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Sergeant Process > General Orders > Flashcards

General Orders Flashcards

1
Q

What are the department values

A

Leadership,Service Orientation,Integrity,Excellence,Fairness,Teamwork,Personal Responsibility

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2
Q

An employee who refuses to be examined for controlled substances or alcohol may be discharged but in no event shall the discipline be less than how many days of suspension.

A

5

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3
Q

A second refusal to submit to examination for controlled substances or alcohol shall result in what

A

termination

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4
Q

What are potential uses for Social Media

A

Investigative tool, Community outreach, Time sensitive notifications, Recruitment, Background investigations.

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5
Q

If a member has an order of protection or similar order placed on them who shall be contacted

A

Legal Advisor

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6
Q

What is the maximum amount of time someone be on Vacation leave or lwop after having an order of protection served on them

A

12 months

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7
Q

If a member does not request or is not eligible for authorized leave shall be

A

Indefinitely suspended without pay

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8
Q

What body piercing are female sworn members allowed to wear on duty

A

1 small spherical conservative colored, diamond, gold white pearl or silver per ear. Both ears must match and must be attached at the ear lobe.

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9
Q

Who has the final authority on tattoos

A

Chief of police or is designee

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10
Q

What is defined as excessive tattoos

A

Any tattoo on the hand except for one on the left ring finger that is no bigger that a wedding band. On the legs unless the member is in civilian clothes in which case the tattoo on legs may not extend more that 6” above the center of the anklebone. Any tattoo or brand above the collarbone.

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11
Q

Are casual or dress down day permitted

A

no

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12
Q

In addition to disciplinary action for violating dress code what else may be done

A

Supervisor may order an employee to change attire

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13
Q

What are the hair standards for male officers

A

no lower than the shirt collar at the back of the neck and the top of the ear at the sides when the employee is standing with head in a normal posture. Hair will not exceed 2 inches in bulk regardless of length.

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14
Q

What are the hair standards for female officers

A

hair shall not extend below an invisible line drawn parallel to the ground at the bottom edge of the shirt collar at the back of the neck. Hair shall not exceed 3 inches in bulk or prevent proper wear of headgear.

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15
Q

Standards for female officers who have longer hair

A

Bangs shall not extend lower than the top of the eyebrows and shall not be visible when wearing headgear. Hair shall not include hair ornaments such as ribbons or jeweled pins. A single french braid, bun, or ponytail will be acceptable. The ponytail or bun shall be worn no higher than the top of the ears in the back of the head and not extend more than 6” below the top of the color of a uniform shirt.

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16
Q

What are the mustache requirements

A

Neatly trimmed and not exceed one quarter inch below the corner of the mouth. May not obscure upper lip or extend more than one half inch beyond corners of mouth.

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17
Q

What are the sideburn requirements

A

Not excessively heavy or bushy, tapered to match hair cut, Shall not extend below the lowest part of the exterior ear opening.

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18
Q

What are the beard requirments

A

Beard growth must be mainted between 1/4” - 1/2” in length. Full beards should be maintained by the member to not extend to any part of the neck. Facial hair may cover below the jaw, but must end before the downward curve of the neck at a clean shave line. Circle beards shall not extend more than 1/2” past the corner of the mouth.

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19
Q

What are the authorized carrying systems for plain clothes officers

A

Carrying systems may be either leather or ballistic nylon in black or brown.

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20
Q

What are the required duty items

A

Badge, Firearm and ammunition, body armor, Dept ID, Drivers license, Notebook and pen, blue book, handcuffs and key, O.C., Taser, Impact weapon available at the ready, Duty belt, radio, Reporting forms and appropriate citations.

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21
Q

How often shall uniform inspections be done

A

Supervisory personnel shall inspect uniforms when members report for their duty assignments or whenever appropriate

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22
Q

General Weapons Inspections

A

Supervisors are responsible for periodically inspecting the condition and status of the weapons carried by their subordinates. Supervisors shall ensure that officers carry clean, charged and appropriately loaded firearms while on duty. These inspections which shall be documented by the supervisor shall occur not less than annually. In addition members firearms shall be inspected during biennual detailing as provided by the department armorer or designee

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23
Q

How often do supervisors have to inspect weapons of bicycle or motor officers.

A

Monthly basis with ppr entries documenting inspections. Detailing by armorer will be done annually.

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24
Q

All personal body armor shall

A

Be suitable for concealed use with standard uniform, Be at least a threat level IIA and meet NIJ standards, Be serviceable in accordance with manf. & industry standards

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25
Q

Personal body armor maintenance

A

Supervisors shall verify annually that members possess required serviceable body armor.

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26
Q

When will the department replace an officers body armor

A

If it has been hit by an object capable of damaging the ballistic panel or is involved in a motor vehicle collision where the panels may have sustained damage it WILL be replaced at the departments expense.

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27
Q

What are the requirements allow a knife to be carried

A

Folding blade, 4” max blade, Locks open, 1 or 2 hand opening, inspected monthly by supervisor.

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28
Q

Approved knife carrying methods

A

In a pocket using side clip, completely concealed, secured on belt in a holder with strap or cover.

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29
Q

Prohibited Knife uses

A

To remove flex cuffs, as a weapon unless under unusual circumstances

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30
Q

What is the process for a uniform or equipment replacement

A

Immediate supervisor will inspect items and approve or disapprove request. If approved member will complete a Uniform/Equipment Replacement Form TPD FORM 1681 and present it to the supply custodian.

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31
Q

Define de-escalation

A

De-escalation is taking action an or communicating verbally or non-verbally during a potential force encounter to stabilize the situation and reduce the immediacy of a threat so that more time, options, and resources are available to resolve the situation using the least force necessary. De-escalation is also an effort to reduce or end the use of force after a threat has diminished.

