Gestational Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

what is ectopic pregnancy and what is the most common location

A
  • implantation of fertilized ovum at site other than uterine wall
  • ampulla of fallopian tube
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is a key risk factor for ectopic pregnancy ?what can cause this risk factor

A

scarring

secondary to pelvic inflammatory disease or endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

clinical presentation for ectopic pregnancy

A

lower quadrant abdominal pain few weeks after missed period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how is ectopic pregnancy treated? complications?

A

surgical emergency

- bleeding into fallopian tube (hematosalpinx) and rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is spontaneous abortion

A

miscarriage of fetus occurring before 20 weeks gestation (usually first trimester)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

clinical symptoms of spontaneous abortion

A

vaginal bleeding
cramp-like pain
passage of fetal tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are causes of spontaneous abortion

A
  • chromosomal anomalies ( trisomy 16)
  • hypercoagulable states ( antiphospholipid syndrome)
    congenital infection
  • exposure to teratogens ( especially first 2 weeks of embryogenesis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what happens in baby is exposed to teratogens first 2 weeks of gestation

A

spontaneous abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what happens in baby is exposed to teratogens during weeks 3-8 of gestation

A

risk of organ malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what happens in baby is exposed to teratogens during months 3-9 of gestation

A

risk of organ hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the most common cause of mental retardation in a fetus

A

alcohol- can also cause facial abnormalities and microcephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cocaine to fetus can cause

A

intrauterine growth retardation

placental abruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Thalidomide to fetus can cause

A

limb defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cigarette smoking to fetus can cause

A

intrauterine growth retardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Isotretinoin to fetus can cause

A

spontaneous abortion

hearing and visual impairments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tetracycline to fetus can cause

A

discolored teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Warfarin to fetus can cause

A

fetal bleeding

18
Q

Phenytoin to fetus can cause

A

digit hypoplasia

cleft lip/palate

19
Q

what is placenta previa

A

implantation of placenta in lower uterine segment
placenta overlies cervical os ( opening)
-third trimester bleeding
-requires C section

20
Q

what is placental abruption

A

separation of placenta from decidua prior to delivery of fetus
-common cause of still birth

21
Q

what is placenta accreta

A

improper implantation of placenta into myometrium with little or no intervening decidua
-difficult delivery of the placenta and postpartum bleeding

22
Q

If a patient has placenta accreta, what does she often require after

A

hysterectomy

23
Q

What is preeclampsia? when does it usually occur

A

pregnancy-induced hypertension, proteinuria, and edema

- usually 3rd trimester

24
Q

hypertension in preeclampsia can lead to what clinical symptoms

A

headaches and visual abnormalities

25
Q

what is eclampisa

A

preeclampsia with seizures

26
Q

How is preeclampsia resolved

A

resolves after delivery

27
Q

what is HELLP?

A

preeclampsia with thrombotic microangiopathy involving the liver

  • Hemolysis
  • Elevated Liver enzymes
  • Low Platelets
28
Q

what would you do if your patient had either eclampisa or HELLP

A

immediate delivery

29
Q

sudden infant death syndrome?

A

death of a healthy infant (1 month - 1 year) without obvious cause

30
Q

when do you infants usually expire in sudden infant death syndrome

A

during sleep

31
Q

what are risk factors of sudden infant death syndrome

A

sleeping on stomach
exposure to cigarette smoke
prematurity

32
Q

what is hydatidiform mole

A

abnormal conception characterized by swollen and edematous villi with proliferation of trophoblasts

33
Q

what happens to the uterus and hormone levels in hydatidiform mole

A
  • uterus expands like normal pregnancy, but uterus is much larger
  • Beta-hCG much higher than expected for date of gestation
34
Q

when does hydatidiform mole present? what does it look like like?

A

second trimester as passage of grape-like masses through vaginal canal

35
Q

how is hydatidiform mole diagnoised

A
  • -‘snowstrom’ appearance on ultrasound in early first trimester
  • fetal heart sounds absent
36
Q

what is the genetics of partial hydatidiform mole

A

normal ovum fertilized by 2 sperm (or
one sperm) that duplicates chromosomes
69 chromosomes

37
Q

what is the genetics of complete hydatidiform mole

A

empty ovum fertilized by 2 sperm (or
one sperm) that duplicates chromosomes
46 chromosomes

38
Q

is fetal tissue present/absent in partial or complete hydatidiform mole

A

partial: present
complete: absent

39
Q

describe the villous edema in partial and complete hydatidiform mole

A

partial: some villi are hydropic, some normal
complete: most villi are hydropic (edema)

40
Q

What is the risk of choriocarcinoma in partial and complete hydatidiform mole

A

partial: minimal
Complete: 2-3%

41
Q

how is hydatidiform mole treated? what need to be monitored and why

A

D&C
- subsequent Beta-hCH monitoring is important to ensure adequate mole removal and screen for development of choriocarcinoma

42
Q

Choriocarcinoma may arise as a complication of what

A
  • gestation (spontaneous abortion, normal pregnancy, or hydatidiform mole)
  • spontaneous germ cell tumor