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Exam Questions > General Passmed > Flashcards

General Passmed Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first line management for osteoporosis in a patient with stage 4 kidney disease?

A

Denosumab

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2
Q

What is the most common virus causing otitis externa?

A

Pseudomonas aeurginosa

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3
Q

What are the insulin carbohydrate ratios used for type 1 diabetes?

A

Breakfast: 1unit for 8g carbohydrate
Lunch: 1 unit for 10g carbohydrate
Dinner: 1 unit for 15g carbohydrate
Snacks: 1 unit for 12g carbohydrate

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4
Q

What bloods monitoring is required for amiodarone use?

A

TFTs and LFTs every 6 months

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5
Q

What thyroid disorder can cause menorrhagia?

A

Hypothyroidism

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6
Q

What is the first line treatment for suborrheric dermatitis?

A

Topical ketoconazole

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7
Q

What changes on ECG in hypokalaemia?

A

U waves

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8
Q

What is cradle cap know as medically?

A

Seborrheric dermatitis

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9
Q

What is the required monitoring when lithium doses are changed?

A

One week after dose change then weekly until levels are stable

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10
Q

What is firstline medication for lactation suppression?

A

Cabergoline

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11
Q

What cardiac defect in child with mother taking lithium?

A

Abstains anomaly

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12
Q

What criteria us used to assess for septic arthritis in children?

A

Kocher score

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13
Q

What medication reverses the action of midazolam?

A

Flumazenil

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14
Q

What antidepressant is used to help mood and increase appetite?

A

Mirtazapine

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15
Q

When is baby blood spot screening done after birth?

A

Between day 5-9 of life

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16
Q

What is the muscle relaxant of choice for rapid sequence induction?

A

Suxamethonium

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17
Q

Can aspirin be taken during breastfeeding?

A

No should be avoided - associated with Reyes syndrome

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18
Q

What are the first rank symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Auditory hallucinations, thought broadcasting, thought withdrawal, delusional perceptions, somatic hallucinations,

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19
Q

What is the conversion between codeine and morphine?

A

Codeine to morphine = x0.1

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20
Q

What location of ectopic pregnancy is most likely to rupture?

A

Isthmus

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21
Q

How many hours after lithium dose should lithium test be taken?

A

12 hours

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22
Q

What is an alternative first line medication for OCD treatment thats not an SSRI?

A

Clomipramine - tricyclic

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23
Q

What period of pregnancy is Down syndrome nuchal screening done?

A

11-13+6 weeks

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24
Q

How long should antidepressants be continued when in remission?

A

6 months

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25
Q

How long before conceiving once patient stops methotrexate for RA?

A

6 months

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26
Q

How long is allowed for a category 2 c-section, from decision to birth?

A

75 minutes

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27
Q

What results from the combined test would indicate a high chance of downs syndrome?

A

Thickened nuchal translucency, increased B-HCG and reduced PAP-A

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28
Q

Is an IUS contraindicated in PID?

A

Yes

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29
Q

What are the indications for an ectopic pregnancy to be managed surgically?

A

Size>35mm or serum B-hCG >5000

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30
Q

What is circumstantiality?

A

Inability to answer a question without giving excessive unnecessary detail

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31
Q

What is tangentiality?

A

Wandering from a topic without referring to it

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32
Q

What would a baby who is high risk for hep b need post birth?

A

Hep b vaccine and 0.5ml of HBIG within 12 hours of birth with a further hepatitis vaccine at 1-2 months and further vaccine at 6 months

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33
Q

What are small testes in precocious puberty a causal sign of?

A

Adrenal cause of symptoms

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34
Q

What would you prescribe alongside SSRI and NSAID?

A

PPI

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35
Q

Where is the most likely primary tumour site of a woman with bone metastases?

A

Breast

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36
Q

How do you calculate breakthrough pain med dose?

A

1/6 of daily med dose

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37
Q

What type of cancer does COCP increase the risk of?

A

Cervical

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38
Q

What is the screening tool for post party depression?

A

Edinburgh Scale

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39
Q

What is exon-halos and diaphragmatic hernia associated with in Paeds GI?

A

Malrotation

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40
Q

When can you start taking COCP post birth?

A

After 6 weeks post birth and at least half bottle fed baby

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41
Q

What gender is perthes disease more common in?