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32
Q

Define force

A

Any physical effort by a department member to compel the compliance of an unwilling subject.

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33
Q

When may officers use force

A

Effect a lawful arrest detention or search, overcome resistance or prevent escape, prevent the commission of a crime, defend themselves or others, gain compliance with a lawful order, prevent a person from injuring themself.

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34
Q

Reasonableness of force is based on what

A

The totality of the circumstances known by the officer at the time force was used.

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35
Q

What components factor into an objectively reasonable decision to use force.

A

purpose, Efforts to de-escalate,proportionality, The nature & seriousness of the threat encountered, Whether the officers actions unnecessarily or recklessly escalated the situation

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36
Q

Define proportionality

A

Officers shall balance the totality of the circumstances known to or perceived by the officer at the time with the severity of the offense committed and the subjects level of resistance. Proportional force does not require officers to use the same type or amount of force as the subject. The more immediate the threat and the more likely that the threat will result in serious physical injury or death the greater the level of force that may be proportional, reasonable and necessary to counter it.

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37
Q

Define Provocation

A

conduct that may create or contribute to a need to use force that might not otherwise be necessary.

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38
Q

Significant injury

A

A significant injury is an injury resulting from use of force that creates a reasonable risk of death or causes serious disfigurement.

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39
Q

Officers shall not use of force under what conditions

A

To punish or retaliate, against individuals who only confront them verbally, against handcuffed or restrained subjects.

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40
Q

Circumstances that influence the level of force used include but not limited to what

A

Nature of the offense, Behavior and actions of the subject, physical size and conditioning of the subject relative to the officer, Feasibility and availability of alternative responses and availability of additional officers.

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41
Q

What factors may be a reason for a subjects inability to comply other than a deliberate attempt to resist

A

Medical conditions, Mental impairment, developmental disability, physical limitation, language barrier, drug interaction, behavioral crisis, hearing impairment

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42
Q

What shall officers do when taking physical control of someone

A

Recognize that their conduct prior to the use of force including the display of a weapon may influence the level of force necessary, exercise reasonable care that their actions do not precipitate an unnecessary or disproportionate use of force, Continually assess the situation and adjust the use of force appropriately

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43
Q

What are the levels of resistance

A

Psychological intimidation, Verbal Non-Compliance, Passive Resistance, Defensive Resistance, Active Aggression, Deadly Force

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44
Q

What should a force response be limited to a the psychological intimidation, verbal non-compliance and passive resistance levels

A

Verbal direction, handcuffing, escort & control holds

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45
Q

What are the levels of force

A

Officer presence, verbal direction, empty hand control (soft and hard), Intermediate weapons, Deadly force.

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46
Q

Officers may discharge a firearm when

A

During qualifications or at a range, for testing at crime lab, To kill dangerous animal when necessary to protect a person, to kill seriously injured animal, when justified using deadly force.

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47
Q

Officers may not discharge their firearm when

A

As a warning shot, at a moving vehicle, from a moving vehicle

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48
Q

What is a supervisors responsibility upon notification of a use of force

A

When required by GO 2080 respond to scene, identify parties involved, identify and preserve evidence, Classify type of force used, making investigative and command notifications as outlined in GO 2080, Ensure that involved and witness officer reports are thorough and accurate, Document investigative actions taken.

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49
Q

OPS shall be notified under what circumstances

A

Use of force against person that results in transport to a hospital, Use of force resulting in significant injury, Any allegation of excessive use of force, The discovery of information that conflicts with the officers account, Use of fore prohibited by policy, any indication the force was used out of policy, hard control against a restrained person, K9 bites of unintended subject, k9 bites resulting in significant injury, K9 bites to the head, neck or groin.

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50
Q

Use of force Type 0

A

Physical interaction meant to separate, guide or control that does not cause injury greater than temporary pain or redness for example: Arm bars, writs locks, pressure points, push not strike impact, TARP or Spit Sock application. No Blue Team needed and no supervisory response needed.

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51
Q

Use of Force Type 1

A

Threatened use of force through aiming of a lethal or less lethal weapon such as Firearem, CEW, Felx baton, pepperball etc….. Supervisor notification required but response to scene is discretionary. Blue team type 1 report required.

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52
Q

Use of Force Type II

A

hard empty hand tactics or use of intermediate weapons or any claims of force resulting in injury. Arm bars with claim of injury, force resulting in abrasions, strikes or kicks, hard take downs, use of Felx, CEW, papperball etc… Blue Team type II report required… Supervisor shall respond and investigate Interview involved officers, witness officers subject, canvass for civilian witnesses, collect and review BWCs and MVRS or 3rd party videos. Take photos of officers involved. Subject to random selection by force analysis unit for review by FRB

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53
Q

Use of Force Type II K9

A

K9 bite of intended subject with no or minor injury. K9 officer notifies field sgt who shall respond to scene and initiates Type II Investigation. Commander notification and COC reviews completed use of force reports. Reviewed by FRB

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54
Q

Use of Force Type III

A

Use of force resulting in significant injury or use of unreasonable force or constitutional violations. Broken Bones, closed head injuries sutures, dislocations loss of consiousness, use of force against restrained person. Type III blueteam report, supervisor shall respond to scene, OPS commander Shall be notified, OPS consults with CID for response and investigation, Reviewed by COC, Reviewed by FRB

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55
Q

Use of Force Type III K9

A

Unintended subject or significant injury or bite to head neck or groin. K9 officer notifies field Sgt who shall respond and initiate Type III investigation protocol

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56
Q

Use of Force Type IV

A

Use of deadly force regardless if results were injury or death. Discharge of firearm, use of vehicle as deadly force, impact weapon strike to head, choke holds, use of force resulting in death. OPS Blueteam report required, supervisory response and screening at scene, OPS & CID response, reviewed by SERB or FRB

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57
Q

Force Types I, II, III are reviewed by who

A

Chain of command at least 2 levels above rank of member using force

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58
Q

K9 Types II & III are reviewed by who

A

COC through level of Division Commander

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59
Q

Types I, II, III and K9 II & III will have a written report evaluating what

A

use of force for reasonableness, necessity, proportionality…. Tactics and decision making, Supervision, Equipment, Policy Compliance, Training, Reporting and investigation.

