Genetics Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the 4 major groups that genetic diseases can be classified into?

A

Single-gene (Mendelian): mutation of a single gene, e.g. cystic fibrosis.

Chromosome: where entire chromosomes are altered, i.e. they are missing, duplicated or altered in other ways.

Mitochondrial: Alteration in a small cytoplasmic mitochondrial chromosome.

Multifactors: a combination of multiple genetic and environmental causes.

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2
Q

How can mendelian diseases be classified?

A

Autosomal: diseased gene is on autosomes (our chromosomes with the exception of sexualk chromosomes).

X/Y linked: diseased gene is on sexual chromosomes.

Dominant: expressed in heterozygous individuals.

Recessive: expressed in individuals homozygous for the recessive allele.

Mutation: DNA sequence changes that cause genetic disease and are consequently relatively rare in the general population.

Polymorphism: common variation in population with an estimated frequency >1%. This is important as it drives evolution.

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3
Q

What is polymorphism?

A

Common variation in population with an estimated frequency >1%. This is important as it drives evolution.

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4
Q

Describe germline vs somatic mutations.

A

Somatic: occurs in a single body cell and can’t be inherited.

Germline: occurs in gametes and can be passed down to offsprings.

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5
Q

What is a splice site mutation?

A

Occurs in an intron-exon boundary altering the splicing signal that is necessary for the proper excision of an intron.

The exon can be skipped, so the mRNA lacks this exon. Sometimes there can be the inclusion of the intron region.

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6
Q

What does a promoter mutation result in?

A

A promoter mutation alters the affinity of RNA polymerase for a promoter site resulting in the alteration of the transcription level of the gene.

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7
Q

Describe a static mutation.

A

Mutation that is stably transmitted towards somatic cells in the next generation.

Each somatic cell has a copy of the mutation in its genome. E.g. sickle cell.

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8
Q

Describe a dynamic mutation.

A

Associated with TNR - arise from mutations during replication, repair or recombination.

Highly unstable leading to somatic and germline instability.

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9
Q

Describe static mutation.

A

Mutation in the germline that is stably transmitted towards somatic cells in the next generation.

Each somatic cell has a copy of the mutation in its genome. E.g. sickle cell.

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10
Q

Describe dynamic mutation.

A

Associated with TNR (tricleotide repeat expansion) - arise from mutations during replication, repair or recombination. They are caused by an increase in TNRs.

Highly unstable leading to somatic and germline instability.

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11
Q

What is somatic mosaicism?

A

2 genetically different cell lines in the same person.

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12
Q

What is germline mosaicism?

A

2 genetically different cells in the reproductive cells (or precursors) of each person. This is transmitted to offspring.

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13
Q

Describe the diseases associated with dynamic mutations.

A

Identified as the cause of more than 50 genetic diseases, mostly neurological.

They mutate between different tissues and across generations.

The longer the tract lengths of TNR, the more likely the repeat will continue to mutate.

Disease is more severe in successive generations.

Genetic anticipation - each generation the disorder becomes worse.

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14
Q

Describe a hypothesis to explain the instability caused by too much TNRs.

A

Gives DNA a different non-canonical form.

Due to the repetitive nature of dynamic mutation, a single-stranded loop is formed by the TNRs.

In the next round of replication, DNA polymerase has difficulting replicating it, causing an increased number of repetition.

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15
Q

Describe a hypothesis to explain the instability caused by too much TNRs.

A

Gives DNA a different non-canonical form.

Due to the repetitive nature of dynamic mutation, a single-stranded loop is formed by the TNRs.

In the next round of replication, DNA polymerase has difficulting replicating it, causing an increased number of repetitions.

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16
Q

What happens if expansions in dynamic mutations occur in a coding region?

A

If expansion occurs in the coding region, the result usually involves a protein containing a stretch of amino acids with an altered function.

This is usually toxic for the cells. An example is Huntington diseases, which is caused by a dynamic mutation. CAG repetition.

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17
Q

What happens if expansions in dynamic mutations occur in a coding region?

A

If expansion occurs in the coding region, the result usually involves a protein containing a stretch of amino acids with an altered function.

This is usually toxic for the cells. An example is Huntington diseases, which is caused by a dynamic mutation. CAG repetition, causing a strong of glutamines in the protein huntington.

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18
Q

Describe fragile X syndrome as a dynamic mutation.

A

Repetition is CGG and localised in the regulatory 5’ region.

This means that there can be a hypermethylation of the promoter of a gene, causing gene silencing and thus loss of protein function.

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19
Q

Describe the condition albinism.

A

Caused by a mutation in the gene encoding for tyrosinase, a tyrosine-metabolizing enzyme. This tyrosinase deficiency leads to a block in the metabolic pathways resulting in the synthesis of melanin.

Consequently a lack of melanin causes the affected person to have little pigment in their skin, eyes and hair.

As melanin is also involved in the development of optic fiber in the eyes, albinosm can cause nystagmus, strabismus and reduced eye activity.

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20
Q

Describe the condition cystic fibrosis.

A

The most common genetic mutation in infancy.

Caused by a mutation in a gene that codes for the cystic fibrosis conductance receptor (CFTR).

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21
Q

Describe the location and structure of the CFTR gene.

A

Locus: the ctrf gene is located on the long arm of human chromosome 7.

Gene structure: abount 250,000 bp long.

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22
Q

Describe the deltaf508 mutation.

A

Most common in patients with cf, present in approx 50% of patients.

Caused by deletion of a single amino acid at position 508. Located in the STP-binding domain of protein.

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23
Q

What symptoms chracterize cystic fibrosis?

A

Chronic bacterial infection of the airways and sinuses.

Fat maldigestion due to pancreatic exocrin inefficiency.

Infertility in males due to obstructive azoospermia.

Elevated concentrations of chlorine in sweat.

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24
Q

What is allelic heterogeneity?

A

Describes conditions with different diseases-causing alleles within the same gene.

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25
Q

What is recurrence?

A

Probability that an individual offspring will be affected by the disease in question.

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26
Q

Describe chracteristics of autosomal dominant traits.

A

No healthy carriers.

Females and males exhibit approx equal proportions.

No generations are skipped.

If neither of the parents has the disease, none of the children will have it.

Father to son transmission may be absent (If X-linked).

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27
Q

Describe chracteristics of autosomal recessive traits.

A

Homozygosity is needed.

The parents are usually both heterozygous carriers.

25% recurrence risk from heterozygous parents.

Consanguinty increases recurrence risk.

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28
Q

What reasons are there for an irregularity in transmission?

A
New mutation
Germline mosaicism
Delayed age of onset
Reduced penetrance
Variable expression
Pleiotropy
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29
Q

Describe how new mutations can explain an irregularity in transmission.

A

The gene transmitted by one of the parents undergo an alteration either in germline or somatic tissues, resulting in change from normal alleles.

Can arise after the formation of a zygote.

This is a frequent cause of appearance of genetic disease in individuals with no prior family history of disorder. The recurrence risk for individual’s sibling is very low but can be 50% in the case of the individual’s offspring with germline mosaicism.

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30
Q

Describe how new mutations can explain an irregularity in transmission.

A

The gene transmitted by one of the parents undergo an alteration either in germline or somatic tissues, resulting in change from normal alleles.

Can arise after the formation of a zygote.

This is a frequent cause of appearance of genetic disease in individuals with no prior family history of disorder. The recurrence risk for individual’s sibling is very low but can be 50% in the case of the individual’s offspring with germline mosaicism.

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31
Q

Describe how germline mosaicism can explain an irregularity in transmission.

A

Mosaicism: the existence of 2 more genetically different cell lines derived from the same zygote.

Somatic cells are not affected by the mutation. The recurrence risk can be elevated for future offsprings.

This situation can be suspected when 2 or more offspring will present with an AD (Alzheimer’s) disease when there is no family history.

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32
Q

Describe how delayed age of onset can explain an irregularity in transmission.

A

Can cause difficulty in deducing mode of inheritance.

It’s not possible until later in life to determine whether an individual carries a mutation, therefore many individuals have children before they develop the disease.

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33
Q

Describe how reduced penetrance can explain an irregularity in transmission.

A

An individual with the genotype for the disease might not manifest the disease at all, even though they can transmit this to the next generation.

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34
Q

What is penetrance?

A

Penetrace is a numerical value given by number of affected individuals/number of heterozygotes.

If 10% of obligated carriers of disease causing allele do not have the disease, the penetrance of disease causing genotype is 90%.

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35
Q

Describe how variable expression can explain an irregularity in transmission.

A

This refers to the severity of the expression of the disease phenotype, which can vary greatly, e.g. Cystic fibrosis.

Consequently parents with mild expressions can transmit to children with severe expressions without realizing so.

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36
Q

What are the causes for a variable expression of genetic conditions?

A

Environmental factor, e.g. diet, exercise..

Modifier genes - additional genes which can interact with the disease causing gene, thus can modify the function and consequences of the proteins that causes the expression of the disease.

Allelic heterogeneity - different mutations within the same disease causing gene, thus some classes are mild mutations whereas others are more severe.

