Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

What is apparently the main factor influencing de novo mutations?

A

Father’s age

Positive correlation

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2
Q

What is the difference between SNV and SNP?

A

Single nucleotide:
Variant - any frequency
Polymorphism - commonly different (>1-5%)

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3
Q

What is the difference between functional and non-functional SNVs?

A

Functional: aa change

  • non-synonymous (missense)
  • stop gain (nonsense)
  • stop loss
  • splice site

Nonfunctional: no aa change

  • synonymous (silent)
  • intronic
  • intergenic
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4
Q

What are short tandem repeats/ microsatellites?

A

Repeat of 2,3, 4 or more NTs 10-100x
Highly polymorphic (used in forensics, linkage studies)
Generated though error during replication (slippage of DNA pol - DNA melts and reanneals incorrectly)

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5
Q

What are retrotransposons?

A

RNA intermediate required to copy, then jump around
Repetitive sequences in genome
LINE-long interspersed repetitive elements (makes copies)
SINE-short interspersed repetitive elements (Alu sequence around 300 bp)
LTR-long terminal repeats
Total ~40% of genome

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6
Q

What are copy number variants (CNVs)

A

Deletions/duplications

  • longer (can be millions of bases long)
  • usually fine until 2 million bp range, then start to see phenotypic problems
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7
Q

What effects do inversions and translocations have?

A

Impact depends on break point

Inversions can sometimes be harmless, but can cause problems other times

Reciprocal translocations (switching) less likely to cause problems, but reproduction can be a problem

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8
Q

Describe the map-based (indirect) strategy to finding genetic variants that influence disease?

A

Used to narrow down portion of genome responsible for trait
Use a set of markers (variants) spread throughout genome
Markers themselves not expected to influence trait

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9
Q

Describe the direct strategy to finding genetic variants that influence disease?

A

Test potential causal variants

  • previously in canditate genes with biological plausibility (often flawed)
  • now by complete genome or exome sequencing (difficulties in correct interpretation)
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10
Q

What are examples of indirect causal variant identification strategies?

A
Linkage studies (rare variant) 
Canditate genes (frequent variant) 

Both used with there is a large effect on phenotype

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11
Q

For what kind of diseases would you map using linkage?

A

Mendelian

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12
Q

How would you map using linkage?

A

Genotype 300-400 microsatellite markers for affects and unaffected family members
Identify makers that cosegregate with the disease
Get down to ~10mB region
(now cheaper to use SNPs instead of microsatellites)

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13
Q

What can you NOT find with linkage?

A

Dominant variants compromising reproduction
Atypical presentations

(use exome or genome sequencing)

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14
Q

Describe mapping using common variants through Genome-Wide Association Studies (GWAS).

A

Designed to interrogate all common genetic variation (tagging SNPs)
Large sample sizes (1000-100K or more)
Unrelated individuals
Genotype cases and controls (or continuous trait)
Strict statistical procedures

Have largely not found variants of medical importance

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15
Q

What is a main difference between map-based and direct methods?

A

Map-based focus on variants that can identify the genomic region of interest and do not usually affect the trait themselves.

  • linkage
  • GWAS

Direct focus on causal variants themselves

  • candidate gene studies
  • whole-gemone or exome sequencing
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16
Q

What is G banding?

A

Pattern obtained using protease pretreatment of chromosomes followed by staining with Giemsa
Dark bands AT rich, heterochromatin, late replication
Light bands GC rich, euchromatin, early replication
Resolve 3-10 Mb

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17
Q

Short arm

A

p

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18
Q

Long arm

A

q

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19
Q

Centromere at the end. Only genes in p arm are for rRNA (non-coding)

A

Acrocentric

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20
Q

Centromere in center

A

Metacentric

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21
Q

Centromere off-center

A

Sub-metacentric

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22
Q

What determines how many bands you will see?