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60
Q

Force Types III & IV, K9 II & III, and samples of Type II will be reviewed by who

A

FRB

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61
Q

The Force Review Board will prepare a report for the chief of police evaluating what

A

Proper categorization of force type, thoroughness of supervisory investigation, Identification and handling of deficiencies and command findings.

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62
Q

Type IV reports not reviewed by FRB will be reviewed by who

A

Sentinel Event Review Board

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63
Q

The SERB will prepare written reports to the Chief of Police evaluating what

A

Adequacy of policy, potential violations of GO’s, Use of force same as FRB, Tactics and decision making, member actions, communication, supervision, training issues and needs, equipment deficiencies or needs, other issued that played a role in the event.

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64
Q

Define an arrest

A

The seizure of a person when, under the totality of the circumstances, a reasonable person would not feel free to leave.

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65
Q

Define probable cause

A

Reasonably trustworthy knowledge, based on articulable facts and circumstance, that would lead a reasonable person to believe that a crime as been, is being, or is about to e committed, and that the person to be arrested has committed, is committing or is about to commit that crime.

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66
Q

An officer may at anytime with or without a warrant arrest a person if the officer has probable cause to believe

A

A felony, misdemeanor, or a petty offense has been committed and probable cause exists to believe the person to be arrested has committed the offense.

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67
Q

How much force should officers use to make an arrest

A

Officers shall use only the minimum force necessary to affect an arrest or restraint.

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68
Q

When shall a supervisor be notified of an ill or injured prisoner

A

as soon as practicable and an injured Person Report shall be completed.

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69
Q

With or without a warrant an officer may make an arrest under what circumstances

A

Anytime in public place, at subjects private residence, If the officer has been invited inside, if the subject has come outside of the residence, if the officer is invited into a third parties residence

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70
Q

What shall officers inform a person being arrested

A

The cause of the arrest or existence of a warrant

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71
Q

When do officers not need to inform an arrestee of the cause of the arrest or existence of a warrant

A

When providing information would imperil the arrest, when subject is presently engaged in the commission of the offense, the officer is in pursuit of the subject immediately after committing the offense, the subject resists officer forcibly before officer can provide the information.

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72
Q

Where is someone taken who is facing outstanding federal charges.

A

Federal Correctional Institute 8901 S Wilmot Road between 0600-2400

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73
Q

When should the alternative to jail program be used

A

For misdemeanor warrant arrests except for DUI, DV, or leaving the scene warrants. Program is operational business days between 0800-1115 & 1330-1600

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74
Q

When may supervisors authorize forcible entry to serve a misdemeanor warrant.

A

In serious cases in which there is reason to believe that harm may result to persons if the warrant is not served.

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75
Q

What information must be provided to Davis-Monthan Air Force Base when a member of the armed forces is arrested

A

Name, rank, DOB, serial number or person… The offense which they are charged and the TPD case number.

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76
Q

The U-Visa provides an avenue to legal status for immigrant crime victims who

A

have suffered substantial physical abuse, possess information regarding the activity, offers a source of help in the investigation and prosecution

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77
Q

Who is TPD’s certifying official for U-Visas

A

ISB Chief

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78
Q

Any time a foreign national is arrested or detained for an extended period of time what shall the officer do

A

Contact communications to determine if consular notifications are voluntary or mandatory

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79
Q

When do federal and state legislators have immunity from arrest

A

During the term of the legislative session plus 15 days before and after

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80
Q

What do federal and state legislators have immunity from

A

Any offense except for treason, felonies, misdemeanors involving a breach of peace such as DOC, Assault, DV but not DUI

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81
Q

Can a juvenile detained solely for a status offense be securely detained

A

No

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82
Q

How long can juvenile be detained in a secure detention center

A

6 hours

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83
Q

When does a supervisor need to approve a juvenile detention

A

when its longer than 2 hours

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84
Q

Define Chronic Juvenile Felony Offender

A

A juvenile who has had two prior and separate adjudications and dispositions for conduct that would constitute a historical prior felony conviction if the juvenile had been tried as an adult.

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85
Q

Define Delinquent

A

Child 8 years of age or older and under 18 if criminal act commited would be a criminal offense if child was an adult

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86
Q

Define Dependent Child

A

Child under 8 who committed an act that if committed by an older child that child would be considered delinquent of incorrigible

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87
Q

When is supervisor approval required when releasing a juvenile

A

When the juvenile is being turned over to someone other than their parents or stepparents

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88
Q

Define Status Offense

A

An act committed by a juvenile that is only considered a criminal offense because of their age.

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89
Q

When should a juvenile be booked into Pima County Jail

A

When they are 15 or older and arrested for murder, manslaughter, kidnapping, sexual assault, arson of an occupied structure, armed robbery or aggravated assault

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90
Q

What information shall the monthly juvenile and adult detention logs contain

A

date, time in and out, payroll number number of officers who secured and removed person, detainee name dob and gender, case number, charges and if a meal was served.