37
Q

Compare penetrance to variable expression.

A

If penetrance is reduced, there can be healthy individuals.

Whereas with variable expression, if reduced, there can be less expression of disease, thus causing a variety of expressions.

38
Q

What is pleiotropy?

A

Refers to genes that have effects on multiple tissues in the same individual and can have more than one different effect on the phenotype.

Therefore genes can exert an effect on multiple aspects of physiology or anatomy.

39
Q

Describe the main features of Achondroplasia.

A

This is a genetic disorder of bone growth. An autosomal dominant disease.

Characterised by a shortening of long bones.

Impairment in the rate at which cartilage cells are formed.

40
Q

Describe the causes and risk factor for Achondroplasia.

A

The gene responsible encodes for FGFR3 and is located on chromosome 4.

Studies show that there is a correlation with affected offspring and increased paternal age at the time of conception where neither parents are affected by disease.

41
Q

What disorders are maternal and paternal ages main risk factors in?

A

In chromosomal disorders the main risk factor is maternal age, while in autosomal dominant diseases, the main risk factor is paternal age.

This is due to the number of mitotic divisions of spermatogonia before entering meiosis.

42
Q

Describe the main features of Myotonic Dystrophy Type 1.

A

A prevalet form of muscular dystrophy, occuring in 1/1000 individuals.

Autosomal dominant disorder.

A multisystemic phenotype affecting: muscle, heart, endocrine system, early bilateral cataract development, nervous system.

43
Q

What is the cause for Myotonic Dystrophy Type 1?

A

Caused by dynamic mutation.

The repetition is CTG located in a non-coding region of the gene. This is the DMPK gene located on chromosome 19q13.3.

From 50 to more than 1000 is when the mutation causes the disease.

44
Q

Why is there variable expression in patients with the same CTG repetition number?

A

Because different tissues show different degrees of expansions.

45
Q

Describe DM1 genotype-phenotype expression.

A

Mild <150 repeats
Onset: middle to middle age.
Clinical phenotype: cataracts, minimum or no muscle abnormalities.

Classical =200-1000 repeats
Onset: adolescent and early adult life.
Clinical phenotype: myotonia, muscle weakness, cardiac arythmias.

Congenital >1500 repeats
Onset: at birth
Clinical phenotype: neonatal respiratory distress, general muscle hypertonia, myotonia, facial weakness, mental retardation.

46
Q

Describe the proposed model to explain the widespread pathological effects of DM1.

A

According to this, the mutation is not toxic at the DNA level. But if there are long CUG containing expanded transcripts, they are toxic to the cell.

This is because they remain entrapped in the cell nuclei and can sequester protein. Consequently they are not toxic at the DNA but at the RNA level.

For example

47
Q

What is X-skewed inactivation?

A

When the inactivation of the X-chromosome is not random but in favour of the X carrying the mutated allele.

48
Q

Describe the main features of Duchenne/Becker Muscular Dystrophy.

A

The most common form of childhood muscular dystrophy, it is inherited as an X-linked recessive disorder.

This is characterised by progressive degeneration of the muscles.

The onset is generally during infancy before age 6.

Only males are affected. Although in 8-10% of femal heterozygotes, they have some degree of muscle weakness.

49
Q

Describe the main symptoms of Duchenne/Becker Muscular Dystrophy.

A
Progressive muscle weakness - due to defect in dystrophin.
Death of muscle cells.
Delayed developmental milestones.
Lose motor skills.
Calf hypertrophy
Frequent falls
50
Q

What’s the Gower sign?

A

Describes patients that have to use their hands and arms to ‘walk’ up their own body from a squatting position.

⅓ of patients with DMD do not have a previous family history. This may be due to a mutation either after the formation of the zygote or in a germline layer of one of the parents.

51
Q

Describe the prevalence of DMD.

A

Affects 1 in 3500-5000 newborns.
1/3 of these have previous family history.
2/3 are sporadic (new mutations).

52
Q

Where is the DMD gene?

A

Located on chromosome Xp21.
Contains 79 exons, producing 14Kb mRNA.
The encoded protein, dystrophin, is constituted by 3658 aa.

53
Q

Describe the gene mutations that lead to DMD and BMD.

A

65% DMD and 85% of BMD patients have mutations caused by deletions in the DMD gene.

Duplications are seen in 6% of DMD and 7% of BMD patients.

While the remaining 35% of mutated alleles show point mutations in the DMD gene.

Translocations involving chromosome X have also been observed in DMD affected females.

In DMD, the reading frame is shifted, resulting in production of stop codons and thus small, unstable proteins with impaired attachment (lack of dystrophin).

