General Section MATS 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of Transition Altitude

A

At or below of which vertical position of a/c is controlled by reference of altitude or height

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2
Q

Definition of Transition Level

A

Lowest flight level available for use above the Transition Alt (1000ft above TA)

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3
Q

Definition of Transition Layer

A

The airspace between the TA and TL

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4
Q

What is the standard pressure setting and exact value per hPa

A

1013.25 hPa and 27.3ft per hPa

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5
Q

What is the Safety Altitude within 25nm of EGNV and what is it based on

A

3400ft and Great Shunner Fell

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6
Q

How high is Great Shunner Fell and what is the distance/bearing from EGNV

A

2349ft AMSL and 260 degrees Mag / 29.9nm

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7
Q

Distance and bearing from POL

A

359 degrees Mag / 38nm

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8
Q

What is the minimum level for the initial approach to the TD

A

3500ft

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9
Q

How often are the regional pressure settings changed?

A

hourly

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10
Q

Who is responsible for issuing SVFR clearances

A

APC

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11
Q

Standard Separation is must maintained between SVFR- IFR aircraft and SVFR-SVFR aircraft…. TRUE or FALSE

A

True

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12
Q

When do you transfer SVFR aircraft to ADC

A

When reduced separation in the vicinity can be used then you can transfer the aircraft to ADC

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13
Q

List the VRPs and their distance/bearing

A

Hardwick Hall 353/8.8nm HAH

Hartlepool Marina 038/13.5nm HPL

Redcar Racecourse 066/14nm RED

Stokesley 107/8.5nm STO

Northallerton 181/10nm NOR

A1(M) Junction 57 (A66M) 266/7nm JCT

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14
Q

List other VRPs used in the vicinity and these sep from standard MAP

A

Amazon Warehouse 296/2.7nm

Reservoirs 349/2nm

Yarm 102/2.5nm

No

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15
Q

List the operators from private strips

A

CAA looking into this so need to update accordingly

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16
Q

CConditions for operators at private strips

A
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17
Q

Radio Failure Procedure for light a/c

A

1- Transmit blind on 119.805 giving intentions
2- Squawk 7600
3- If outside the CTR/CTA, enter the zone on a direct track to the airfield from HAH or STO, not above 1000ft AMSL. Enter orbits 1nm NW/SE and after completing 3 orbits proceed with normal cct to land
4- Use light signals from VCR (ATC will transmit blind also)
5- Pilots try to establish two way comms such as mobile phones etc
6- If inside CTR/CTA when the failure occurs, continue as cleared, if necessary leave the CTR/CTA and follow above procedure
7- Do not apply to a/c which have left EGNV frequencies
8- If PSR u/s this procedure is withdrawn

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18
Q

What are the conditions for RTF failure on light a/c at EGNV

A

1- Local Flights
2- VFR only
3- Pilot must not have left EGNV frequencies
4- Maintain VMC at all times

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19
Q

Local Police callsigns and SSR Codes

UKP28
UKP42
UKP152

A

UKP28 - NT based - 0056 - EC35
UKP42 - Carr Gate - 0052 - EC35
UKP152 - NM based - 0047 - P68

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20
Q

Local Emergency Services callsigns and SSR Codes

HLE63
HLE58
HLE99
HLE98

A

HLE63 - Urlay Nook - AS65 - 0020
HLE58 - Langwathby - AS65 - 0020
HLE99 - XZ - EC45 - 0020
HLE98 - Nostell Priory - EC45 - 0020

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21
Q

What is the location of the HEMS base from EGNV

A

1.2NM from the threshold of Rwy 23 and 600m SE of 23 final approach track

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22
Q

Only 1 helicopter is allowed at the HEMS base at any one time to carry out CAT A flights ? true or false

A

true, unless prior approval

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23
Q

In the event, 2 way comms cannot be established between HLE and ADC, the pilot is permitted to enter a 10ft hover true or false ??

If unsuccessful what should then happen

A

true and if unsuccessful, the helicopter must land

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24
Q

Describe the HEMS airborne RFT failure procedure

A

1- Pilot will inform their air desk and request them to inform ATC in order to continue/obtain clearance to operate in Class D
2- Retain squawk 0020
3- Transmit blind giving intentions
4- Unless (1) has been fully actioned, leave CAS by the quickest route
5- Unless (1) has been fully actioned, when outside CAS, route around to enter CAS south of JCH not above 1000ft AMSL and squawk identing upon zone boundary . Once on the ground at JCH phone ATC

25
Q

During what hours is training accepted at EGNV

A

0600 - 2200 Local and during normal operating hours

27
Q

What is the max timings an aircraft start/push regarding EBOT

28
Q

What flow restrictions can you put in place as ATCO i/c during non radar ops, or adverse weather, blocked runway etc

A

Inform flow on the reason for the flow rate

The maximum arrival rate (or zero is necessary)

The timings of the restriction

Inform PC Ops Supervisor also

29
Q

What is the normal FMP monitoring value at Teesside and what is the non radar value

A

Normally- 8 arrivals per hour

Non radar- 4 per hour
This allows for the 15 mins EAT for Runway 05

30
Q

What is the minimum noise procedures at EGNV (6)

A

1- Operators using the airport shall ensure at all times aircraft are being operated in a manner to cause least disturbance practical

2- Turbojet and Turboprop aircraft approaching NV will be expected to conform to continuous descent and low power, low drag approach procedures.
Aircraft should fly within speed band of 210kt-240kts during approach phase, reduce to the band 160kt-180kt at a range of 12nm, and maintain 160kt from 8nm - 4nm from touchdown

3- Pilots comply with ATC speed requirements if needed as promptly as they can

4- ATC advise on track miles from touchdown (pass when giving descent and the turn onto the heading to intercept the Loc)

5- Ground running not allowed during 2200-0700 (2100-0600)

6- Aircraft to avoid overflying MSG and Yarm and Eaglescliffe where possible

31
Q

If a pilot reports a Special Air Report, what are toy actions

A

Mod or Serv Icing, turbulence, Serv Mountain Wave, TS with or without hail and volcanic ash ….

Fill out laminated sheet in ACR file (Mats 1 appendix J )

Inform other aircraft concerned

Inform MET office forecaster - they’ll issue sigmet if necessary

Other ATS units concerned

32
Q

Describe solar radiation

A

Can be both at an altitude and ground effecting aircraft. It causes a loss or degradation of satellite based +/or ground based navigations or comms systems

Pilots who encounter space WX may request to descent before the weather warning. ATC shall be mindful that the pilot may emergency descent + Squawk 7700 and advises ATC of the encounter

33
Q

What do we do if a SIGMET is issued effecting EGNV

A

Write it on left hand page of watch log

34
Q

When is XZ active

35
Q

When is Sutton Bank active

A

Daylight hours
When the wind is between NW-NE at 15kts or less

36
Q

When are parachuting, aerobatics and unusual activities not permitted within how many miles from NV

A

3nm of the reference point below 6000ft AGL unless approved by Airport General Manager

37
Q

What is the radius of the DZ of Peterlee

38
Q

Are UAS allowed to operator below 400ft outside FRZ but inside/outside CAS without notifying ATC?

39
Q

What are you actions regarding an UAS unauthorised outside CAS above 400ft

A

1- inform aircraft operating within 5nm of the UAS with reported time and height

2- if unknown UAS involved in Airprox or operated in such a manner to effect aircraft or in an area to danger aircraft inform Police

3- file MOR

40
Q

What are you actions regarding an UAS unauthorised inside CAS above 400ft

A

for 30 mins following any report of UAS…

1- inform aircraft flying within 5nm and for IFR flights ask the pilots intentions

2- ATCO offer re routes to avoid the reported area, including another approach to other runway of avbl

3- notify police

4- file MOR

41
Q

What are you actions regarding an UAS unauthorised inside FRZ

A

for 30 mins following any report of UAS…

1- inform aircraft of time, location and level

2- ATCO offer re routes to avoid the reported area, including another approach to other runway of avbl

3- notify police

4- file MOR

42
Q

What are you actions regarding an UAS unauthorised within the airfield boundary

A

1- cease all movements for 30 mins from the report or until reasonable assurances can be made that the operation has ceased

2- immediately, inform pilots of who are already in flight within the ATZ or committed to land

3- notify police and ADM

4- file mor and put in watch log

45
Q

What are the dimensions of the FRZ and when is it active

A

Consists of the ATZ and the Runway Protection Zones extending 5km (2.7nm) from the threshold of the runway and 500m either side of centre line

Height of 2000ft AGL

FRZ H24

46
Q

When should Class 1 NOTAM be sent

A

1- when requested by Aerodrome management with information this wish for it to contain

2- airfield snow closed

3- any part of the manoeuvring area is obstructed and is likely to remain so for atleast one hour

4- following aids are u/s and likely to remain so for atleast one hour;
ILS, PSR, VHF Frequ, NDB, DME, Battery standby radio
Lights within two hours of official nights or if vis and cloud are due to be reduced ; RUNWAY, PAPIS, APPROACH

5- following aids are u/s and likely to remain so for atleast two hour;
VDF, Lights above up to two hours before official night etc, All other airfield lights, Standby Gen, Anemometer

6- RFFS is depleted during published hours

7- When the CTR/CTA is different to that stated in UK AIP

8- ATCO i/c has any other info that they consider to effect safety

9- UAS operations above 400ft within FRZ

47
Q

Regarding RVR readings when should the centreline lights be on

A

When an aircraft is taking off or landing within 5nm

48
Q

When do you start requiring RVR readings

A

Whenever the lowest reported met visibility is less than 1500m and will continue until the lowest vis is 1500m or greater

49
Q

What is the minimum and maximum RVR value for Runway 05 and 23

A

Runway 05
175m - 1400m

Runway 23
100m - 1000m

50
Q

Weather criteria for Safe Guarding

A

Met vis reduced to 1500m and expected to decrease, or the cloud ceiling reduces to 300ft and is expected to decrease

51
Q

Weather criteria for LVPs

A

RVR or met vis is 800m or less and/or cloud ceiling is below 200ft

52
Q

What are ADC and ops actions in safeguarding

A

1- call adm

2- adm/aso visual inspection to ensure barriers in place (south side to get onto runway) and ILS critical areas are not infringed

3- uncover LVO signs

4- suspend all non essential WIP (clearly marked and lit)

5- adm informs atc once the above is done

6- atc cancel free flow - broadcast message (if due to cloud free flow may remain in place)

3- inform, ate, draken, fire, jet centre, gate 7, serco and radar

4- get RFFS out for RVR readings

53
Q

What are your actions as Radar controller regarding LVPs

A

1- inform aircraft on frequency

2- arriving aircraft should be vectored to intercept the LOC at a suitable range and altitude to allow period of level flight before descent on GP

3- co-ordinate increased spacing with ADC

54
Q

What procedures are in place for arriving aircraft in LVPs

A

1- Landing clearance must be issued no later than 5nm from touchdown

2- unless visible to VCR, any taxiing aircraft must be stationary on stand or at a designated holding point before and inbound aircraft reaches 5nm. Otherwise, MAP carried out.
Can be confirmed by pilot report, CCTV or Airfield ops / AFA vehicle

55
Q

What procedures are in place for departing aircraft in LVPs

A

1- dep aircraft must of commenced its take off run before an arriving aircraft reaches 8nm from touchdown to ensure protection of the LSA, otherwise dep should be instructed to hold position and MAP to be initiated

2- airborne reports

3- airfield ops may be used to escort aircraft is necessary

56
Q

If during LVPs, the generator or main power is unavailable you should do what?

A

NOTAM

Inform aircraft on RT or ATIS

57
Q

What do Draken mean when requesting visual / VFR recoveries

A

Make a VFR join or occasionally request a run and break.

58
Q

What do Draken mean when requesting radar to visual

A

IFR initially radar positioning for an instrument approach until the pilot indicates that they wish to continue for a visual approach.

If they request a run and break, need to clarify if their VFR (if so they VFR join required)

59
Q

What do Draken mean when requesting instrument recovery

A

Radar positioning for an ILS, or radar to straight in approach