Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MOD Final > Genetics (Part III) > Flashcards

Genetics (Part III) Flashcards

1
Q

What is euploid?

A

any exact multiple of the haploid number of chromosomes (23)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is aneuploidy?

A

if an error occurs in meiosis or mitosis and a cell acquires a chromosome complement that is not the exact multiple of 23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the 2 usual causes of aneuploidy?

A

nondisjunction and anaphase lag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what happens during nondisjunction?

A

during gametogenesis, the gametes formed either have an extra chromosome or one less chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what happens during anaphase lag?

A

one homologous chromosome in meiosis or one chromatid in mitosis lags behind and is left out of the cell nucleus; the result is one normal cell with monosomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is mosaicism?

A

mitotic errors in early development give rise to two or more populations of cells with different chromosomal complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are ring chromosomes?

A

when a break occurs at both ends of a chromosome with fusion of the damaged ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is an example of a ring chromosome?

A

46 XY,r(14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is inversion of chromosomes?

A

rearrangement that involves 2 breaks within a single chromosome with reincorporation of that inverted intervening segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the two different types of inversion of chromosomes can you have?

A

pericentric and paracentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is pericentric inversion?

A

when the breaks are on opposite sides of the centromere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is paracentric inversion?

A

inversion involving only one arm of the chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are isochromosomes?

A

when one arm of a chromosome is lost, the remaining arm is duplicated–> results in a chromosome that contains 2 short arms only or 2 long arms only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is translocation?

A

when a segment of one chromosome is transferred to another chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the two different types of translocations?

A

balanced reciprocal and robertsonian/centric fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are robertsonian translocations?

A

translocation between 2 acrocentric chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

where do the breaks in the chromosomes typically occur with robertsonian translocations?

A

closer to the centromeres of each chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the result of a robertsonian translocation?

A

transfer of segments–> 1 very large chromosome and 1 extremely small one; the small one typically is lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the association with robertsonian translocations and trisomy 21?

A

approximately 3-4% of trisomy 21 cases are caused by robertsonian translocation, in which the q arm of chromosome 21 is translocated onto another chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the result of the robertsonian translocation of chromosome 21?

A

the fetus has 46 chromosomes but 3 copies of the long arm of chromosome 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the typical features of trisomy 21 patients?

A

typical facies with epicanthal folds and slanted palpebral fissures; single palmer crease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the most common chromosomal disorder?

A

down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the most common cause of trisomy 21?

A

meiotic nondisjunction; parents have a normal karyotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

in 4% of cases with down syndrome, robertsonian translocations occurred. What is found with these cells?

A

the genetic material normally found on long arms of two pairs of chromosomes is distributed among only 3 chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the main associated risk with trisomy 21 patients?

A

40% of trisomy 21 patients have congenital heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the most common congenital heart disease seen with trisomy 21 patients?

A

atrioventricular septal defects (AVSD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what follows AVSD in the line of congenital heart disease associated with trisomy 21?

A

VSD, then ASD, then tetralogy of fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is responsible for the majority of the deaths in infancy and early childhood in patients with trisomy 21?

A

the cardiac abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are trisomy 21 patients at increased risk of developing?

A

acute leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

trisomy 21 patients have a 20x increased risk of developing what leukemia?

A

acute B lymphoblastic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

trisomy 21 patients have a 500x increased risk of developing what leukemia?

A

acute myeloid leukemia (usually acute megakaryoblastic leukemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what leukemia is very uncommon and almost always associated with trisomy 21?

A

megakaryoblastic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

virtually all patients with trisomy 21 who are >40 years old will develop what?

A

neuropathologic changes characteristic of Alzheimer disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

abnormal immune responses predispose trisomy 21 patients to serious infections particularly of what organs?

A

the lungs and to thyroid autoimmunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

progress in unraveling the molecular basis of down syndrome has been quite slow due to what?

A

1) down syndrome results from gene dosage imbalance rather than the action of a few genes 2) majority of the protein coding genes of chromosome 21 are overexpressed 3) the genes overexpressed in down syndrome are directly involved in regulation of mitochondrial function 4) chromosome 21 has the highest density of noncoding RNAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how can we perform an non-invasive screening test for prenatal diagnosis of trisomy 21?

