Genetics Pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

True of False: All diseases arise from a mutation to a single gene

A

False

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2
Q

True or false: HTS can detect genetic variants associated with disease using multiple samples

A

True

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3
Q

How much DNA does Forensic Casework typically use to detect loci

A

<1 nanogram

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4
Q

True or false: In forensic profiling cases are all markers sequenced simultaneously

A

Yes

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5
Q

What is a genomic library

A

contains fragmentary inserts of DNA generated from a variety of processes

Includes elements required for sequencing

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6
Q

What is a gene

A

Unit of heredity which is transferred from a parent to offspring and is held to determine a characteristic of the offsrping

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7
Q

What is an allele

A

One of two or more alternative forms of a gene that arise by mutation and are found at the same place in a chromosome

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8
Q

What is a genotype

A

The genetic constitution of an individual organism

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9
Q

What is a haplotype

A

a set of DNA variations on a chromosome that are inherited together because they are located close together

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10
Q

What is forensic DNA phenotyping

A

Prediction of the human appearance

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11
Q

What trait is a highly polymorphic phenotype in people of european descent

A

Eye colour

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12
Q

What was Irisplex developed to do and when was it developed

A

2009 - developed to predict eye colour from genetics

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13
Q

What were the methods in irisplex

A

used the 6 most eye-colour informative SNPS that previously reveled prediction accuries over 90% for blue and brown eye colour in dutch europeans

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14
Q

What was the major determining factor whether eye colour will be brown vs non-brown in the irisplex case

A

The rs12913832 (HERC2) with its AA/TT versus GG/CC homozygote genotypes

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15
Q

Can irisplex handle mixtures and complex dna

A

Yes

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16
Q

What is HIrisplex adn when was it developed

A

2013 - Includes a single multiplex genotyping assay for 24 eye and hair colour predicting SNPs

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17
Q

How many prediction models does HIrisplex have

A

2 - one for hair colour and one for eye colour

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18
Q

How many SNPS does HIrisplex include

A

23 SNPS and 1 insertion/deletion polymorphism

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19
Q

Prediction acuracies for hair colour in Hirisplex model

A

69.5% for blond, 78.5% for brown, 80% for red and 87.5% for black

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20
Q

What is the first fully validated sequencing system designed for forensic genomics applications

A

Illumina MiSeq FGx

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21
Q

Explain steps of illumina

A

PCR cycles link the tags to copies of each target to form DNA templates consisting of the regions of interest flanked by universal tag primer sequences. (200 primer pairs)

The tags are used to attach indexed adapters (barcoded), which are then amplified using PCR, purified, pooled into a single tube, and then sequenced

The index sequences allow the sequencing system to separate and isolate the data generated from each sample (sample multiplexing)

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22
Q

What do iiSNPs do

A

Identity-informative single nucleotide polymorphisms inform source (ideal for degraded samples)

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23
Q

waht do piSNPS do

A

Phenotypic-informative SNPs estimate eye colour and hair colour

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24
Q

what do aiSNPs do

A

ancestry informative SNPs estimate biogeographical ancestry

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25
Q

HTS amplicon workflow four steps:

A

Library preparation (PCR)
CLuster generation
Sequencing
Data analysis

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26
Q

Amplicon Library preparation steps

A

Sequence-specific/universal-tagged primer PCR for each forensically relevant target sequence in the DNA sample.

Indexes and adapters are incorporated into the amplicons.

Amplicons are then purified, pooled, and linearized.

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27
Q

Cluster generation steps

A

fragments are bound to surface oligos complementary to the library adapters on the flow cell.

Each fragment is then amplified in distinct clonal clusters through bridge amplification.