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91
Q

How often do detainees need to be checked while being held in a holding cell

A

Every 15 minutes at minimum

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92
Q

When transporting someone all officers shall do what

A

Complete a transport log on MTC to include the destination and odometer reading last for digits

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93
Q

If a supervisor is unable to resolve a conflict at a hospital or jail when it comes to an injured or ill person what shall that supervisor do

A

Contact the departments legal advisor and a division or force commander

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94
Q

What form must be completed when an arrestee weather booked or field released complains of illness or injury

A

Injured Person Report TPD 732

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95
Q

When is supervisor approval needed for detentions in a department holding cell area.

A

When detentions are longer that 2 hours

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96
Q

Define reasonable suspicion

A

More than a hunch and less than probable cause, articulable reasons to suspect that criminal activity is ongoing and that the person stopped is involved in that criminal activity.

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97
Q

When may an officer seize someone

A

Only when that officer as Reasonable Suspicion or Probable Cause

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98
Q

If an individual asks for a copy of a field interview report what shall the officer provide them

A

a business card with the date, time and location of the FI and advise the person that the report will be ready in 72 hours

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99
Q

The federal privacy act of 1974 requires a person be told what prior to requesting their SSN

A

Whether providing the SSN is voluntary or mandatory, the statutory authority for making the arrest and the purpose…. TPD member shall advise them that providing their SSN is voluntary, is requested as a matter of department policy and that the SSN is used to ensure accurate record keeping

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100
Q

Officers shall not do what when dealing with people recording police activity

A

Demand identification from a person photographing or recording, Demand that the person provide a reason for recording, Detain a person based on the recording, Intentionally block or obstruct cameras or recording devices in any manner

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101
Q

A search warrant may be issued to do what

A

Recover stolen or embezzled property, seize property used as a means of committing a public offense, seize property in the possession of any person who intends to use is as a means to commit an offense, seize property in the possession of another to whom it may have been delivered for the purpose of concealing or preventing it from being discovered. Seize evidence of a crime,seize property for official inspection

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102
Q

What hours can a standard search warrant be served

A

Between 0630-2200

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103
Q

Before any search warrant execution where forced entry may be needed a briefing will be held that includes what

A

raid and arrest planning, all personnel involved and their assignments, diagrams, sketches, photographs and or maps of the target location, special equipment needed

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104
Q

Who shall be notified of the location of the execution of a search warrant

A

Division or Force Commander and Communications

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105
Q

What is the supervisors role during service of a search warrant

A

The supervisor in charge shall have possession of the warrant, hand it directly to the person upon whom the warrant is served and explain its purpose at that time.

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106
Q

How many days do you have to serve a search warrant

A

5 calendar days

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107
Q

How many days until the warrant must be returned

A

3 business days

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108
Q

Do all officers involved in the initial entry of a warrant have to wear body armor

A

Yes, however a supervisor may permit exceptions but those must be documented

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109
Q

What factors provide reasonable belief for a pat down/frisk

A

Bulges in clothing suggesting the presence of an object capable of inflicting injury or demeanor suggesting the possibility that subject is armed, actions to include furtive movement to a hide a weapon upon approach or words or actions that are threatening, prior knowledge of the person.

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110
Q

Who is eligible for the address confidentiality program

A

victims of domestic violence, sexual offense or stalking who fear for their safety

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111
Q

What can be presented to indicate that someone is lawfully in the united states

A

Arizona DL, AZ non-operating ID, valid tribal enrollment card, any valid united states federal, state or local govt issued ID

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112
Q

How often shall supervisors conduct inspections

A

monthly

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113
Q

How shall supervisors handle backup units during a call

A

Supervisors shall ensure that only the appropriate number of back up units are assigned and that they return to service as soon as possible

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114
Q

During a 10-84/18 or 10-99 call what shall supervisors first do

A

A field supervisor shall immediately advise dispatch that they are enroute

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115
Q

What role will supervisors have in patrol staffing

A

Supervisors will establish work hours in concert with Division and Bureau policies

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116
Q

What are sworn members arriving on scene of a crime or other police incident responsible for

A

Identification, security and protection of the scene, prevention of further injury or loss of life to include application of first aid, apprehension of suspects, completion of a thorough investigation, locate and interview complainant and witnesses, collection of evidence and completion of all reports

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117
Q

Who has incident command of a scene

A

The person managing the police scene

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118
Q

What shall a supervisor do when enroute to a major incident or scene requiring a supervisor

A

Notify communications that they are enroute

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119
Q

When arriving on scene of a major incident what shall a supervisor do

A

Assume incident command when appropriate

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120
Q

What guidelines for conduct shall supervisors arriving on scene use

A

Contact incident commander for briefing, assess the nature of the situation and the police response, assume or decline incident command, if not assuming incident command - advise the incident commander and make suggestions and act as a resource and advise incident commander when leaving scene

121
Q

When may air support be requetsed

A

Life threatening situations, support FSB personnel, support other department personnel, surveillance, photo missions

122
Q

Who can approve the call out request for K9 Unit

A

LPO or Supervisor

123
Q

What is the name of the preplanned structure for response to large critical incidents

A

Major Action Plan

124
Q

What information shall be obtained when a bomb threat is made

A

Location, time of detonation, description of device, explosive involved, reason bomb was planted identification of person providing info

125
Q

Who is responsible for documenting personnel, vehicles, equipment or material used in a non emergency situation with South Tucson and how many days do they have to submit that report

A

a commander or supervisor and 10 working days

126
Q

What major incidents may require callout or notifications

A

Any incident that may be reviewed by CIRB, any death of a person during dept action, incidents of unusual nature, accidental discharges or dispatching of animals, incidents requiring extraordinary response

127
Q

When shall the incident commander notify City Risk Managment

A

In situations involving potential serious liability to the city

128
Q

Who is the focus officer during an OIS

A

An officer who discharges their firearm in the course of duty

129
Q

When arriving on missing persons scenes what shall the IC be mindful of

A

The call location is a possible crime scene and time is of the essence

130
Q

What shall a supervisor be responsible for prior to a high risk operation

A

Confirming location by visual inspection, making a detailed plan of the operation, conducting a thorough briefing attended by all personnel participating, assigning personnel to specific tasks

131
Q

what is ARS 13-701

A

An option for enhanced sentencing for hate crimes

132
Q

What are supervisor responsibilities on hate crime incidents

A

Supervisors shall respond to the scene of felony investigations with a suspected hate or bias motivation. Supervisors shall ensure appropriate investigative protocols are followed to include the use of crime scene personnel, the preservation of evidence and notification to investigative units

133
Q

During a burglary investigation when shall a supervisor be notified

A

The burglary involves city property, the suspect is detained or there is significant loss - liability - structure cannot be secured, a search warrant is necessary.

134
Q

Characteristics of a habitual offender are

A

2 or more felony arrests, suspect in a felony, prior crim history, on probation or parole, history of violence, history of police intervention, engages in activity adversely affecting children, recruits people into lifestyle, associates with felons, intimidates witnesses, is prohibited, violent sex offender.

135
Q

When dealing with incapacitated elderly person who should officers try to contact before the public fiduciary

A

Guardian, family member, neighbor,boarding home,hotel,information & referral,pima council on aging, adult protective services

136
Q

Supervisors responsibilities when dealing with incapacitated elderly person to contacting fiduciarys office

A

obtain Factual basis, medical evaluation, family-significant others, alternatives and expectations.

137
Q

What factual basis’s need to be determined in incapacitated elderly cases

A

desc of events, other problems, present location and home address, persons dob and other info, religious affiliation, mental condition, impairment by substance abuse

138
Q

What medical evaluation needs to be done in incapacitated elderly cases

A

any known medical issues, is a physician present, can a physician be contacted, has a psych exam been completed

139
Q

Family and significant other info needed for incapacitated elderly

A

are there family members and have they been contacted, are there neighbors or others who have been contacted, what if any support system exists

140
Q

What are possible alternatives to fudiciary

A

power of attorney, custodian or conservator, respite placement resources, other agencies

141
Q

When shall a person with a mental illness not be transported in a police vehicle

A

Not cooperative and risk of hurting themselves, has injuries that may require medical attention, when they are violent handcuffed has leg restraints and has criminal charges pending.

142
Q

Who needs to be contacted when seeking an emergency evaluation of a juvenile

A

SAMHC

143
Q

What conditions shall make a sergeant determine that a mental health court order cannot be served

A

Unable to locate individual, no viable leads, the time limit has expired on the order

144
Q

Define traffic stop violation

A

Stop based off probable cause a violation occured

145
Q

Define investigative stop

A

Stop based off reasonable suspicion of criminal activity

146
Q

Define high risk stop

A

Stop of a vehicle that RS or PC indicates has violent offenders inside

147
Q

For non-resident criminal traffic violations where a supervisor does on believe the person will appear on their court date what options are there

A

Transport to city court for hearing, transport to jail where subject will be booked

148
Q

what juvenile traffic offenses will be cited into juvi court

A

Felony traffic, DUI, minors driving with alchohol offenses

149
Q

Information required during traffic stop of armored vehicle

A

The name of the company, location of stop and reason

150
Q

If during a traffic investigation the responsible party is transported to the hospital and has criminal traffic offenses what shall the officer do

A

prepare a case report and forward it to the traffic unit

151
Q

What non-injury collisions shall officers be dispatched to

A

All govt. vehicles or property, ones with potential criminal violation, failure to identify by one of the parties, fight brewing and public hazards

152
Q

If a driver of a vehicle violating the off-road vehicle laws is under what age shall the vehicle not be impounded

A

8

153
Q

what are the 3 phases of a DUI investigation

A

Vehicle in Motion, Personal Contact, Pre-Arrest Screeening

154
Q

What are optional FST’s

A

Alphabet number, modified rhomberg, finger to nose test

155
Q

If an arrestee is eligible for field release from the scene of a DUI what shall be done

A

They shall not be allowed to walk away unless released to a responsible sober third party

156
Q

How long after taking a stolen vehicle report does a member have to notify TWX

A

30 minutes

157
Q

How long must rental vehicles be missing before being considered stolen

A

72hrs from the time they were due back and other statutory requirements have been met

158
Q

How many days must a vehicle have been missing since due back in order to be considered embezzled

A

7 days

159
Q

Cases involving vehicles purchased with a bad check shall be routed to which unit

A

Autotheft

160
Q

What situations involving missing vehicles are considered non criminal

A

Loaned to acquaintance, Roommates or business partners, Missing inventory from dealership, Taken by family member

161
Q

After impounding a vehicle how long does an officer have to notify TWX

A

2 hours

162
Q

When shall a supervisor be required to approve a vehicle being impounded

A

For any impound other than those required by statue

163
Q

Memoranda’s are soley to be used for what

A

Internal communication

164
Q

How often does HRD prepare a daily bulletin

A

Each weekday

165
Q

What needs to be included in TPD Signature Block

A

Full name and title, department or office, TPD related email addresses and phone numbers

166
Q

What annual reports may affect daily operations

A

City court schedule, Resource Guide, Initial appearance and arraignment schedule

167
Q

When shall the PIO be notifed

A

Incidents where officers are involved in heroic or lifesaving actions or involved in shootings or fatal accidents, homicides and traffic fatalities, major civil disturbances, confirmed sniper - barricade or hostage, bomb related incidents where a device has been found or detonated, robberies and thefts where large amounts of property are taken, arrests involving prominent persons

168
Q

Regarding media what shall the incident commander do as soon as possible on a major scene

A

Designate preliminary media staging area

169
Q

What three types of audits of the department may take place

A

Regular audits, Financial Audits, Performance audits

170
Q

When it comes to internal affairs investigations what are the responsibilities of the supervisor in regards to the findings

A

evaluating, arriving at a conclusion of fact and making recommendations regarding the disposition and discipline

171
Q

After how many days will complaints of a non-serious nature not be accepted

A

180 days

172
Q

What complaints shall be accepted

A

1st party complaints, anonymous complaints, complaints made by parents on behalf of minors or dependent children, misconduct allegations by a third party

173
Q

How are complaints taken after normal hours handled

A

Any supervisor can take the complaint, complete a Citizens Complaint Form and forward it to OIA in a confidential envelope.

174
Q

When shall OIA be notified of a complaint

A

When it is serious in nature

175
Q

What is considered a complaint of a serious nature

A

One that is criminal which could result in serious disciplinary action or embarrassment to the department

176
Q

After how many days of a complaint being open shall the complainant be notified that it is still pending

A

45

177
Q

How many days after the termination of a criminal investigation where the allegations are not true or without foundation shall an employee be notified of the investigations exsistance

A

45

178
Q

What are internal investigation

A

Ones generally initiated within the department related to misconduct or operational actions of empolyee’s on or off duty.

179
Q

How are internal investigations generally handled

A

Investigated by COC with the findings forwarded to OIA for tracking and filing

180
Q

What are external investigations

A

Investigations generated from a complaint that alleges misconduct of both serious and non-serious nature

181
Q

What are the 3 categories of an external investigation

A

Category 1 (formal), Category 2 (informal), Category 3

182
Q

Who investigate Category 1 complaints that require extensive follow-up

A

OIA

183
Q

What is the internal due date for EI-C1

A

30 days

184
Q

Who is responsible for contacting the complainant and conducting an EI-C1 investigation that does not have extensive follow-up

A

The immediate supervisor of the member involved

185
Q

What is a Category 2 EI non-formal investigation

A

One that consist of allegations of a non-serious nature where the complainant elects not to pursue a formal investigative process

186
Q

What is a Category 3 EI

A

Allegations of a non-serious nature where the person is unable to articulate a bonafide complaint

187
Q

Following an investigation what are the available dispositions

A

Sustained, Unfounded, Exonerated, Other, Not Sustained

188
Q

who maintains a list of approved firearms

A

Training division

189
Q

Requirements of an auxiliary weapon

A

inspected by armorer, 5 round capacity, .380 or greater, carried in approved system

190
Q

What ammunition shall not be carried

A

explosive or incendiary, armor piercing, KTW types or pre-fragmented bullets

191
Q

If a member fails to qualify with their duty weapon when will remedial training occur

A

usually within 48 hours

192
Q

What happens if a member fails to qualify after remedial training

A

they are ineligible for duty and placed on LWOP

193
Q

What is the maximum time frame a member shall have to demonstrate firearms proficiency

A

4 weeks

194
Q

What is the size range for the straight baton

A

20-26 inches

195
Q

How long is the flex baton training course

A

4 hours

196
Q

How many days after use of a CEW shall it be downloaded

A

4 days

197
Q

How many days of data will be captured prior to the deployment of a CEW when dowloaded

A

5 days

198
Q

How long will a copy of the CEW report be kept in the division

A

3 years

199
Q

When are ballistic shields authorized

A

Officer/Member of public rescue, Defensive positioning, observational cover, active shooter, approaching a downed possible armed suspect

200
Q

Supervisor responsibility in regards to ballistic shields

A

Supervisors shall ensure the shield is available for use and respond to situations involving their use.

201
Q

Who can authorize use of PPE Level C

A

a TPD Sergeant after a TFD hazmat tech deems it necessary

202
Q

Whenever any PPE level C equipment is removed from the cache what must happen

A

Memo from authorizing supervisor sent to division CRS that includes description of incident, case number, number of items removed and TFD hazmat tech info

203
Q

What is required to receive a replacement fuel key

A

A memorandum signed by a supervisor

204
Q

What details must be included in a case report regarding use of an IFAK

A

Type of medical treatment provided, name and other personal identifying information of party receiving treatment, name of hospital, reason for medical intervention

205
Q

What is the minimum number of AED’s that should be deployed in the field

A

2

206
Q

Reports regarding AED use should include what

A

Name and personal info on victim, how victim was encountered, whether SCA was witnessed by whom, whether the AED recommended a shock, ID of TPD or TFD personnel that took over care, name of hospital.

207
Q

Supervisor responsibility when Naloxone is used

A

Shall be notified ASAP and report shall be forwarded to the division coordinator within 24 hours

208
Q

Why has the department adopted the use of BWC and MVR

A

provide recordings of events including calls for service and traffic stops to protect department members the agency and members of the public, Enhance accuracy of officer reports and testimony in court as well as provide evidence for prosecution, serve as training and performance mechanism to enhance professionalism of the department

209
Q

When shall members activate their BWC or MVR

A

When: When dispatched for level 1 or 2 calls with emergency equipment, upon arrival at all other calls, during self initiated activity of enforcement nature, anytime directed by supervisor, non-investigative contacts that become adversarial.

210
Q

When should supervisors consider reviewing camera footage

A

When it is part of their investigative, performance review or training process

211
Q

After how many days will recordings not attached to a case be purged

A

180

212
Q

Members involved in what type of force shall not view their BWC or MVR until authorized by investigative supervisor

A

Tyep 3 use of force

213
Q

What are supervisor responsibilities when it comes to BWC and MVR

A

view random samplings of videos to ensure compliance with recording, review all footage of incidents involving reportable use of force complaints internal or administrative investigations, view videos for performance reviews, inspection and audit shall be done in accordance with dept. protocols

214
Q

What are the appearance times for court

A

City Court Civil - Start time, City Court Criminal - 15 minutes before, Justice Court - 15 Minutes before, Superior Court - 30 minutes before

215
Q

What shall be done with any Subpoena regarding a police record

A

Immediately be brought to the attention of the legal advisor

216
Q

Shall members participate in any type of compromise

A

NO

217
Q

How many days do members have to respond to defense attorney requests

A

5

218
Q

If a member is not able to respond to attorney request in the time allotted what should accure

A

Members supervisor Shall inform the LAO of when the member will be available

219
Q

If due to unavoidable circumstances a member cannot make it to a scheduled court date what shall occur

A

Supervisor is notified immediately who will notify the appropriate court using documentation of conflict with city court

220
Q

Supervisor responsibility when a member is put on stand by for court

A

Supervisor shall contact prosecutor and make every effort to resolve the conflict if not conflict contact division commander

221
Q

What shall a member do who is served a subpoena by a defense attorney or civil subpoena as a result of police work

A

immediately notify the legal advisor

222
Q

When may a child be taken into temporary custody

A

suspicion of physical or sexual abuse, suspicion of neglect, any suspicion of potential harm

223
Q

If a child is born out of wedlock and paternity is established which parent gets to retain custody

A

those how have had the child the majority of the past 6 months

224
Q

What is a PARF

A

Personnel Action Request Form

225
Q

When is a PARF required and what color is it

A

Blue & anytime an employee is hired, promoted, demoted or has a change in specific status

226
Q

After how many consecutive days/hours of sick leave is a supervisor required to notify HRD

A

5 days or 40 hours

227
Q

When may probationary employees begin using SL

A

After they have completed 2 full pay periods

228
Q

Who must approve a leave of absence without pay

A

A Department Director

229
Q

After how many days of SL may an employee be required to provide a health care provider certification that they are physically and or emotionally able to perform

A

10 days

230
Q

When may the HRD commander require statement from an employees health care provider that they were under their care

A

When sick leave is requested for more than 1 week

231
Q

What is the maximum number of emergency leave hours that is allowed to be granted

A

4

232
Q

If an employee is going to be on military leave for more than 3 pay periods (6 weeks) what is required

A

They must report to HRD for out-processing and then in-processing when they return

233
Q

If an employee is on military leave for greater than 90 days what is required

A

Report to HRD, payroll, benefits and BSU and upon return also report to SALETC for proficiency skills training

234
Q

How many hours of administrative leave may the Chief of Police grant

A

40

235
Q

How many hours of bereavement leave is a sworn member allowed

A

40

236
Q

How many days of BL is allowed for grandparents-in-law or other household member not considered family

A

3 days

237
Q

What happens if a probationary employee is absent for more than three weeks

A

Probationary period is extended by a period equal to the time of their absence

238
Q

How many hours must an employee work to be eligible for family medical leave

A

12 months and at least 1250 hours

239
Q

What is the min level of approval needed for leaves without pay

A

Chief of Police

240
Q

After more than how many days may LWOP affect insurance coverage and anniversary date

A

10 days

241
Q

When may an employee be placed on imposed leave with pay

A

Following OIS or other critical incident, During pending IA investigation of serious nature, when an employee is too disruptive or dangerous to remain at work

242
Q

If on ILWP for an IA investigation or because employee was too disruptive or dangerous what shall they do

A

Turn in Dept ID, Firearm, Keys, RSA token and any flat badge to IA

243
Q

How many days is WC limited to

A

180

244
Q

what hour increments shall suspensions be served

A

10

245
Q

When shall suspensions commence

A

as soon as possible but within 60 days of the notice of suspension

246
Q

When can an employee appeal a suspension to the civil service commison

A

when the suspension is in excess of 10 working days

247
Q

Appeals must be filled within how many days from the date the PARF was served on the employee

A

10 calander days

248
Q

Generally light duty shall not exceed how many months

A

12

249
Q

Who is responsible for monitoring the department EEO programs and who do they report to

A

Human Resource Commander - ASB Commander

250
Q

Supervisors shall demonstrate commitment to EEO in what ways

A

Becoming thoroughly familiar with the departments prohibitions against discrimination and acquainting subordinates with these guidelines, Promoting positive attitude when discussing EEO policies, Requiring subordinates to demonstrate respect for coworkers and community, Taking immediate corrective action to including notifying COC of all potential violations, Ensuring compliance of subordinate personnel with EEO laws

251
Q

How many days from the date of alleged infraction must an EEO complaint be filed with the EOPD

A

90 calendar days

252
Q

Who shall COC notify immediately upon receiving an EEO complaint

A

OPS

253
Q

How many days does EOPD have to determine if investigation is necessary

A

5 business days

254
Q

Who investigates allegations of discrimination, harassment or retaliation

A

EOPD

255
Q

What positions shall have an 18 month probationary period

A

Police Officer, Hazardous Device Tech, Public Safety Dispatcher, Police Service Operator, Records Specialists

256
Q

At what level BAC is an employee considered to be impaired

A

.04%

257
Q

When shall drug and/or alcohol testing be administered

A

When a supervisor or commander has reasonable suspicion to believe an on duty employee is impaired or under the influence of alcohol, medication prescribed or not, or illegal drugs

258
Q

How shall no criminal drug/alcohol testing be done

A

employee shall be accompanied by a supervisor and the testing shall be done by city physician

259
Q

What documentation is required for reasonable suspicion testing

A

Supervisor shall complete a personnel report outlining all circumstances leading to the decision to order the testing. Information on the testing shall be filed in the employees confidential medical files in HRS and OPS

260
Q

What shall an employee do who is not terminated after having been found in violation of the drug and alcohol policy

A

Participate in mandatory random follow-up testing coordinated by the Human Resources Section

261
Q

When shall members who are involved in an accident be tested for drugs and or alcohol