A

because 5-10% of the total cell free DNA in maternal blood is from the fetus and we can test by polymorphic genetic markers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is one of the main protein coding genes of chromosome 21 that is overexpressed in down syndrome?

A

amyloid-beta precursor protein (APP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the significance of amyloid-beta precursor protein aggregates?

A

aggregation of amyloid beta proteins is critical in the development of Alzheimer disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is trisomy 13?

A

Patau syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is trisomy 18?

A

Edwards syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is unique to patau syndrome?

A

microcephaly, cleft lip and palate, small eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

which trisomies have rocker bottom feet?

A

Edwards syndrome and Patau syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

which trisomy has over lapping fingers?

A

Edwards syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

which trisomy has polydactyly?

A

Patau syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

which trisomies have umbilical hernias?

A

down syndrome and patau syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

which trisomy has renal defects?

A

patau syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

which trisomy has renal malformations such as horseshoe kidney?

A

edwards syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what do all of the trisomies have in common?

A

all have problems with congenital heart defects and all have intellectual disabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

why is chromosome 22q.11.2 deletion syndrome usually missed?

A

because there are variable clinical features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are some of the features you might see in chromosome 22q.11.2 deletion syndrome?

A

congenital heart defects, abnormalities of the palate, facial dysmorphism, developmental delay, and variable degrees of T-cell immunodeficiency and hypocalcemia; there is also a high risk of psychotic illnesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

patients with DiGeorge syndrome have what symptoms?

A

thymic hypoplasia with resultant T cell immunodeficiency, parathyroid hypoplasia, which leads to hypocalcemia, cardiac malformations, and mild facial anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what are the clinical features of velocardiofacial syndrome?

A

facial dysmorphism, cleft palate, cardiovascular anomalies, and learning disabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what syndromes are associated with chromosome 22q.11.2 deletion syndrome?

A

DiGeorge syndrome and Velocardiofacial syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are the facial abnormalities seen in Velocardiofacial syndrome?

A

long face, narrow palpebral fissures, puffy lids, over-folded helix, nose is pear-shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Imbalances (excess or loss) of sex chromosomes are much better tolerated than are similar imbalances of autosomes. Why?

A

1) lyonization of all but one X chromosome 2) the modest amount of genetic material carried by the Y chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is the lyon hypothesis?

A

only one of the X chromosome is genetically active

57
Q

when does inactivation of either the maternal or paternal X occur?

A

on or about day 5.5 of embryonic life

58
Q

what happens to the inactive X?

A

it is compacted to make a small dense structure called a Barr body

59
Q

when are sex chromosome disorders usually diagnosed?

A

first recognized at puberty

60
Q

in general, sex chromosome disorders cause what?

A

subtle chronic problems relating to sexual development and fertility

61
Q

what is Klinefelter syndrome?

A

male hypogonadism that occurs when there are two or more X chromosome and one or more Y chromosomes

62
Q

what is the classic karyotype of Klinefelter syndrome?

A

47, XXY

63
Q

What is the most common cause of hypogonadism in males?

A

Klinefelter syndrome

64
Q

what do patients with Klinefelter syndrome have an increased risk of developing?

A

Type 2 DM and metabolic syndrome; increased risk of breast cancer; extragonadal germ cell tumors (mostly mediastinal teratomas); and SLE

65
Q

what could result from the hormone imbalance seen in Klinefelter syndrome?

A

osteoporosis

66
Q

Klinefelter syndrome is an important genetic cause of what?

A

reduced spermatogenesis and male infertility

67
Q

what are the main clinical features seen in Klinefelter syndrome?

A

gynecomastia, osteoporosis, lack of secondary male characteristics

68
Q

What is the most common sex chromosome abnormality in females?

A

Turner syndrome

69
Q

What is turner syndrome?

A

complete or partial monosomy of the X chromosome characterized by hypogonadism in phenotypic females

70
Q

What is the main karyotype seen in turner syndrome?

A

45, X

71
Q

What are the 3 types of karyotypic abnormalities seen in Turner Syndrome?

A

missing the entire X chromosome, partial monosomy of X chromosome, mosaic patients have 45, X cell population plus >1 karyotypically normal cells

72
Q

What are Turner syndrome patients with a Y chromosome sequence at an increased risk for?

A

increased risk for developing gonadoblastoma

73
Q

What is cystic hygroma seen in Turner syndrome?