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28
Q

Sequencing steps

A

method that detects single bases as they are incorporated into DNA template strands

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29
Q

When was the first effort at generating facial composites from DNA

A

2014 originally based off 24 SNPs

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30
Q

Challenges of Facial models

A

Extract information out of an evidentiary DNA sample

Convert this information to values

Create shape transformations from these values

Combine multiple shape transformations into a single facial composite

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31
Q

Three future avenues of research in DNA-based facial composites

A

Expanding knowledge on the genetic architecture of facial morphology

Improving the predictive modeling of facial morphology

Perceptual interpretation of the results

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32
Q

Legal and ethical issues of DNA facial composites

A

Not permitted in court as science not well established

Concerns over racial profiling - It seems possible that instead of making suspect searches more exact, the vagueness of FDP descriptions might make them more vulnerable to stereotyping (Edmonton Police Services)

Creates a “suspect population” and onus on individuals to provide their DNA to prove innocence

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33
Q

What are some limitations of DNA phenotyping studies

A

Incomplete genetic knowledge - some not understood
Prediction accuracy - accurate for simple traits
Population Bias - only european
Mixtures - hard to interpret
Data quality - degraded DNA

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34
Q

What assays are used in phenotyping and how do they work?

A

Irisplex
HIrisplex
Illumina

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35
Q

What is comparative genomics

A

Comparison of intra and interspecific genomic variation used to increase our understanding of evolution, genomic structure, and function of genes and proteins

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36
Q

What three topics does comparitive genomics give insight to

A

Evolution – better understand the evolutionary and adaptive histories of organisms

Disease/Medicine/Health – better understand genes involved or associated with disease resistance, tolerance, or prevention; identify model organisms to test and better understand potential gene therapies

Conservation Biology, Biotechnology, Agriculture, Biomolecular Structure & Function (less focus here today)

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37
Q

Timeline of Comparitive genomics

A

1980’s – genome sequences of viruses and organelle’s available (comparatively small genomes!)
1992 – first chromosomes of baker’s yeast and large bacterial genome fragments
1995 – complete genome of bacteria Haemophilus influenzae and Mycoplasma genitalium
1996 – archaeon genomes and first complete eukaryote (Saccharomyces cerevisiae)
1999 – the first genome of a multicellular eukaryote (Caenorhabiditis elegans; nematode)
2001 – Human Genome Project First Draft

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38
Q

What is a phylogeny

A

representation of the evolutionary history and relationships between organisms

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39
Q

What is monophyletic

A

grouping of all organisms sharing a common ancestor

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40
Q

what is paraphyletic

A

a group of some, but not all, organisms sharing a common ancestor

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41
Q

What is polyphyletic

A

a group of organisms derived from more than one common ancestor

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42
Q

What is a homolog

A

genes with a common ancestry

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43
Q

what is a paralog

A

divergence of homologous genes due to duplication

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44
Q

What is an ortholog

A

divergence of homologous genes due to speciation

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45
Q

What is synteny

A

two genetic loci have been assigned to the same chromosome

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46
Q

What is collinearity

A

a particular type of synteny that preserves the same order of genes on a chromosome from a shared ancestor (recent genomic usage)

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47
Q

What is conserved synteny

A

the collection of orthologs within the same genomic region, regardless of order (recent genomic usage)

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48
Q

What does orthofinder do

A

infer the orthogroups for your species
infer a complete set of rooted gene trees
infer a rooted species tree
infer all orthology relationships between the genes using the gene trees
infer gene duplication events and cross references them to the corresponding nodes on the gene and species trees
provide comparative genomics statistics for your species

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49
Q

What is phylogenetics

A

Estimating relatedness between species in relation to observed sequence variation

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50
Q

What are conserved regions how can we use them

A

areas of high sequence similarity that has been preserved across distantly related organisms

putatively linked to important biological functions

We can use these regions to paint a picture of relatedness between organisms

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51
Q

Negative inpacts of gene editing

A

Genotoxicity (while being inserted)
Gene silencing (after insertion)
Expression disruptions (after insertion)
Dysregulated cellular proliferation (after insertion; i.e. cancer)

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52
Q

What are genomic safe harbour sites

A

Regions of the genome where segments can be introduced without impacting typical cell functions

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53
Q

application of comperative genomics

A

Conservation biology
Agriculture
Biotechnology & Biomolecules

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54
Q

True or false: All tissues hold the same amount of RNA

A

False

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55
Q

What make sup the largest RNA family and how much

A

28S, 18S and 5.8S (80-85%)

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56
Q

Challenges with working with RNA

A

working in a RNase-free environment

In contrast to DNases, RNases do not need any cofactors (like Mg2+), are extremely stable, and are highly reactive