In BMD, reading frame is not shifted, resulting in internal deletions or duplications of the protein but no stop codons.

54
Q

What is Becker Muscular Dystrophy (BMD)?

A

This is less severe than DMD, the progression is lower and the majority of patients never lose the ability to walk.

Both of the conditions are caused by mutations in the same locus.

55
Q

What is western blot syndrome?

A

A molecular biology technique that can allow observation of proteins.

A small sample of muscle tissue can be taken, its protein can be analyzed by using an antibody against a protein to be studied.

56
Q

Describe X-linkes dominant inheritance.

A

Only a single copy of the mutation is needed to have this disorder.

This is twice as common as in males as they have twice the number of X chromosomes.

The skipping of generations is also very rare.

Father to son transmission is not seen.

57
Q

Describe Y-linked inheritance.

A

The Y chromosome is relatively and contains relatively few genes.

Only males are affected as there is only male to male transmission since the father passes on their Y chromosome to their sons.

58
Q

Provide an example of Y-linked disease.

A

Diseases associated with Y chromosomes are very rare.

An example is infertility caused by interstitial deletion of Y-chromosome, leading to oligo/azoospermia in 5-10% of males.

59
Q

Describe main features of mitochondrial diseases.

A

Group of pathologies caused by mitochondrial dysfunctions.

High inter/intra familiar clinical variability.

Frequency of approx 1/5000.

Only females can transmit (matrilinear inheritance).

Can have incomplete penetrance due to heteroplasmy.

60
Q

Describe some symptoms associated with mitochondrial diseases.

A

Poor growth
Loss of muscle coordination and weakness.
Visual or hearing problems.
Developmental delays, learning disabilities.
Mental retardation
Heart, liver, kidney dysfunction

In general, they are multisystemic diseases.

Usually large organs with a high demand for ATP are affected, its also pleiotropic.

61
Q

Describe the mitochondrial genome.

A

Circular double-strand DNA.

37 genes without intronic regions:
2 for rRNAs,
22 for tRNAs,
13 for proteins.

62
Q

Describe features of mitochondria.

A

Contains genetic material.
Converts molecules to ATP.
Not autonomous in the formation of ATP.
Inherited exclusively through the maternal line

63
Q

What is heteroplasmy?

A

Both wild type and mutant mitochondria are included in the same cell.

They can segregate in different ways when cells divide by mitosis, leading to a variation in the proportion of affected mitochondria in different tissues or individuals of a family.

An important cause in variable expression in mitochondrial diseases, the larger the % of mtDNA, the more severe the expression.

64
Q

What mutations in the mitochondrial genome can cause diseases?

A

Defects in mitochondrial proteins: single base mutations; deletions or duplications.

Defects in the global synthesis of mitochondrial proteins (e.g. tRNA changes).

65
Q

What mutations in the nuclear genome can cause diseases?

A

Mutations in genes encoding for mitochondrial proteins.

Mutations in genes involved in the localisation of mitochondrial proteins.

66
Q

What diseases are associated with mitochondrial mutations? (not finished)

A

MELAS
LHON
Kearn-Sayre
Leigh Syndrome

67
Q

What is the telomere?

A

A region of nucleotide sequences which protects the end of a chromosome from fusion with neighbouring chromosomes.

68
Q

What is the centromere?

A

The part of a chromosome that links the sister chromatids.

Its physical role is to act as the site of assembly of the kinetochore, a highly complex multiprotein structure that is responsible for chromosome segregation.

69
Q

How are chromosomes analyzed?

A

Chromosomes are analyzed by collecting living tissue, usually blood.

Cells are harvested for 48 to 72 hours (peripheral lymphocytes) with mitogens. Colcemid is added to produce metaphase arrest.

The cell sediment is placed on a slide and the nucleus is disrupted with a hypotonic saline solution. This is stained with a designated nuclear stain and photographed.

70
Q

What is the human karyotype?

A

Karyotype, or karyogram, is a display of chromosomes ordered according to length.

71
Q

How can human chromosomes be classified?

A

Metacentric
Submetacentric
Acrocentric

72
Q

State and describe chromosomal abnormalities.

A

Balanced: no gain or loss of genetic material, usually not associated with a clinical phenotype.

Unbalanced: gain or loss of genetic material, causes many clinical phenotypes.

Polyploidy: the presence of a complete set of extra chromosomes.

Triploidy: 69 chromosomes, 3n in each cell nucleus.

Tetraploidy: 92 chromosomes, 4n in each cell nucleus.

73
Q

Describe triploidy.

A

Triploidy is only seen in 1/10,000 live birth, but it accounts for approx 15% chromosomal abnormalities occurring at conception. This condition is the most common loss of foetal loss in the first 2 trimesters of pregnancy.

The most common cause of triploidy is dyspermy, which is the fertilisation of a single egg by 2 sperm cells.

It can also be caused by meiotic failure, where the egg or sperm ends up being diploid instead of haploid.

74
Q

Describe tetraploidy.

A

Tetraploidy is much rarer and has only been recorded in a few live births, but the infants do not survive long after birth.

This can be caused by a mitotic failure in the embryo, where all duplicated chromosomes migrate to one of the 2 daughter cells. This can also result from the fusion of 2 diploid zygotes.

75
Q

Describe aneuploidy.

A

In aneuploidy there is the involvement of only 1 or 2 chromosomes. Therefore cells can contain missing or additional individual chromosomes.

This is among the most clinically important of the chromosomal abnormalities, as in some cases this is compatible with life.

76
Q

What are the 2 types of aneuploidy?

A

Monosomy - only 1 copy of a chromosome in a diploid cell.

Trisomy - 3 copies of a chromosome.

77
Q

What are the causes of anueploidy?

A

Meiotic nondisjunction: the failure of chromosomes to disjoin normally during meiosis, this can occur during meiosis 1 or 2.

The resulting gamete either lacks a chromosome or has 2 copies of it. A monosomy or trisomy zygote can result.

Anaphase lag: a delayed movement of chromosome during anaphase.

This causes one homologous chromosome in meiosis or one chromatid in mitosis to be failed to be included in the reforming nucleus.

78
Q

What is a chromosome deletion?

A

Caused by a chromosomal break and subsequent loss of genetic materials.

79
Q

What is a chromosomal deletion?

A

Caused by a chromosomal break and subsequent loss of genetic materials.

80
Q

What is a chromosomal duplication?

A

Additional genetic materials, this can arise from unequal crossover and generally produces less serious consequences than deletion.

81
Q

What is a chromosomal inversion?

A

Result of 2 breaks on a chromosome followed by the reinsertion of the intervening fragment at its original site but in inverted order.

82
Q

Describe pericentric and paracentric.

A

Pericentric - if the break involves the centromere.

Paracentric - if the inversion doesn’t involve the centromere.

83
Q

Describe ring chromosomes.

A

Deletions sometimes occur at both chromosome tips, so remaining ends can fuse to produce a ring chromosome.

If the ring chromosome includes a centromere, it can often proceed through cell division, but this can cause difficulties.

If without centromere, ring chromosomes are lost, resulting in monosomy.

84
Q

What is receiprocal translocation?

A

Happens when break occurs in 2 different chromosomes, the genetic material is mutually exchanged.

The resulting chromosomes are called derivative chromosomes.

85
Q

Describe translocation.

A

The interchange of genetic material between nonhomologous chromosomes.

Balanced translocations represent one of the most common chromosomal aberrations in humans, occurring in 1/500-1,000 individuals.

2 basic types: reciprocal and Robertsonia.

The carrier of a reciprocal translocation is usually unaffected.

At risk of producing offspring with genetic diseases.

86
Q

Describe Robertsonian translocation.

A

This is a particular subtype of translocation, where the exchange of genetic material occurs between acrocentric chromosomes. The short arms are lost and the long arms fuse to form a whole chromosome.

The genetic material contained within the satellite is a redundant genetic material. Usually there are genes encoding for chromosome RNAs. As if satellites are lost, no essential genetic materials are actually lost.

These carriers are phenotypically normal but only have 45 chromosomes. Their offspring may inherit an extra or missing long arm of acrocentric chromosome.

Can result in monosomy or trisomy.

87
Q

Describe the features of down syndrome (example of autosomal aneuploidy).

A

An extra copy of chromosome 21 either in male or females.

This is seen in approx 1/800-1000 live births, making it the most common autosomal aneuploid condition compatible with survival to term.

88
Q

Describe the symptoms of down syndrome (example of autosomal aneuploidy).

A

Moderate to severe mental retardation.
40% can have heart defects.
50% have deep flexion crease across palms.
Decreased muscle tone.
Risk of developing leukemia is 15-20 times higher than the rest of the population.

89
Q

What are the causes of down syndrome?

A

Approx 95% of cases are caused by meiotic nondisjunction, 90% in maternal meiosis. Abount 75% occur during meiosis I.

Mosaicism in approx 2% to 4% of trisomy live birth. These people have some normal somatic cells and some with trisomy 21. About 3% cases are caused by translocation.