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CRJ 700/900Electrical > General Flash Cards > Flashcards

General Flash Cards

0
Q

Max runway slopes for takeoff and landing?

A

2% uphill and 2% downhill

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1
Q

Max altitude for extending flaps?

A

15,000 feet

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2
Q

Max operating altitude?

A

41,000 feet

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3
Q

Max airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?

A

10,000 feet

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4
Q

Max demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing?

A 
22 kts (dry runway)
15kts (wet)
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5
Q

Max tailwind approved for takeoff and landing?

A

10 kts

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6
Q

Max tire speed?

A

195 kts groundspeed

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7
Q

Max landing gear operating speed for extension VLO?

A

VLO extension 220 KIAS

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8
Q

Max landing gear operating speed for retraction VLO?

A

VLO retraction 200 KIAS

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9
Q

Max landing gear extended speed VLE?

A

VLE 220 KIAS

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10
Q

MAX turbulence penetration speed?

A

280 KIAS/0.75 Mach (Which ever is slower)

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11
Q

Max windshield wiper operation speed?

A

250 KIAS

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12
Q

VMO in knots

A

335 KIAS

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13
Q

MMO

A

0.85 Mach

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14
Q

MMO during flight in RVSM airspace?

A

0.82 Mach

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15
Q

Flap extended speeds VFE?

A

1 & 8 230 KIAS
20° 220 KIAS
30° 185 KIAS
45° 170 KIAS

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16
Q

Wingspan?

A

76’ 3”

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17
Q

Height of tail?

A

24’ 1”

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18
Q

Min surface width for 180° turn?

A

80’ 1”

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19
Q

CRJ 900 length?

A

118’ 11”

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20
Q

Max pressure refueling fuel capacity?

A

Total 19,594 lbs
Mains 7492 lbs
Center 4610 LBS

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21
Q

Max gravity refueling fuel capacity?

A

Total -14,810 LBS
Mains- 7405 LBS
Center- 0 LBS

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22
Q

Max passenger seats?

A

79 pax

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23
Q

Max total AFT cargo compartment capacity?

A

4375 LBS

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24
Q

Max total FWD forward cargo compartment capacity

A

1700 LBS (850 fwd belly, 850 aft belly)

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25
Q

Max overhead bin weight capacity?

A

Row 1 – 4, 20 LBS; row 5 – 20, 65 LBS

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26
Q

Max ramp weight?

A

82,750 LBS (MRPW )

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27
Q

Max takeoff weight?

A

82,500 LBS (MT0W)

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28
Q

Max landing weight?

A

73,500 LBS (MLW)

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29
Q

Max zero fuel weight?

A

70,000 LBS ( MZFW )

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30
Q

Min flight weight?

A

45,000 LBS (MFW)

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31
Q

Described exemption 5487

A

Lost certificates-Call SOC and tell them you lost your certificates. They will fax you a copy from their records. The copy must state “Exemption 5487”. Copy good for 7 days. You have 72 hours to request an original from FAA. You must report to Mesa within 24 hours of receiving the original from FAA.

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32
Q

Can an aircraft be dispatched with only one set of Jeppesen charts? Explain.

A

If two sets can be combined to make one complete set then the chief pilot can sign off on the flight.

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33
Q

What is the current revision to the GOM and CFM? Latest flight crew memo? Latest Jeppesen revision?

A

Reference Record of Revisions page (GOM & CFM)
Reference Flight Crew Memo index
Reference Jeppesen revisions page

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34
Q

What docs and equipment are required in a crew members flight kit?

A 
F lash light & FCC license
G lasses
H eadset
I d mesa
J eppesen 
K n/a
L ogbook
M edical 
N n/a
O n/a
P assport 
Pilot license
Pen

GOM 2.14

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35
Q

When applying the marginal conditions rule to your alternate airport, do you add 500 feet +1 mile to the derived alternate minimums or to the actual approach minimums?

A

The 500 feet + 1 mile (500-1) visibility are added to the lowest suitable landing minimums for the airport (Destination or Alternate) to be used at the ETA at that airport.

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36
Q

Does the marginal conditions rule apply to weather conditions at ETA or +/- 1 hour of ETA?

A

ETA

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37
Q

Explain the purpose of exemption 3585.