A

infant with edema–> swelling of the nape of the neck due to lymph stasis

74
Q

what happens to patients with cystic hygroma?

A

as the infants develop, the swellings subside but leave bilateral neck webbing and persistent looseness of skin on the back of the neck

75
Q

What are patients with turner syndrome at risk of also having?

A

congenital heart disease

76
Q

what are the congenital cardiac abnormalities seen in patients with turner syndrome?

A

left-sided cardiovascular abnormalities–> especially preductal coarctation of the aorta and a bicuspid aortic valve

77
Q

what is the most important cause of increased mortality in children with turner syndrome?

A

cardiovascular abnormalities

78
Q

what are the clinical presentations of Turner syndrome?

A

shortness of stature, webbing of the neck, cardiovascular malformations, amenorrhea, lack of secondary sex characteristics and fibrotic ovaries

79
Q

what is the most important cause of primary amenorrhea?

A

Turner syndrome

80
Q

how are the ovaries described in patients with turner syndrome?

A

streak ovaries

81
Q

what do around 50% of patients with Turner syndrome eventually develop?

A

autoantibodies that react with the thyroid gland–> leads to hypothyroidism

82
Q

what are some minor problems that can arise from Turner syndrome?

A

glucose intolerance, obesity, NASH, and insulin resistance

83
Q

what is a true hermaphrodite?

A

presence of both ovarian and testicular tissue

84
Q

what is pseudohermaphrodite?

A

a disagreement between the phenotypic and gonadal sex

85
Q

what is a female pseudohermaphrodite?

A

they have ovaries but male external genitalia

86
Q

what is a male pseudohermaphrodite?

A

they have testicular tissue but female type genitalia

87
Q

What are the four categories of single-gene disorders with non-classic inheritance?

A

diseases caused by trinucleotide-repeat mutations; disorders caused by mutations in mitochondrial genes; disorders associated with genomic imprinting; disorders associated with gonadal mosaicism

88
Q

What are two examples of trinucleotide repeat disorders?

A

fragile x syndrome and huntington disease

89
Q

what is the gene associated with fragile X syndrome?

A

FMRI

90
Q

what is the repeat associated with fragile x syndrome?

A

CGG

91
Q

what is the gene associated with huntington disease?

A

HTT

92
Q

what is the chromosome associated with huntington disease?

A

chromosome 4

93
Q

what is the normal CGG repeat for the FMRI gene?

A

6-55

94
Q

what is the number of trinucleotide repeats associated with fragile x syndrome?

A

55-200 (pre disease) and and expand to 4000 during oogenesis

95
Q

what is the normal number of CAG in on the HTT gene ?

A

6-35

96
Q

what is the number of CAG associated with Huntington disease?

A

36-121

97
Q

what type of defect is associated with expansion of trinucleotide repeats?

A

neurodegenerative disorders

98
Q

what does the expansion of trinucleotide-repeats depend strongly on?

A

on the sex of the transmitting parent

99
Q

when do fragile x syndrome repeats occur?

A

during oogenesis

100
Q

when do huntington disease repeats occur?

A

during spermatogenesis

101
Q

what is the mechanism associated with fragile x syndrome?

A

loss of function of the affected gene (repeats are in non-coding region)

102
Q

what is the mechanism associated with Huntington disease?

A

toxic gain of function (expansions occur in coding region)

103
Q

what is the mechanism associated with fragile x tremor ataxia syndrome?

A

toxic gain of function mediated by mRNA (non coding parts of gene affected)

104
Q

What is a morphologic hallmark of the diseases caused by trinucleotide-repeat mutations?

A

accumulation of aggregated mutant proteins in large intracellular inclusions

105
Q

What happens when we increase the number of copies of trinucleotide repeats in huntington’s disease?

A

we get an earlier age of onset

106
Q

what is the mechanism associated with Friedreich ataxia?

A

loss of protein function

107
Q

what is the trinucleotide repeat associated with Friedreich ataxia?

A

GAA

108
Q

what is the second most common genetic cause of intellectual disability?

A

fragile x syndrome

109
Q

what happens when the trinucleotide repeats in the FMR1 gene exceed 230?

A

the DNA of the entire 5’ region of the gene becomes abnormally methylated leading to a loss of function of the FMR protein

110
Q

what neuro symptoms do affect males with fragile x syndrome have?