RNases are everywhere and are produced by all organisms

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57
Q

Common sources of RNases

A

Body fluids (e.g. perspiration)
Dead cells (e.g. skin), or ‘finger-ases’
Tips and tubes
Contaminated solutions/buffers
Laboratory surfaces & equipment (glassware, centrifuges - especially those used in DNA extractions with solutions containing RNase, fridges, etc.)
Endogenous RNases

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58
Q

Intensity Ratio of RNA

A

28S rRNA band : 18S rRNA band ~ 2:1 intensity

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59
Q

If 18S is more intense than 28S what does this cause

A

degredation

60
Q

What is RT-DNA used for

A

Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) is used to compare gene expression between samples

61
Q

What do microarrays do

A

Monitors the level of each gene on the array
Microarray is a rectangular grid of spots printed on a glass microscope slide, where each spot contains DNA for a different gene

62
Q

What do cDNA microarrays do

A

Isolate mRNA

Make cDNA by reverse transcription, using fluorescently labelled nucleotideS

Apply the cDNA mixture to a microarray, a different gene in each spot. The cDNA hybridizes with any complementary DNA on the microarray

Rinse off excess cDNA; scan microarray for fluorescence. Each fluorescent spot represents a gene expressed in the tissue sample

Assume the cDNA on the array is in excess of the hybridized sample—thus the kinetics are linear and the spot intensity reflects that amount of hybridized sample

63
Q

Limitations of microarrays

A

Reliance upon existing knowledge about the genome sequence

Designed to target protein-coding regions of DNA

Background noise is high (non-specific hybridizations)

Limited dynamic detecting range (highly detected transcripts versus lowly detected transcripts)

Require complicated normalization methods (to get rare transcripts)

65
Q

What molecular features can only be seen at an RNA level

A

Alternative splicing isoforms, fusion transcripts.
Predicting transcript sequence from genome sequence is difficult

66
Q

RNA sequencing workflow

A

Prepare for sequencing
Sequencing the range
Only difference is the beginning - extra considerations for sample prep
Modifications to library prep
Sequencing primers

67
Q

What does a map of count do

A

Assess how much or the quantity of expression of certain genes
By mapping we can get a better idea of the difference in expression of genes

68
Q

What percent of humans show alternative splicing

69
Q

HOw many biological replicates do you typically want to aim for in RNA-seq experimental design

A

4 replicates for simple designs
studies show it is better to do more independent biological replications(5 samples each at 20 mil) rather than depth (vs 2 samples at 50 mil)

70
Q

RNA seq detection of expression vs microarrays

A

In low expression - RNA better at detecting expression

In high expression - microarrays better at detecting expresssion

Medium - strong correlation of both

71
Q

Pearson correlation coefficient

A

1 is strong correlation
above .5 is moderate
below is weak

72
Q

What can RNA seq be used for

A

PMI esitmate
personalized medicine
Prediction and prevention

73
Q

Prediction concerns of RNA use

A

Penetrance is the proportion of people with a particular genetic change who exhibit signs and symptoms of a disorder

Variable expressivity is the range of severity of symptoms among different people with the same condition

Time lag (from test to clinic), pleiotropy (other phenotypes)

Data often limited and statistical issues remain (previous lectures)

74
Q

ACEE model

A

Analytic validity (technical accuracy and reliability)
Clinical validity (ability to detect or predict an outcome, disorder, or phenotype)
Clinical utility (whether test ultimately leads to improved patient outcomes)
Ethical, legal, and social implications

75
Q

What is warfarin

A

prescribed oral anticoagulent - blood thinner

76
Q

what does OncoType DX do

A

analyzes by qPCR, mRNA expression of a panel of genes within a tumor to determine a recurrence score

77
Q

What does allomap heart do

A

qPCR-based expression profile of 11 genes to assist physicians in managing heart transplant patients for potential organ rejection

78
Q

What is the link between RNA and forensic applications? PMI specifically?

A

Lots of confounding factors 9age, sex, gender)
Mouse studies have shown links ot PMI
Developed a model with predictive value for PMI estimation(confidence interval of +/- 51 minutes at 95%) that can become an important complementary tool for traditional methods

79
Q

Impact of expression on mouse colour

80
Q

What is epigenetics

A

Epigenetics is the study of how your behaviours and environment can cause changes that affect the way your genes function

81
Q

True or false: are epigenetic changes reversible

82
Q

True or False: Do epigenetic changes change your DNA sequence

83
Q

True or false: epigenetic changes can change how you read a DNA sequence

84
Q

What does the Non-coding region on RNA do

A

Non-coding RNA helps control gene expression by attaching coding RNA, along with proteins to break down the coding RNA

85
Q

What is histone modification

A

Histone interactions can influence expression
unwrapped = open = expressed

The binding of epigenetic factors to histone tails alters the extent to which DNA is wrapped around histones

86
Q

What is DNA methylation

A

Methyl group can tag DNA and activate or repress genes

87
Q

What is a histone

A

histones are proteins aorund which DNA can wind for compaction and gene regulation

88
Q

What is DNA methylation GENERALLY added to

A

the addition of methyl group to cytosine

89
Q

what is methyltransferase

A

enzymes that catalyze the addition of a methyl group to DNA

90
Q

True or false: Can nutrition affect DNA methylation

91
Q

What percent of the genome is methylated in mammals

92
Q

Methylated locus

93
Q

non methylated locus

A

C–>U–>T

94
Q

True or False: DNA polymerase reads Uracil as adenine

95
Q

Challenges of quantifying methylated DNA

A

can be a very complicated library preperation
Need to compare to a reference

96
Q

What HTS technique is used for DNA methylation

97
Q

What is the most common liver disease and how much of the population does it affect

A

Metabolic-associated Fatty Liver Disease
25-30%

98
Q

What enzymes are involved in histone-DNA wrapping

A

Histone Deacetylases (HDAC)

99
Q

Agouti Mouse diet

A

Healthy mice kepy in off position by epigenome
Yellow mice are obese mice - same genes are not methylated thus genes are expressed
Agouti protein binds to melanocortin receptor
Melanocortin receptors in an area of mouse brain are feeding behaviour

100
Q

Can differences. in methylation be detected by standard genome sequencing

101
Q

True or false: Methylation turns on/off a gene and influences a phenotype

102
Q

true or false: Methylation is not a response to rapid change

103
Q

What is gene editing

A

genetic approach in which DNA is inserted, removed or replaced at a precise location within the genome

104
Q

Who was crispr cas9 made by

A

Emmanuelle charpentier and jennifer Doudna

105
Q

How does crispr cas 9 work

A

the guide RNA directs the cas9 protein to a target site

creating guide RNA is as simple as ordering it from a company but you must know the target sequences

106
Q

What is PAM

A

Photospacer adjacent motif

107
Q

How long is the PAM typically

108
Q

True or false: the PAM is not required for targeting in gene editing

109
Q

What are the genomic locations that can be targeted for editing by crispr limited by?

A

The presence and locations of nuclease-specific PAM sequence

110
Q

Waht does the most commonly used Cas9 system recognize the PAM sequence as

A

5’-NGG-3’ where N is any nucleotide base

111
Q

What do indel mutations do

A

encode target proteins open reading frame

112
Q

What do indel mutations give rise to

A

inactivating frameshift mutations, resulting in complete loss of function

113
Q

In Zinc finger gene editing what is the specificity of the base pairs

A

> 24 bp each molecule

114
Q

What are some outcomes of gene editing

A

Non-homolgous end joining (NHEJ)
If a donor template with homology to the targeted locus is supplied, the DSB may be repaired by the homology-directed repair (HDR) pathway allowing for precise replacement mutations to be made.

115
Q

What are two ways that gene editing could be helpful

A

Considered for conservation
Bringing back extinct species

116
Q

Three ethics points to consider on gene editing

A

Genetic tests identify SNPs associated with risk
meaning the medical condition has not affected the individual yet

Genetic information is not just about you – it contains information relevant to your family. How does this influence consent / confidentiality?

A large commercial entity

117
Q

HD case study info

A

On chromosome 4 - there is a reliable genetic test
Damaging of nerve cells
Laura Purdy’s arguement: if you are a carrier some have argued it is immortal to try and have children

118
Q

Risks of being tested for HD

A

What if positive for a disease-linked mutation:
-psychological burden
-more tests are not like HD
-how reliable

119
Q

How do Crispr or TALEN facilitate gene editing? What are the key components that allow each to function?