A

Fatal accidents, Employee receives a citation for a moving violation, The accident involves injuries treated away from the scene, Any vehicle is required to be towed from the scene

262
Q

The discipline matrix is designed to identify two major areas in the disciplinary process… what are they

A

The type and level of discipline

263
Q

What is the maximum value of department property that a member is allowed to cover the cost of

A

250 paid in no more than 2 installments

264
Q

What is the lowest level of discipline

A

Corrective action which is administered by the immediate supervisor

265
Q

A copy of a written reprimand is filed where

A

Employees permanent personnel record

266
Q

How many days to employees have to grieve proposed discipline

A

7 days for sworn 2 days for civilian

267
Q

What shall written reprimands include

A

Factual description of behavior or work performance for which the discipline is being given, The identified type of violation and level of discipline, Statement that the employee must correct the condition and that if not corrected more serious discipline will be taken, Statement advising that a copy will be placed in their permanent personnel file.

268
Q

A supervisor relieving an employee from active duty shall do what

A

As soon as possible but no more than 72 hours submit a written report through COC to the Chief detailing the circumstances involved.

269
Q

What is the most an employee can have their pay reduced for disciplinary purposes

A

not less than one step or 5% whichever is greater

270
Q

How long does an employee have to return equipment following an involuntary demotion

A

72 hours

271
Q

How many levels of COC must agree on proposed discipline in order for it to be implemented

A

2 levels

272
Q

In order for a matter to be grievable it must

A

Concern matters or specific incidents that have occurred and, Result from an act of omission by management regarding working conditions or other aspects of employee-employer relations over with the department has control and arise out of a specific situation or act which has resulted in perceived inequity

273
Q

Example of grievable items

A

Reprimands and suspensions of 10 working days or less, Working Conditions, Employee/employer relations that department has control over, Alleged violation of City AD, HR Policy or Dept. policy

274
Q

Generally who handles grievances filed by an employee

A

The COC to which the member was assigned at the time of the issue under consideration

275
Q

Involved employee or representative shall contact who a the initiation of any grievance processs

A

OIA who will issue a tracking number

276
Q

Once a grievance process has been completed who is responsible of notifying OIA and it what time

A

The involved employee within 5 working days

277
Q

BSU personal assistance is generally restricted to what categories

A

Career & educational counseling, Problem assessment & Referral

278
Q

Employee referral to BSU takes place in what two forms

A

Voluntary or Referred Entry

279
Q

What is the purpose of critical incident stress debriefing

A

Provide prompt debriefing of members involved in critical incidents

280
Q

Supervisors may initiate a mandatory referral when

A

Performance problems or the potential for personal problems to interfere with work performance are evident

281
Q

Who is responsible for enrolling a member into the EAP program

A

The involved members supervisor

282
Q

Should the employee be brought into the EAP process

A

Yes Supervisors shall include them

283
Q

Is any and all action taken within the Early Intervention Program considered discipline

A

No and a 1 page check the box form is all the documentation that is needed

284
Q

What is the purpose of the EIP program

A

To identify patterns of behavior that may be indicative of officer in need of training, Protect the officer and agency from inappropriate behavior patterns, Identify activities or trends requiring changes in training or policy

285
Q

What shall an immediate supervisor do when presented with information that their employee has hit an EIP threshold

A

Review all info, Conduct an interview with employee as needed, make recommendation for action, Forward completed one page recommendation form through COC for informational purposes, Send the information and recommendation back to OPS within 30 days of assignment.

286
Q

What criteria is tracked in AIM

A

Use of force, preventable accidents, focus officer internal investigations, focus officer administrative investigations, focus officer in external investigations, pursuit summaries, focus officer in BOI incident,

287
Q

What actions can take place from an EIP

A

No action, referral to counseling, supervisory counseling, period of supervised observation, employee self initiated contact with resources, training, reassignment, other

288
Q

What is the threshold for overall incidents that will trigger the EIP

A

8 over 1 calendar year

289
Q

In a report from a service provider regarding fitness for duty what information should it be limited to

A

Conclusion regarding fitness for duty, Description of functional limitations of the employee, Whether the condition that leads to the limitations are industrial or non industrial, Any other information to the extent authorized by law and necessary to achieve the legitimate purpose of the assessment by the department

290
Q

What are the 6 requirements in order for a disease to be considered an occupational disease

A

Must have a direct correlation between conditions under which the work is performed, Can be seen to have followed as a natural result of work, Can be fairly traced to the employment as the cause, does not come from a hazard to which workmen would have been equally exposed outside of the department, Appears to have its origin connected with empolyment, Is incidental to the character of the business

291
Q

Steps required for possible significant exposures to HIV and Hepatitis require what

A

Complete all necessary reports within 24 hours, get a baseline test within 10 days, get another test within 30 days

292
Q

To counter the threat of hepatitis after significant exposure what must a member do

A

seek medical treatment within 48 hours of incident to begin booster or vaccination series

293
Q

For non-significant exposures what may be done

A

A Report of Significant Work Exposure to Bodily Fluids may be completed and submitted to HR within 24 hours

294
Q

What shall a supervisor do if a member receives a significant exposure

A

Attempt to obtain consent for blood borne disease testing from source of exposure, if that is not achieved contact appropriate detective units who will get a warrant.

295
Q

Who shall a supervisor contact in order to notify risk management of a fatality due to an industrial incident

A

Communications

296
Q

What form must be completed and forwarded to HR in what time frame for an industrial injury

A

Form 100 and within 24hrs

297
Q

Who completes form 102

A

Treating physician

298
Q

When is form 103 completed and what is the time frame to forward it to City Risk Management

A

Any accident involving city property or vehicles and within 2 working days

Sergeant Process (11 decks)

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