A

intellectual disability, epilepsy, aggressive behavior, autism, anxiety, or hyperactivity

111
Q

what is the phenotype of fragile x syndrome?

A

long face with a large mandible, large everted ears, large testicles (macro-orchidism), hyperextensible joints, high arched palate, and mitral valve prolapse

112
Q

what is the most distinctive feature of fragile x syndrome?

A

macro orchidism

113
Q

what are some patterns of transmission seen in fragile x syndrome that are not typically associated with other x-linked recessive disorders?

A

carrier males, affected females, anticipation

114
Q

for fragile x, when can premutations be converted to mutations by triplet-repeat amplification?

A

during the process of oogenesis (NOT SPERMATOGENESIS)

115
Q

what is anticipation of fragile x syndrome?

A

clinical features of fragile x syndrome worsen with each successive generation

116
Q

CGG premutations in the FMR1 gene can cause two disorders that are phenotypically different from FXS. What are they and what is their mechanism?

A

fragile x-associated primary ovarian failure and fragile-x associated tremor/ataxia; toxic gain of function

117
Q

what is fragile x-associated primary ovarian failure?

A

20% of females carrying the premutation (carrier females) have premature ovarian failure (before the age of 40)

118
Q

what are the symptoms of affected women with fragile x-associated primary ovarian failure?

A

menstrual irregularities and decreased fertility; develop menopause approximately 5 years earlier

119
Q

what is fragile x-associated tremor/ataxia?

A

50% of premutation-carrying males (transmitting males) exhibit a progressive neurodegenerative syndrome starting in their 6th decade

120
Q

how is fragile x-associated tremor/ataxia characterized?

A

intention tremors and cerebellar ataxia and may progress to parkinsonism

121
Q

how does a Huntington brain compare to a normal brain?

A

the HD patient will have a flattening of the ventricle rather than the head of the caudate and globus pallidus projecting out into the lateral ventricle; the HD patient will have global atrophy

122
Q

what does mitochondrial DNA primarily encode? and what is the effect of this on mutations in mitochondrial genes?

A

enzymes in oxidative phosphorylation; mutations primarily effect CNS, skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, liver, and kidneys

123
Q

what is heteroplasmy?

A

tissues and individuals harbor both wild-type and mutant mitochondrial DNA

124
Q

what is the threshold effect when talking about mutations in mitochondrial genes?

A

minimum number of mutant mitochondrial DNA must be present in a cell or tissue before oxidative dysfunction gives rise to disease

125
Q

what is the prototypical mitochondrial disorder?

A

Leber hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON)

126
Q

what is the effect of Leber hereditary optic neuropathy?

A

it is a neurodegenerative disease that manifests as a progressive bilateral loss of central vision

127
Q

when is visual impairment first noted in patients with LHON?

A

between ages 15-35

128
Q

besides the bilateral loss of central vision, what has also been observed in LHON patients?

A

cardiac conduction defects and minor neurologic manifestations

129
Q

what occurs during genomic imprinting?

A

imprinting selectively inactivates either the maternal or paternal allele

130
Q

what does maternal imprinting refer to?

A

transcriptional silencing of the maternal allele

131
Q

what does paternal imprinting refer to?

A

transcriptional silencing of the paternal allele

132
Q

where and when does imprinting occur?

A

it occurs in the ovum or the sperm before fertilization

133
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms of genomic imprinting?

A

1) deletions 2) uniparental disomy 3) defective imprinting

134
Q

what occurs during deletions during genomic imprinting?

A

a gene or a set of genes on the maternal chromosome 15q12 is imprinted (silenced)

135
Q

what is uniparental disomy?

A

inheritance of both chromosomes of a pair from one parent

136
Q

what is prader-willi syndrome characterized by?

A

intellectual disability, short stature, hypotonia, profound hyperphagia, obesity, small hands/feet, and hypogonadism

137
Q

what causes prader-willi syndrome?

A

deletion of band q12 in the long arm of chromosome 15 (del(15)(q11.2q13)) on the paternal chromosome

138
Q

what is Angelman syndrome characterized by?

A

intellectual disability, ataxic gait, seizures, and inappropriate laughter

139
Q

what causes Angelman syndrome?

A

deletion of q12 in the long arm of chromosome 15 on the maternal chromosome

MOD Final (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions