Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MOD Final > Bacteria (Part IV) > Flashcards

Bacteria (Part IV) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the gram negative pathologic bacteria-enteric bacteria- that cause respiratory infections? (3)

A

Bordetella pertussis, Legionella pneumophilia, Haemophilius influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the general characteristics of Legionella pneumophilia (gram stain, shape, a(n)erobic, intra or extracellular?

A

gram negative rod, aerobic, facultative intracellular organism (survives in macrophages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does legionella pneumophilia cause infection?

A

it is aerosolized: found in water systems: cooling towers, condensers, showers, tubs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where can legionella pneumophilia live?

A

inside free living amoebas and in biofilms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What 2 specific diseases can Legionella pneumophilia cause?

A

Pontiac fever and Legionnaires’ disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how does Pontiac fever present?

A

self-limited febrile illness (2-5 days): fever, chills, myalgia, malaise, headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how does Legionnaires’ disease present?

A

it is more severe: multilobular pneumonia with abscess; fever, chills, cough, can lead to multiorgan dysfunction and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the general characteristics of Haemophilus influenza (gram stain, shape)?

A

pleomorphic gram negative rod or coccobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what do all haemophilus species require for growth? And where are these found

A

hemin and NAD (X and V factors); both are found in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where must Haemophilus influenza grow?

A

chocolate agar- it cannot grow on routine blood agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does the encapsulated strain of Haemophilus influenza allow?

A

it is much more virulent and allows blood stream invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the most important and most virulent encapsulated strain of haemophilus influenza?

A

Haemophilus influenza type B (Hib)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is haemophilus influenza type B (Hib) well known for?

A

early childhood meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when is the Hib vaccination series given?

A

during the first 1 1/2 years of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Besides early childhood meningitis, what else does encapsulated Haemophilus influenza type B cause?

A

acute epiglottitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how does acute epiglottitis present?

A

fever, sore throat leading to severe wheezing, drooling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when do disease manifestations of encapsulated H. influenza occur?

A

at 6 months to 3 years- after disappearance of maternal antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what does unencapsulated haemophilus influenza cause?

A

otitis media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the general characteristics of Haemophilius ducreyi? (gram stain, shape, and requirements for growth)?

A

gram negative coccobacillus, X and V factors (hemin and NAD) required for growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how does Haemophilius ducreyi look when stained?

A

clumping of bacteria likened to a school of fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how is Haemophilius ducreyi transmitted?

A

sexually transmitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the effect of Haemophilius ducreyi infection?

A

a painful genital ulcer known as a chancroid; can also cause a painful unilateral suppurative (pus forming) inguinal lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

where is haemophilius ducreyi endemic to?

A

developing regions in asia africa and caribbean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what organisms cause a painful genital lesion?

A

haemophilius ducreyi and HSIVI and II virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the general characteristics of Garderella vaginalis? (gram stain and shape)

A

gram negative to variable rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the effect of garderella vaginalis?

A

bacterial vaginitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how does garderella vaginalis detected on pap smear?

A

as “clue cells”: squamous epithelial cells with mixed flora replacing normal flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the presentation of infection of garderella vaginalis?

A

malodorous “fishy smelling” discharge, pruritus, and dysuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the gram negative zoonotic bacilli? (4)

A

yersinia pestis, francisella tularensis, brucella species, and Pasteurella multocida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are the facultative intracellular gram negative zoonotic bacilli?

A

Yersinia, Francisella, and brucella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the general characteristics of yersinia pestis? (gram stain, shape)

A

gram negative zoonotic rod; BIPOLAR SHAPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is historically known about yersinia pestis?

A

it was responsible for the bubonic plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the reservoir for yersinia pestis?

A

found in wild rodents and prairie dogs; transferred to rats during epidemics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the vector for yersinia pestis?

A

fleas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what were the symptoms of the bubonic plague?

A

hemorrhage under skin; lymph nodes become hot and painful, fever, headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what happens/ what is the effect of yersinia pestis being spread by aerosolized particles from human to human?

A

a severe atypical pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the general characteristics of francisella tularensis? (gram stain and shape)

A

gram negative zoonotic rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how is infection with francisella tularensis most commonly obtained?

A

by handling rabbits or via tick/deerfly bite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are the effects of francisella tularensis?

A

ulceroglandular tularenia and pneumonic tularemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how does ulceroglandular tularemia present?

A

similar presentation to bubonic plague except presents with a skin ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the key difference between yersinia pestis and francisella tularemia?

