General Oncology Principles Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three broad classifications of genetic mutations causing cancer?

A

Tumour Supressor
Proto- Oncogenes
DNA Repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are Tumour Supressor Genes?

A

Both need to be inactivated (recessive)
Can be germ line or acquired

Eg - P53 (involved in cell cycle regulation and maintaining integrity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are Proto- Oncogenes?

A

Functions become enhanced in carcinogenesis
Usually encodes growth factors, growth factor receptors and transcription factors
Only requires one mutation

Eg RAS (encodes GProtein for cellular signal transduction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are mutations of DNA repair?

A

Mutation of these accelerate mutations of tumour supressor and proto-oncogenes

Eg ATM gene (detects DNA damage, produces syndrome of ataxia telangiectasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are BRCA1/2 genes?

A

Tumour Supressor genes

Carriers have a 55-85% lifetime risk

40% increase of Ovarian with BRCA1

Increased incidence of male breast/prostate/pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the RB1 gene?

A

On chromosome 13 encoding a tumour Supressor gene

If both alleles are inactivated - Retinoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the APC gene?

A

Tumour Supressor on chromosome 5

Associated with FAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most important known carcinogen?

A

Smoking

Responsible for 90% of lung cancers

Synergistic effect on neoplasms caused by other things (eg alcohol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name four cancers that alcohol is particularly implicated in

A

H and N
Oesophageal (particularly squamous)
Breast Cancer
HCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Diet can have a massive impact on the occurrence of Cancer. Give four cancers particularly related to obesity.

A

Endometrial
Post Menopausal Breast Cancer
Oesophageal Cancer
Colorectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How can Colon Cancer risk be reduced with diet?

A

High levels of vegetable and fibre intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the relation of Salt Fish in terms of cancer?

A

Increased incidence of Nasopharyngeal Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the relation of Aflatoxin (found in corn, nuts, soybeans) and Cancer

A

Increased incidence of HCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Viral infections play a significant role in initiating carcinogenesis but do require other factors. Name three carcinogenic viral infections

A

HPV
Hep B and Hep C
EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What two malignancies is EBV most associated with?

A

Hodgekins Lymphoma

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name a carcinogenic bacterial infection

A

H.Pylori

Strong association with Gastric Adenocarcinoma and a role in the development of gastric lymphoma

17
Q

Name a carcinogenic parasitic infection

A

Schistosomiasis

Associated with SCC of the bladder

18
Q

Name two Radiosensitivity Syndromes

A

Ataxia Telangiectasia

Blooms Syndrome

19
Q

Name three industrial exposures and their associated cancers

A

Napthylamines (Dye/Textile) - Bladder Cancer

Benzenes (Chemical/Rubber) - Haematological

Asbestos - Mesothelioma

20
Q

Give two examples of potentially carcinogenic pharmacological interventions

A

Therapeutic cancer treatments (Alkylating)

High dose diethylstilbestriol in pregnancy (causing clear cell carcinoma of female offspring)

21
Q

Describe three characteristic features of familial cancers

A

Unusually early age of tumour onset

Multiple/Bilateral Tumours

Familial Clustering (eg breast and ovary, uterus and colon)

22
Q

Cowden Syndrome is an Autosomal Dominant condition of Hamartomas and increased risk of cancers (breast, thyroid and uterine). Name three symptoms

A

Mucosal Cobblestone Papules
Acral Keratoses
Craniomegaly

23
Q

Gorlin Syndrome is a syndrome of increased BCC risk. Give two presenting features

A

Frontal Bossing

Palmar and Plantar Pits

24
Q

Neurofibromatoses is a syndrome of increased neural tumours . Give three presenting features

A

Café au Lait

Cutaneous Neurofibromas

Axillary Freckling

25
Q

Describe four implications of Familial Genetic Testing

A
  • May be negative but this doesn’t mean there isn’t a risk
  • Sometimes might just not have a clear result and will therefore require further testing
  • Positive result may cause feelings of guilt in affected family member
  • Affected person may discover they’re at risk of other cancers
26
Q

BRCA1/2 testing if offered if chance of identifying a mutation is >20% . Give three examples of this.

A

Two breast cancers in under 30y
Three breast cancers in under 40y
Four breast cancers in under 50y

27
Q

Bowel Cancer screening is done by testing sample for mismatch repair. Give three examples when this is done

A

One relative under 45y
Two relatives under 55y
Three relatives at any age

28
Q

How are the results from Bowel Cancer screening managed?

A

Moderate Risk- Colonoscopy at presentation and 55y

High Risk - 2 yearly colonoscopies from the age of 25

29
Q

What are the six hallmarks of cancer?

A
Resisting cell death
Sustaining proliferative signalling
Evading growth suppressors 
Ability to invade and metastasise
Enabling replicative mortality
Inducing angiogenesis
30
Q

Define Tumour

A

Abnormal mass of tissue resulting from excessive cell division and evasion of apoptosis
Can be benign or malignant

31
Q

What is a benign growth?

A

Not Cancerous

Local problems (do not spread)

Don’t return once removed

32
Q

What is a malignant growth?

A

Cancerous

Can spread and invade other tissues

33
Q

What is Premalignant Dysplasia?

A

Dysfunctional cell growth and morphological changes in cell nuclei

Lose specific characteristics from tissue of origin

Classified by grade

34
Q

What is Metaplasia?

A

Reversible replacement of one cell type by another

Can be benign

35
Q

What is the difference between stage and grade?

A

Stage - How advanced the cancer is

Grade - Refers to Histological and pathological features of cells in a neoplasm

36
Q

There are three main types of biopsy: FNA, Core Biopsy and Surgical Biopsy. What is an FNA?

A

Negative pressure removes tissue with force

Deep tissue may require radiological guidance

37
Q

There are three main types of biopsy: FNA, Core Biopsy and Surgical Biopsy. What is an Core Biopsy?

A

Larger cylindrical core of tissue providing a larger sample

38
Q

There are three main types of biopsy: FNA, Core Biopsy and Surgical Biopsy. What is an Surgical Biopsy?

A

Incisional - removes parts of abnormal tissue

Excisional - removes entire area of abnormality (for curative intent)

39
Q

What are the seven principles of screening?

A
  • The cancer will be a major health problem
  • Will be more treatable of detected early
  • Should be acceptable to those eligible
  • Should be inexpensive
  • High sensitivity
  • High specificity
  • Screening reduces mortality