ulcer?

A

Sudden “board-like” abdominal rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What class of drugs can be a causative factor in GERD?

A

Anticholinergic drugs; because they may relax the esophageal sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What genre of enzymes are secreted in the pancreas?

A

Pancreatic enzymes all end in “ayse”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What amount of blood flow is directed towards the GI system?

A

25-30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the medical word for chewing?

A

Mastication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the medical word for swallowing?

A

Degluttition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the word for the “mixing” that takes place in the GI tract?

A

Segmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the word for the “propulsion” that takes place in the GI tract?

A

Peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does Pepto-Bismol do?

A

Decreases secretions and has weak antibacterial effect. Used to prevent travelers diarrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does Mitrolan do?

A

Bulk-forming agent that absorbs excessive fluid from diarrhea to form a gel. Used when intestinal mucosa cannot absorb fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does Loperamide (Imodium) do?

A

Inhibits peristalsis, delays transit, and increases absorption of fluid from stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does Lomotil do?

A

Opiod and anticholinergic; decreases peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the action of Sandostatin?

A

Suppresses serotonin secretion; stimulates fluid absorption from GI tract and slows intestinal motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a possible severe side effect of using antidirrheal meds too long?

A

Toxic megacolon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the definition of toxic megacolon?

A

Colon dilated greater than 5cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When in the gastrocolic reflex (urge to poo) strongest?

A

Right after breakfast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What disease are patients with IBD at risk for?

A

Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the term to describe the normal portions of bowel between lesions in a patient with Crohn's disease?
"skip lesions"
26
What is ERCP?
Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography; it is a procedure that combines upper GI endoscopy and x-rays to treat problems of the bile and pancreatic ducts.
27
Patients with which blood type develop duodenal ulcers more often than normal?
blood type O
28
What does borborygmi mean and how is it spelled?
stomach growling; B-O-R-B-O-R-Y-G-M-I
29
What does a pulsation felt between the umbilicus and the pubis indicate?
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
30
What does elevated white blood count and right lower quadrant pain possibly indicate?
Appendicitis and possible rupture
31
What is a "gallbladder series"?
Also called a "cholecystography"; it's a series of xrays taken of the gallbladder to detect gallstones
32
What are "Grey's Turner spots"?
Areas of bluish eccymotic areas (bruises) on the flanks associated with pancreatitis
33
What is "Cullen's sign"?
Bluish periumbilical eccymotic discoloration associated with pancreatitis
34
What is a T-Tube Cholangiogram?
When the gallbladder is removed, a special tube known as a T-tube is inserted into the duct that connects your liver to your small intestine. The T-tube cholangiogram is an x-ray examination of this passage.
35
Patients with chronic gastritis may have a deficiency in which vitamin?
Vitamin B12
36
What is amylase?
Amylase is made in the pancreas to break down carbohydrates in food into simple sugars.
37
What is lipase?
Lipase is produced by the pancreas to digest fats into fatty acids.
38
What will the nurse find on physical exam of the patient with chronic liver cirrhosis?
Hard, enlarged liver
39
What is a normal amalyse level?
Normal blood amylase level is 30-122
40
What is the normal lipase level?
A normal lipase level is 31-186
41
What amalyse and lipase levels indicate pancreatic damage?
Blood levels more than four times normal levels of amylase (>450 U/L) and lipase (>400 U/L), likely indicate pancreatic damage or pancreatitis.
42
What is a Choledocholithotomy?
Opening into common bile duct for | removal of stones
43
What does an elevated alpha fetoprotein level indicate?
hepatocellular carcinoma (liver cancer)
44
What is the normal level of alpha fetaprotein?
less than 10
45
What is a "virtual colonosopy"?
A lower abdominal CT scan
46
What is a necessary dietary requirement for a patient with Crohn's disease?
An intake of 2-3 liters of water daily
47
What are the 2 primary roles of the small intestine?
Digestion and absorption
48
The kneading action of the circular muscles in the large intestine is technically termed what?
Haustral churning
49
What is the role of Kupffer cells in the liver?
They carry out phagocytic activity; removal of bacteria and toxins from the blood
50
What is billirubin?
It is a pigment derived from the breakdown of hemoglobin (by the Kupffer cells)
51
What is the difference in conjugated and unconjugated billirubin?
Unconjugated is not soluble and must be transported to the liver by albumin; conjugated has been processed by the liver and is soluble
52
What is Cheilosis?
Softening, fissuring and cracking of the lips at the angles of the mouth
53
What is Pyorrhea?
Recessed gums with purulent pockets
54
What is the "cardinal sign" of Appendicitis?
Pain at McBurney's point
55
Where is McBurney's point?
Right lower quadrant
56
A patient presents with severe abdominal pain. What lab value would be used to confirm a diagnosis of acute appendicitis?
Serum amalyase
57
To palpate the patient's liver, where should the nurse palpate the patient's abdomen?
Right upper quadrant
58
Colicky pain in the epigastric area and chest pain after eating fatty foods are signs of what disease?
Cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder)
59
Rebound tenderness is indicative of what disease?
Peritoneal inflammation
60
A jaundiced patient with elevated LFT's indicates what?
Cirrhosis
61
A low Calcium level is found in what GI disease?
Pancreatitis
62
What is normal ALT range?
Normal ALT range is 7--56
63
What is normal AST range?
normal AST range is 5--40
64
Which clinical manifestation of pain does the nurse expect to identify in a patient who has cholecystitis?
Right upper quadrant pain radiating to the patient's back