120
Q

What is genetic genealogy

A

Combines the use of DNA analyses with traditional geneaolgy
ex. track the inheritance of DNA variants

121
Q

What are used to identify genetic variants

A

All use standard chip +custom SNPs

122
Q

What are 4 applications of genetic genealogy

A

Expand family histories
Identify familial connections
Understanding family ancestry
Forensic context

123
Q

What are the bermuda principles and why are they important to genetics?

A

Ensure that all human genomic sequence data generated by publicly funded projects would be made freely available within 24 hours of generation.

This encouraged open science and accelerated research progress in genomics.

124
Q

Four causes of genetic variation

A

Substitutions – single base changes

Insertions – addition of one or more nucleotides

Deletions – removal of one or more nucleotides

Translocations – segments of DNA moved between chromosomes

125
Q

C value paradox

A

Genome size does not correlate with organismal complexity.

126
Q

G value paradox

A

The number of protein-coding genes does not reflect organism complexity.

127
Q

What does N50 score indicate

A

The N50 score is the length at which 50% of the total assembly length is contained in contigs or scaffolds of that size or larger. It measures assembly continuity.

128
Q

What is Q score

A

A Q score represents the quality of a base call, calculated as Q = -10 log₁₀(P) where P is the probability of an incorrect base call.

129
Q

What does phred score mean

A

Phred score is a quality score for nucleotide base calls. For example, a Phred score of 30 means there is a 1 in 1000 chance of an error in the base call (99.9% accuracy).

130
Q

Whaat does a BUSCO score evaluate

A

BUSCO (Benchmarking Universal Single-Copy Orthologs) scores assess genome completeness by checking for the presence of expected single-copy orthologous genes in the assembly.

131
Q

Chargaffs rules

A

amount fo A=T and C=G, base composition varies between species

132
Q

How is genetic variation changed

A

Mutation (point mutations, insertions, deletions, translocations)

Recombination and crossing over during meiosis

Independent assortment of chromosomes

Random fertilization

133
Q

What is the order of events for SARS COV2

A

1 Spike protein on the virion binds to ACE2 a cell surface protein
2 The Virion releases its RNA
3 Some RNA is translated into proteins by the cell’s machinery
4 Some of these proteins form a replication complex to make more RNA
5 Proteins and RNA are assembled into a new virion in the GOLGI
6 Released

134
Q

Problems using microsatellites

A

Time and labour consuming to develop primers for non-model species
Often do not transfer well between species - i.e. may amplify or may not be variable
Null alleles or PCR-induced mutations can cause problems
Difficulties in modeling the mutation process poses problems for population genetics

135
Q

Why are SNPs popular as genetic markers

A

they are abundant
They can be genotyped in a high-throughput manner
the mutation mechanism is well established

136
Q

Difference between sanger and HTS

A

Sequencing volume
Sanger only sequences a single DNA fragment at a time
HTS is massively parallel, sequencing millions of fragments simultaneously

137
Q

What DNA was used in chilean sea bass case

138
Q

Why does soil serve as good trace evidence

A

It is highly individualistic and has a high transfer and retention rate

139
Q

What is sorensons index

A

a statistical measure used to quantify the similarity between two samples,

140
Q

Limitations of DGGE

A

There is a strong bias for dominant populations
Biases generated by differential DNA extraction and PCR amplification and bands can migrate to the same gel positions

141
Q

Limitations of eDNA

A

Assay development & bioinformatics not straightforward
no information can be collected on life stages, demography, fecundity or health of the target species – all critical to management
eDNA is not homogeneously distributed throughout a water body

142
Q

What affects eDNAs persistance in the environment

A

Environmental conditions
pH levels
UV radiation
Habitat
What species do the CITES Appendices cover
What is required for identifying transmission events

143
Q

What were the main human genome project sequencing strategies

A

Public (HGP): Hierarchical shotgun sequencing

Celera (Private): Whole genome shotgun sequencing

Public had mapped clones; Celera used computational assembly

144
Q

limitations of DNA phenotyping

A

Not all traits are strongly heritable or genetically mapped

Environmental influences are not captured

Complex traits involve many loci (polygenic)
Poor knowledge

145
Q

what is bisulfate conversion

A

Converts unmethylated cytosines to uracil

146
Q

FastQ format

A

line 1: identifier
line 2: sequence
Line 3: + (seperator)
Line 4: ASCII-encoded quality scores