A

a characteristic primary ulcer occurs at the site of the fly or tick bite in francisella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the general characteristics of brucella specieis? (gram stain and shape)

A

gram negative zoonotic rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what causes brucella infections? Who is at risk?

A

those who have contact with domesticated animal products, drinking unpasteurized milk, contact with infected meats, placental tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what are the features of brucella infections?

A

undulant fever, headache, night sweats, joint and muscle pain, splenomegaly; hematologic abnormalities can occur including anemia and leukopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is an undulant fever?

A

fever spikes during the day and decreases at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the general characteristics of pasteurella multocida? (gram stain and shape)

A

gram negative zoonotic NOT INTRACELLULAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

where is pasteurella multocida found?

A

normal flora of cats and dogs; often results after bite or cat scratch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is unique about pasteurella multocida when compared to the other gram negative zoonotic organisms?

A

it is a facultative anaerobe: it can cause localized wound infection (cellulitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the general characteristics of Bartonella species? (stain and shape)

A

gram negative rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how is bartonella henselae transmitted?

A

by cat scratch or bite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are the effects of infection with Bartonella henselae?

A

cat scratch fever; regional low grade fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy, it is self limiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

besides the febrile illness, what else can bartonella henselae cause?

A

bacillary angiomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is bacillary angiomatosis?

A

a vascular proliferative disease consisting of numerous small vascular lesions which occur in the immunocompromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the obligate intracellular bacteria?

A

chlamydia species, Rickettsia species, Coxiella burnetti, and Ehrlichia chaffeensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the general characteristics of chlamydia species? (stain, size, intra-extracellularity)?

A

gram negative, tiny obligate intracellular bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what do chlamydia species have a predilection to?

A

mucosal epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is chlamydia trachomatis?

A

the most common bacterial sexually transmitted infection; exclusively a human pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is chlamydia trachomatis a common cause of?

A

neonatal blindness worldwide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

how does transmission of chlamydia trachomatis occur?

A

through direct contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the effect of chlaymydia trachomatis?

A

non-gonococcal urethritis: dysuria, discharge in men; dysuria, increased frequency in women; men can occasionally have epididymitis; women can have mucopurulent cervicitis leading to PID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is trachoma?

A

a chronic eye infection caused by certain serotypes of chlamydia; spread by flies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is lymphogranuloma venereum cause by?

A

caused by the L1, L2, and L3 serotypes of chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what does lymphogranuloma venereum cause?

A

a tender suppurative (or pus forming) inguinal lymphadenitis which can ulcerate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

besides chlamydia trachomatis, there are two other chlamydial organisms which can cause what?

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae and chlamydia psittaci- both cause atypical PNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

how does the mild atypical pneumonia caused by chlamydia present?

A

dry cough, low grade fever with patchy interstitial inflammatory changes

66
Q

how is chlamydia pneumoniae PNA spread?

A

community acquired direct spread

67
Q

how is chlamydia psittaci “psittacosis” atypical PNA spread?

A

transmitted from bird exposure (bird feces and dried out feathers)

68
Q

what are the general characteristics of Rickettsia species? (gram stain and shape)

A

gram negative pleomorphic coccobacillus form

69
Q

what are Rickettsia species transmitted by?

A

arthropod vectors

70
Q

most rickettsia species are what test positive? and what does this mean?

A

Weil-Felix test positive: they show agglutination by OX antibodies

71
Q

how do Rickettsia species present?

A

fever, headache, rash, thrombocytopenia

72
Q

what does Rickettsia rickettsii cause?

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever

73
Q

what is the vector for Rickettsia rickettsii?

A

ticks

74
Q

what is the reservoir for Rickettsia rickettsii?

A

dogs, rabbits, wild rodents

75
Q

what are the symptoms associated with R. Rickettsii infection aka rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

fever, headache, centripetal rash including palms and soles

76
Q

where is R. rickettsii prevalent?

A

central and southeast US

77
Q

causes of rickettsial infection also often show what?

A

thrombocytopenia

78
Q

what does a centripetal rash mean?

A

it starts on the wrists and ankles and spreads to the trunk

79
Q

What is unique about R. akari?

A

they are Weil-Felix negative

80
Q

what is the most prominent sign of rickettsialpox?

A

a blister/eschar at bite site

81
Q

What are the general characteristics of coxiella burnetti (Q fever)?

A

obligate intracellular gram negative bacteria

82
Q

where is coxiella burnetti found?

A

in domesticated animals such as cattle, sheep, and goats

83
Q

how can coxiella burnetti be transmitted?

A

through the dust and air especially during the birthing, killing, and butchering of animals

84
Q

what does coxiella burnetti: Q fever present with?