A

5 times more common in boys

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42
Q

What medication would you stop in 2nd degree heart block?

A

Beta blockers, calcium channel blockers

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43
Q

What is the medical term for threadworms?

A

Enterobius Vermicularis

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44
Q

What chemo causes low magnesium?

A

Platinum based chemotherapy

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45
Q

What cut off is used to determine iron supplementation postpartum?

A

100g/L

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46
Q

What does hyperhsegmented neutrophils indicate?

A

Megaloblastic anaemia - B12 or folate deficiency

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47
Q

What does a raised immunoreactive trypsinogen indicate?

A

Need for sweat test - seen in CF

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48
Q

What heart defect is seen most common in turners syndrome?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

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49
Q

What class of medication can cause acute dystonic reaction?

A

Typical antipsychotics

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50
Q

What antipsychotic is best in treating negative symptom schizophrenia?

A

Clozapine

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51
Q

What personality disorder is characterised by liking being on your own and not forming close relationships with others?

A

Schizoid

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52
Q

What procedure is used for intestinal malrotation with volvulus?

A

Ladd’s Procedure

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53
Q

What antipsychotic reduces seizure threshold?

A

Clozapine

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54
Q

What genetic disorder causes macrocephaly in males?

A

Fragile X syndrome

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55
Q

What is the difference between knights move and flight of ideas?

A

Knight’s move thinking there are illogical leaps from one idea to another, flight of ideas there are discernible links between ideas

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56
Q

What is the calculation for age of corrected premature baby milestones?

A

Age minus number of weeks they were born early from 40

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57
Q

When do you repeat smear if sample is inadequate?

A

3 months later

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58
Q

What is the most common cause of stricter in children?

A

Laryngomalacia

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59
Q

Where in the brain would be significant in dyskinetic cerebral palsy?

A

Basal Ganglia and substantial nigra

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60
Q

what does maternal CMV present in with neonates?

A

Hearing loss, low birth weight, petechial rash, microcephaly and seizures

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61
Q

When should triptans be avoided In patients and why?

A

Patients taking SSRI’s, causes serotonin syndrome

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62
Q

Describe alcohol withdrawal in relation to hours after last drink?

A

Symptoms - 6-12 hours
Seizures - 36 hours
Delirium Tremens - 72 hours

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63
Q

What is second line medication for GAD after sertraline?

A

Duloxetine

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64
Q

What medication is used to treat tar dive dyskinesia?

A

Tetrabenazine

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65
Q

What is the most likely cause of umbilical cord prolapse?

A

Artificial rupture of membranes

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66
Q

What genetic condition is associated with neonatal hypotonia?

A

Trader Wili

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67
Q

What is the most likely psychiatric medicine to cause torsades de pointes?

A

Citalopram

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68
Q

What genetic condition can be described as a child having rocker bottom feet?

A

Edward’s syndrome

69
Q

What scale can be used to assess postnatal depression?

A

Edinburgh scale

70
Q

What are normal lab findings in pregnancy?

A

Reduced urea, reduced creatine and increased protein urinary loss

71
Q

What is CA15-3 indicative of?

A

Breast cancer

72
Q

What should be monitored with venlafaxine?

A

Blood Pressure

73
Q

What should be monitored with citalopram?

A

ECG - can cause prolongation of QT

74
Q

What is an important contraindication with Ella one?

A

Patients with asthma should avoid it

75
Q

What is the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under 25?

A

Dermoid cyst - teratoma

76
Q

What is gold standard investigation for hirchprungs?

A

Rectal biopsy

77
Q

What BMI indicates the need for a higher dose of folic acid?

A

Greater than 30

78
Q

What is the first line antidepressants for PPD in breast feeding mothers?

A

Paroxetine or sertraline

79
Q

What cancer is associated with tamoxifen use?

A

Endometrial Cancer

80
Q

What is the treatment for vaginal vault prolapse?

A

Sacrocolpopexy

81
Q

What birth defect can be associated with SSRI use in pregnancy?

A

Congenital heart defects

82
Q

What is a good anaesthetic agent for harm-dynamically unstable patients?

A

Ketamine

83
Q

What is a scaphoid abdomen indicative of in a newborn?

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

84
Q

When would you rescan for a low lying placenta seen at 20 week scan?

A

32 weeks

85
Q

What is the school exclusion process for hand foot and mouth disease?

A

No need to stay off school

86
Q

What brain damage is present in spastic cerebral palsy?

A

Upper motor neurones in the periventricular white matter

87
Q

How do NSAIDs affect bone healing?

A

Slow it down

88
Q

What is the time frame for review of a patient under 25 started on an SSRI?

A

Review after 1 week

89
Q

What is the SSRI choice for a patient with unstable angina?

A

Sertraline

90
Q

What are the first rank symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Auditory hallucinations:
- hearing thoughts spoken aloud
- hearing voices referring to himself / herself, - made in the third person
- auditory hallucinations in the form of a commentary
Thought withdrawal, insertion and interruption
Thought broadcasting
Somatic hallucinations
Delusional perception
Feelings or actions experienced as made or influenced by external agents

91
Q

What is the school exclusion criteria for roseola infantum?

A

No exclusion required

92
Q

What is a side effect of etomidate to be aware of?

A

Adrenal suppression

93
Q

How long can a pregnancy test be positive for following termination of pregnancy?

A

4 weeks

94
Q

What is the name of the childhood heart murmur that is described as a continuous blowing noise heard below clavicles?

A

Venous hum

95
Q

What is the association between smoking and hyperemesis?

A

Decreases incidence

96
Q

Within how long should a category 2 c section be done?

A

75 mins

97
Q

Within how long should a category 1 c section be done?

A

30 mins

98
Q

What investigation would you not do in meningococcal septicaemia?

A

Lumbar puncture

99
Q

What is the management of a patient with ventricular tachycardia who is harm-dynamically stable?

A

Amiodarone

100
Q

What is the management of mania if patient is already on sertraline?

A

Stop sertraline and add an antipsychotic for example olanzapine

101
Q

How long should magnesium infusion be fore after eclamptic seizure?

A

24 hours after last seizure

102
Q

What is the cut off for iron supplementation post partum?

A

100

103
Q

When in sle/antiphospholipid syndrome pregnant women take aspirin and how much?

A

75mg from 12 weeks until birth

104
Q

What is a complication in a foetus with alpha thalasaemia?

A

Hydrops fetalis

105
Q

In tof what determines the clinical severity?

A

Degree of pulmonary stenosis

106
Q

What is the condition associated with infantile spasms?

A

West Syndrome

107
Q

What is the most common side effect of ADHD medication?

A

Stunted growth

108
Q

What is a big risk factor for placental abruption?

A

Polyhydramnios

109
Q

How should long acting insulin be changed prior to surgery?

A

Reduced by 20%

110
Q

What baby weight is macrosomia?

A

4 kg +

111
Q

When is anaemia screening done in pregnancy?

A

Booking appointment and at 28 weeks

112
Q

What is the difference between bipolar type 1 and 2?

A

Type 1 - full mania lasting 7 days
Type 2 - hypomania

113
Q

What are the risks of using ondansetron in pregnancy?

A

Small risk of cleft lip/palate if used in first trimester

114
Q

What is the school exclusion for rubella?

A

5 days from onset of rash

115
Q

What is the school exclusion for scarlet fever?

A

24 hours after antibiotics

116
Q

What is the school exclusion for whooping cough?

A

2 days after antibiotics

117
Q

What is the school exclusion for measles?

A

4 days from onset of rash

118
Q

What is the school exclusion for mumps?

A

5 days from onset of swollen glands

119
Q

What is the school exclusion for impetigo?

A

Until lesion is crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment

120
Q

What type of gait may a child with developmental dysplasia of the hip have?

A

Trendelenburg

121
Q

What is the electrolyte acid base imbalance seen in pyloric stenosis?

A

Hypochloremic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

122
Q

What type of vaccine is rotovirus?

A

Oral Live attenuated vaccine

123
Q

What electrolyte disturbance can suxemethonium cause?

A

Hyperkalaemia

124
Q

What happens to blood pressure in pregnancy?

A

Falls in first half of pregnancy before rising to pre-pregnancy levels before term

125
Q

What age would you expect infantile colic to improve by?

A

6 Months

126
Q

What signs in the eyes can be seen in Kawasaki?

A

Conjunctival injection

127
Q

What is a muscarinic antagonist used in urge incontinence if bladder retraining is unsuccessful?

A

Tolterodine, oxybutynin and solifenacin

128
Q

What would abstains anomaly be described as on echocardiogram?

A

Right atrial hypertrophy and the septal and posterior leaflet of the tricuspid valve attached to the right ventricle

129
Q

What is the likely quadruple results seen in pateaus?

A

Decreased AFP
Decreased Unconjugated oestriol
Decreased hCG
Increased Inhibin A

130
Q

What can ssri cause ie electrolyte imbalance especially in elderly?

A

Hyponatraemia

131
Q

What is adenosine use contraindicated?

A

Patients with asthma - causes bronchospasm

132
Q

What dose of adenosine is used in stable patients with svt?

A

6mg

133
Q

What is the triad associated with phaeochromocytoma and what medication would be given prior to surgery ?

A

Headache, sweating and palpitations
Phenoxybenzamine

134
Q

What is the first line management for cluster headaches?

A

Triptans and high flow oxygen

135
Q

What is the management of a patient in ventricular tachycardia that has not responded to DC cardio version and adrenaline?

A

300mg Amiodarone initially then 150mg bolus

136
Q

What is the first line medication for spasmodic pain in cancer patients?

A

Diazepam

137
Q

What vaccines are offered in pregnancy between week 16 -32?

A

Influenza and pertussis

138
Q

What is the earliest time an LP can be done after onset of subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

12 hours

139
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is anaphylaxis?

A

Type 1

140
Q

What is used to stage endometrial and ovarian cancers?

A

FIGO staging

141
Q

What is CIN3 also known as and how would you describe the histological findings?

A

Carcinoma in situ
The full thickness of the cervical epithelium is affected by abnormal cells

142
Q

What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis?

A

Rotavirus

143
Q
A
144
Q

What medication is given to elderly patients with urge incontinence?

A

Mirabegron

145
Q

What’s the first line antiemetic for intracranial associated disease?

A

Cyclizine

146
Q

In paediatric asthma what is the next addition after montelukast?

A

Salmeterol and stop montelukast

147
Q

What can Long term use of atypical antipsychotic lead to?

A

High glucose/diabetes

148
Q

What enzymes can be used to assess pancreatitis diagnosis with later presentation?

A

Lipase

149
Q

What are the classic symptoms of seretonin syndrome?

A

Triad of mental status changes, autonomic hyperactivity, and neuromuscular abnormalities

150
Q

What is the rate insulin should be given in dka?

A

0.1 units/kg/hour

151
Q

How can smoking affect clozapine level in the body?

A

Cessation increases level

152
Q

What genetic condition is associated with neonatal hypotonia?

A

Prader will

153
Q

What is the quadruple result for Edwards syndrome?

A

↓ AFP
↓ oestriol
↓ hCG
↔ inhibin A

154
Q

How would rubella be described?

A

Developed a pink maculopapular rash initially on the face before spreading. Suboccipital lymph nodes are also noted

155
Q

How could scarlet fever be described?

A

Fever and a sore throat. Examination reveals tonsillitis and a furred tongue with enlarged papillae. There is a blanching punctate rash sparing the face

156
Q

What are the downs results for quadruple test?

A

↓ AFP
↓ oestriol
↑ hCG
↑ inhibin A

157
Q

What is the first line treatment of manic episode?

A

Quetiapine

158
Q

What type of cancer is superior vena cava obstruction most likely in?

A

Lung cancer

159
Q

What is the mechanism of action of atypical antipsychotics?

A

Dopamine antagonists

160
Q

What medication overdose is associated with wide QRS on ecg?

A

Tricyclic antidepressant

161
Q

What are the common drugs that can precipitate digoxin toxicity?

A

Thiazides, amiodarone, calcium channel blockers, and quinidine.

162
Q

What is the dose of adrenaline used in cardiac arrests?

A

1mg

163
Q

What antiemetics can be used in Parkinson’s patients?

A

Cyclizine and ondansetron

164
Q

What BMI indicates the need for oral glucose tolerance test in pregnancy?

A

Over 30

165
Q

How long after the start of phototherapy for high bilirubin do you check the bill levels again?

A

4-6 hours

166
Q

If a patient presents to gp with suspected meningitis what do you do?

A

Give IM benzylpenicillin and send to hospital

167
Q

What is the treatment for thyrotoxic storm if pregnant over 16 weeks?

A

Carbimazole

168
Q

How long after surgery can you restart cocp?

A

2 weeks

Exam Questions (7 decks)

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