A

How compressed DNA at the time
Resolution
-Landmarks can show up at different resolutions
-Can appreciate smaller abnormalities with higher resolution

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23
Q

________ is the organized image of an individual’s chromosomes. ________ is how you would describe it.

A

Karyogram

Karyotype

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24
Q

Loss/gain of entire chromosome set

A

Euploidy

Haploid, diploid, triploid, tetraploid

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25
Loss/gain of entire less than an entire chromosome set
Aneuploidy Monosomy, Trisomy
26
Presence of more than one cell line
Mosaicism Often function of trisomy rescue (some cells have 3, some have normal 2)
27
Triploidy often results in:
Spontaneous abortions
28
Possible origins of triploidy
Egg has 46 - didn't release polar body Sperm has 46 Two sperm fertilize one egg (most common)
29
Protein structure that forms mediating chromosome pairing
synaptonemal complex
30
Physical points along chromosome where crossing over has occurred
chiasma | at least one per chromosome arm is required for normal segregation
31
Where is recombination more likely to occur?
Increased near telomeres, decreased near centromeres | More in females
32
Two causes of aneuploidy in meiosis and mitosis
Nondisjunction | Anaphase lag
33
Failure of chromatids (mitosis or meiosis II) or chromosomes (meiosis I) to separate at anaphase
Nondisjunction
34
Failure of a chromatid of chromosome to attach to the spindle and segregate into a daughter cell
Anaphase lag
35
Contributing factor in all human trisomies
Abnormal recombination
36
Tips of the X and Y chromosomes - identical regions | Only place where X and Y can pair to each other for recombination
Pseudoautosomal regions
37
How is incidence of aneuploidy related with maternal age?
Advanced maternal age (33-34) is correlated with increased risk of abnormal oocytes and Down syndrome -associated with most human trisomies
38
What is the two hit theory for why aneuploidy increases with maternal age?
1. Some eggs are produced with missing or mislocated chiasma (this happens during prenatal development) 2. As women age, meiotic proteins lose the ability to resolve these mishaps
39
Small, cell free fetal DNA sample from maternal blood compared to control chromosome Very sensitive Postive predictive value depends on a priori risk Positive results should be followed by diagnostic testing
NIPS | Non Invasive Prenatal Screening
40
Labeling of probe DNA with fluorescent dye, denature and hybridize Can show copy number, position Dual color dual fusion design for malignant translocation s
FISH | Fluorescence in situ hybridization
41
High resolution tool for copy number analysis Pieces of DNA hybridized to chip Quantitative - Is the amount of DNA more or less than expected? (compare pt to reference)
Microarray | Yellow if hybridized equally red or green if unequal
42
What are some limitations of microarray CGH (Comparative Genomic Hybridization)?
Doesn't tell you policy, location of rearranged sequences responsible for copy number change Can be of unknown clinical significance Mosaicism can be difficult to ditch if
43
phenotype is result of inappropriate dosage for a critical gene with a genomic segment - interstitial (low copy number repeats, more consistent breakpoints) - terminal (may not have breakpoints)
segmental aneusomy syndromes
44
Balanced rearrangement of chromosomes de novo carry a 5-10% chance of abnormal phenotype Carrier risk of unbalanced offspring related to size of segments
Reciprocal translocation
45
Fusion of the long arms of two acrocentric chromosomes Lose two p arms Increased risk of +13, +21 conceptions
Robertsonian translocation
46
Individual with only one representative of a chromosome or chromosome segment
Hemizygous
47
Single gene disorder | Simple
Mendelian
48
Mechanism is through haploinsufficiency or a gain of function
Autosomal dominant
49
Mechanism is typically loss of function (but could also be gain of function) Haplosufficient
Autosomal recessive
50
Pedigree includes mating between individuals with common ancestors
Consanguinity
51
Males express phenotype because they are hemizygous
X-linked
52
Both alleles at a given locus, when in heterozygous state, are expressed
Co-dominance
53
Expression/severity of mitochondrial disease may be extremely variable because of ______________, which is the concept that not every mitochondrial genome is the same with a cell.
Heteroplasmy
54
Proposed mechanism of expansion of triplet repeats
Replicative slipping
55
Multiple genes + environment
Complex disease
56
Proportion of population with a particular genotype that express a phenotype
Penetrance
57
What classification of disease has low frequency, high penetrance, and causative alleles?
Mendelian
58
What classification of disease has high frequency, low penetrance, and susceptibility alleles?
Complex
59
Two disease patients with indistinguishable disease phenotype, even within a single pedigree, but the underlying cause of disease is different
Phenocopies
60
Susceptibility genes: Ch 1 complement factor H, ch. 10 ser peptidase HTRA1 Risk increased with smoking Vision loss
Macular degeneration
61
Sequencing only the coding regions of genes
Exome sequencing
62
Very distinct phenotype Autosomal recessive Extremely rare Was able to determine cause through exome sequencing
Miller syndrome | more realistic, but complicated for Dominant Muscular Dystrophy