A

Allows a flight to be dispatched to a destination airport and or alternate airport when TAF for either one or both of those airports indicate, by the use of conditional phrases in the remarks section of such reports, that the weather could be below authorized weather minimums at the ETA. The main body of such forecast must, however, indicate that the weather will be at/or above authorized weather minimums for ETA.

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38
Q

Does exemption 3585 apply to the weather conditions ETA or +/-1 hour of ETA?

A

ETA
The main body of such forecasts must, however, indicate that the weather will be at or above authorized weather minimums for ETA.

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39
Q

What is the lowest weather allowable in the remarks section of the forecast for the destination?

A

For the destination airport, that TAF weather conditions shall not be less than one half of the lowest weather minimums VISIBILITY only value, established for the instrument approach procedure expected to be used.

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40
Q

What is the lowest weather allowable in the remarks section of the forecast for the first alternate?

A

For the first alternate airport, TAF weather conditions shall not be less than one half of the weather minimums ceiling AND visibility values specified in the Mesa airlines OPERATIONS SPECIFICATIONS for that airport.

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41
Q

What must be added to a dispatch release for a flight operating under exemption 3585?

A

For the flights that this exemption is applied, the dispatcher will note in the remarks section of the release “dispatch under exemption 3585 crew will monitor SELCAL.” If SELCAL is inoperative, crew will monitor company frequencies.

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42
Q

How does the Mesa Airlines Inc. define marginal weather conditions?

A

Marginal weather: Mesa Airlines Incorporated defines marginal as 500 ft + 1 mile above the lowest suitable landing minimums for the airport.

43
Q

When is a second alternate required under the marginal conditional rule?

A

When the weather conditions forecast for the destination and first alternate airport are marginal, a second alternate will be designated in the dispatch release.

44
Q

When must a second alternate be filed?

A

A second alternate must be filed when either the destination airport or the first alternate airport TAF contains conditional phrases indicating whether below are authorized weather minimums.

45
Q

How many passenger exit doors

46
Q

How many crew life vests?

A

3 under captain and FO seat & next to jump seat

47
Q

Where are the smoke goggles?

A

Under the oxygen mask

48
Q

What is the power source for the emergency lighting system?

A

5 independent battery packs

49
Q

Where are the smoke detectors?

A

1 in each lavatory
3 forward cargo bay
2 aft cargo bay

50
Q

When will you get TAKEOFF CONFIGURATION WARNING?

A 
P arking brake
A uto pilot
S poilers extended
Stab trim
F laps not 8 or 20
Aileron trim
Rudder trim
51
Q

Green oxygen blowout disc

52
Q

How many air data computers, flight directors, AHRS are installed?

53
Q

How many auto pilots do we have?

54
Q

Press TOGA on the ground

A

Takeoff lateral wings level then max 5 degree bank and vertical mode optimal pitch

55
Q

Press TOGA airborne

A

Go around mode depicts missed approach on MFD if in FMS mode & 10 degree pitch up

56
Q

After takeoff or go around, auto pilot engaged when?

A

Above 600 AGL

57
Q

Auto pilot off on non precision approach

58
Q

Auto pilot off on precision approaches

A

110 feet AGL single engine or 80 ft both engines

59
Q

Auto Pilot will automatically Disconnect in the following circumstances

A

Y aw damp fails
A ttitude is extreme
W indshear

F CC fails
Auto pilot disconnect button (3 buttons)
S tick shaker
Stab trim manually operated
T OGA button is pressed
60
Q

APU altitude for starting

61
Q

APU generator load

62
Q

APU max RPM & EGT

A

106% rpm & 806 degrees C

63
Q

How much battery voltage is required to start the APU?

A

22 volts both batteries

64
Q

AVAIL switchlight comes on when

A

99% RPM plus 2 seconds

65
Q

Thrust on takeoff & with APR is

A

14,750 lbs of thrust & 13,560 lbs of thrust

66
Q

Max altitude for windmilling start is

A

21,000 ft MSL

67
Q

N1 & N2 power on takeoff is

A

99.5% & 99.4%

68
Q

% And ITT N2 for start is

A

20% & 120 ITT

69
Q

What accessories are driven off the N2 accessory gearbox?

A 
F ADEC & engine driven fuel PUMP
I DG integrated drive generator 
S tarter
H ydraulic PUMP (engine driven)
OIL PUMP
70
Q

What is the 6th and 10th stage bleed air used for?

A

P ressurization
A nti ice & air conditioning
C ool the avionics
S tart the engines

71
Q

ARM the APR when N1 is

A

Within 8% of takeoff power

72
Q

When should oil be checked?

A

3 minutes - 2 hours after shutdown

73
Q

How is the oil cooled?

A

Fuel/oil heat exchanger

74
Q

How does a molecule of fuel move from center tank to engine?

A 
C enter tank
                           T ransfer ejector pump
M ain wing 
                            S cavenge 
C ollector 
                            M ain 
E ngine
75
Q

What monitors and controls the air conditioning system?

A

ACSC 1 controls the left pack

ACSC 2 controls the right pack

76
Q

Chemical oxygen generators supply oxygen for (time in minutes) ?

A

22 minutes

77
Q

If the Pack switchlight says FAULT

A

Over temperature or over pressure above 85 C

78
Q

If the Press Cont switchlight says FAULT

A

Both pressurization controllers have failed

79
Q

Cowl Ice should be on when

A

Below 10 C in visible moisture or above 10 C contaminated rwy

80
Q

Wing Anti Ice should be on

A

Below 5 C on ground

airborne 10 C below 230 knots & -40 C or in Ice

81
Q

Ice test is good when

A

ADS HEAT TEST OK advisory message
ICE light message
ICE caution message

82
Q

Windshield heat low is heating

A

All four panels

83
Q

How many fire loops & bottles are there in the engine?

A

Two

Halon 1301

84
Q

What happens when I push the FIRE switch?

A 
SOV B leed air SOV closes
SOV F uel SOV closes
SOV H ydraulic SOV closes
Arms and aims the fire bottles
Generator De-Energizes
85
Q

Flaps position – 1°

86
Q

How do you know when there is a fire in the cargo area?

A

“Smoke” voice message
Smoke Cargo message
Master warning switchlight & triple chime
Cargo smoke switchlight on lower pedestal

87
Q

Where is the main battery & APU battery? What are the amps & volts of each

A

Forward nose compartment 17 amp & aft equipment bay 43 amp

24 volts both

88
Q

Air Driven Generator

  • electrical specs
  • when will it deploy
  • what will it power
A

115 vAC 400Hz 15 KVA

Deploys if there is a total AC power loss

Flaps, slats, pitch trim, hydraulic 3B pump, AC ESSENTIAL BUS

89
Q

TRU electrical specs

A

120 amps. Converts 115 VAC to 28 VDC

90
Q

What is on the Hydraulic systems?

A

Rudder, elevators, ailerons, spoilers on 1,2,

3 landing gear, nose wheel steering, inboard brakes

91
Q

Engine starter cranking limitations

A

90 seconds on 10 seconds off 1st 2nd ground
90 seconds on 5 minutes off ground or dry motoring

Airborne 120 seconds on 10 sec off 1st time
60 sec on, 5 min off

92
Q

What does IDG do?

A

Integrated drive generator converts variable engine speed to constant generator speed

93
Q

What power will be on if external / ground power unit is plugged in?

A

EPU –> AC power –> emergency batteries are charged & TRU –> avionics & DC power

94
Q

Max speed Flaps position – 8°

95
Q

Max speed Flaps position – 20°

96
Q

Max speed Flaps position – 30°

97
Q

Max speed Flap position – 45°

98
Q

APU door open speed (must meet this limitation or APU must remain in operation)

A

Less than 220 KIAS

99
Q

Maximum permissible fuel imbalance between the main tanks

A

300 lbs during takeoff

800 lbs for all other phases of flight

100
Q

Maximum airport pressure altitude

A

10,000 feet

101
Q

Maximum ambient air temperature for takeoff and landing

A

ISA+ 35°C

102
Q

Minimum ambient temperature approved for takeoff

103
Q

APU bleed air extraction is not permitted above

A

25,000 feet

104
Q

What lights illuminate when you turn the master battery switch on from a cold dark cockpit?

A

AC essential XFER because essential bus isn’t being powered by AC bus 1, electric fuel boost pumps INOP because there is low pressure no motive flow, pressure controller FAULT because pressure controllers arent on, air conditioning packs OFF

106
Q

When do passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?

A

14,000 feet

107
Q

When will you get a caution message regarding the TRUs?

A

When the VDC drops below 18

CRJ 700/900Electrical (21 decks)

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