A

fever, headache, atypical pna

85
Q

What is ehrlichia chaffeensis?

A

tick born illness which causes ehrlichiosis

86
Q

how does ehrlichiosis present?

A

it is a similar disease as rocky mountain spotted fever but typically NO RASH; fever headache malaise present

87
Q

where is Ehrlichia chaffeensis common?

A

same range as rocky mountain spotted fever: southeast and central US

88
Q

What is a general description of the spirochetes?

A

they are gram negative, corkscrew bacteria, with spinning motility and difficult to culture

89
Q

What are the 3 different species in the spirochetes group?

A

treponema, borrelia, and leptospira

90
Q

how are spirochetes diagnosed?

A

by dark-field microscopy, silver stains, and serologic testing

91
Q

What is the main disease/illness caused by treponema pallidum?

A

syphilis

92
Q

how is syphilis transmitted?

A

sexually transmitted disease by skin to skin contact

93
Q

how does syphilis present? what are the stages of the illness?

A
  1. primary syphilis 2. Secondary syphilis 3. tertiary syphilis
94
Q

what occurs in primary syphilis?

A

a painless chancre develops after 3-6 weeks of contact (typically in genital region)

95
Q

what occurs in secondary syphilis?

A

6 weeks after the primary infection, individuals can get a condyloma lata, a macular red rash (on the palms and soles), patchy hair loss, lymphadenopathy

96
Q

what occurs in tertiary syphilis?

A

6-40 years after secondary infection: gummatous lesions, thoracic aortic aneurysm, and neurosyphilis

97
Q

what are the symptoms of neurosyphilis?

A

subacute meningitis, tabes dorsalis

98
Q

when does tabes dorsalis occur and what is the effect?

A

occurs when syphilis affects the posterior columns of the spinal cord resulting in decreased coordination, loss of pain/temperature sensation, and diminished proprioceptive and vibratory sensation

99
Q

what is Argyll robinson pupils?

A

syphilitis lesion involving the midbrain; pupil constrict to focus on near object but they do not react to light

100
Q

infants with congenital syphilis present with what?

A

mucous membrane involvement in the first 3 weeks of life termed “snuffles”

101
Q

what is secondary syphilis in infants?

A

rash including palms and soles, condyloma lata

102
Q

what is the time frame for congenital syphilis?

A

within the first 2 years of birth

103
Q

what is the time frame for late congenital syphilis?

A

> 2 years after birth

104
Q

what are the findings of late congenital syphilis?

A

tertiary syphilis (cardiovascular typically spared); neurosyphilis (8th cranial nerve involvement deafness) bone and teeth involvement

105
Q

what are the teeth defects seen in late congenital syphilis?

A

Hutchinson’s teeth: central tooth notching

106
Q

what are the bone defects seen in late congenital syphilis?

A

Saber shins: bowing of the tibia

107
Q

How do you diagnose syphilis if it is in the primary and secondary active forms?

A

dark field microscopy of chancre, rash, or condyloma latum

108
Q

What does infection with Borrelia burgdorferi cause?

A

lyme disease

109
Q

How is lyme disease transmitted?

A

by blacklegged Ixodes ticks

110
Q

what is the reservoir for lyme disease?

A

deer

111
Q

where is lyme disease commonly found?

A

northeast US, upper midwest

112
Q

what is the most common tick borne illness?

A

Lyme disease

113
Q

How does the early localized disease of lyme disease present?

A

10 days after tick bite: erythema migrans: bulls-eye rash at tick bite; flu like symptoms

114
Q

what are the signs of early disseminated disease of lyme disease?

A

it can involve the nervous system, heart and joints; Bell’s palsy, neuropathy, or meningitis can occur

115
Q

What is a big clue of early disseminated disease of lyme disease?

A

if there is a unilateral warm joint (especially the knee) with concomitant fever

116
Q

What are the signs of late disease of lyme disease?

A

chronic arthritis and encephalopathy (memory impairment and somnolence)

117
Q

What is a unique feature of mycobacterium?

A

they are acid fast

118
Q

what are the 3 important mycobacteria?

A

m. tuberculosis, M. leprae, and M. avium complex

119
Q

how is m. tuberculosis spread?

A

respiratory aerosolization from person to person

120
Q

who is at more of a risk for m. tuberculosis?

A

immunocompromised especially HIV patients

121
Q

what are the major countries with m. tuberculosis?

A

china, southeast asia, africa

122
Q

what is the body’s response to mycobacterium?

A

cell mediated immune response- the mycobacterium is taken up by alveolar macrophages which activate a T helper 1 cell

123
Q

what is the result of the cell mediated immune response to mycobacterium?

A

a necrotizing granulomata

124
Q

In tuberculosis most of the damage is caused by what?

A

the necrotizing granulomata not the actual organism

125
Q

what acts as the virulence factor for mycobacterium?

A

mycosides

126
Q

what happens once tuberculosis is breathed in?

A

it travels to the distal portion of the airspaces when it often times implants in the middle lobe; primary infection begins in the lung

127
Q

who is at risk for primary symptomatic tuberculosis?

A

immunocompromised, elderly, and young

128
Q

how does primary symptomatic tuberculosis present?

A

fever, chest pain, hilar lymphadenopathy, and effusion

129
Q

What is a Ghon complex?

A

a focus of subpleural tuberculosis with associated lymphadenopathy

130
Q

What is secondary tuberculosis?

A

it arises from a previously infected host, often through reactivation of a latent infection

131
Q

when might secondary tuberculosis appear?

A

months to years after the primary infection

132
Q

how does secondary tuberculosis present?

A

insidious onset- low grade fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis

133
Q

reactivated tuberculosis classically involves what?

A

the upper lobes of the lungs because of the relatively higher oxygen tension

134
Q

what are two important patterns of spread of secondary tuberculosis?

A

Pott’s disease and miliary tuberculosis

135
Q

what is miliary tuberculosis?

A

widespread disseminated disease throughout multiple organs with innumerable lesions throughout the organs

136
Q

what is Pott’s disease?

A

involvement of tuberculosis of the spine

137
Q

what is the most common extrapulmonary manifestation of tuberculosis?

A

Pott’s disease

138
Q

how is tuberculosis diagnosed?

A

Screening: tuberculin skin test and interferon-gamma release assays

139
Q

when might you suspect primary tuberculosis on chest x-ray?

A

if you identify a Ghon complex

140
Q

when might you suspect secondary active tuberculosis on chest xray?

A

something in the uper lobes

141
Q

what does m. leprae cause?

A

leprosy (hansen’s disease)

142
Q

where is leprosy prevalent?

A

certain developing countries- india brazil and indonesia

143
Q

what is m leprae carried in?

A

in armadillos in southern US

144
Q

leprosy is a disease of primarily the skin and superficial soft tissue- why?

A

it preferentially grows at lower temperatures

145
Q

there are different manifestations of leprosy including what two?

A

tuberculoid leprosy and lepromatous leprosy

146
Q

what is occurring in tuberculoid leprosy?

A

a strong cell mediated response (THelper 1 and IFN-gamma)

147
Q

what is the effect of the strong cell mediated response that is occurring in tuberculoid leprosy?

A

localized skin lesions, granulomatous inflammation; typically involves unilateral skin/nerve; loss of nerve sensation

148
Q

what is occurring in lepromatous leprosy?

A

there is no or minimal cell mediated immune response

149
Q

what is the result of the minimal cell mediated immune response that is occurring in lepromatous leprosy?

A

the organisms are allowed to replicate unchecked- skin lesions typically occur all over the body with disfigurement including loss of digits of the hand

150
Q

Where is mycobacterium avium complex species found?

A

fairly ubiquitous in nature and even found in municipal water sources

151
Q

what effect does MAC cause in immunocompetent people?

A

a very low grade non specific atypical PNA which presents with cough, general fatigue/malaise and maybe SOB

152
Q

What is important to remember about MAC?

A

it is a very common opportunistic infection in HIV patients with CD4 T cell count less than 50

153
Q

how does MAC infection present in HIV patients with CD4 T cell count less than 50?

A

unexplained weight loss, fever, diarrhea

154
Q

what are the three bacteria without cell walls?

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae, mycoplasma genitalium, and ureaplasma urealyticum

155
Q

what is the smallest bacteria?

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

156
Q

what is the effect of mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

very mild or self limited bronchitis and PNA; it is a very common cause of atypical PNA in teenagers and young adults

157
Q

how is mycoplasma pneumoniae diagnosed?

A

cold agglutinins

158
Q

what is mycoplasma pneumoniae associated with?

A

erythema multiforme

159
Q

what is erythema multiforme?

A

target looking lesions, first seen on the backs of hands/ tops of feet with eventual spread down the limbs towards the trunk

160
Q

what does mycoplasma genitalium infection cause?

A

non-gonococcal urethritis

161
Q

what does ureaplasma urealyticum infection cause?

A

non-gonococcal urethritis

MOD Final (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions