Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Alimentary > General facts > Flashcards

General facts Flashcards

1
Q

What breed of dog is predisposed to exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

A

German Shepherd Dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three key features of vomiting?

A

retching
hypersalivation
nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 5 general extra-gastrointestinal causes of GI disease?

A 
renal disease
liver disease
neoplasia 
endocrine 
pancreatic disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the test for exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

A

trypsin-like immunoreactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What should Giardia be treated with?

A

fenbendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the two main causes of alimentary disease in horses?

A

displacements

infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What epithelium lines the mouth, oesophagus, rumen and reticulum?

A

squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is prognathia?

A

protrusion of the mandible ie mandible longer than maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is agnathia?

A

absence of the mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In which species does malocclusion particularly cause uneven wear?

A

horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is nodular gingival hyperplasia?

A

hyperplasia of the gingivae caused by constant physical trauma as a result of malocculsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where does the fluoride causing blackening of teeth in fluoride toxicosis come from?

A

water- some regions of the world have high levels of fluoride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are two chemicals which cause discolouration of teeth?

A

fluoride

porphyrins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are two things porphyrins can cause in ruminants?

A

congenital pink tooth

photosensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are two ondotodystrophys seen in animals?

A

fluoride toxicosis

segmental enamel hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are two causes of segmental enamel hypoplasia?

A

hyperthermia

distemper virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What can dental caries cause in horse?

A

valvular endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What two conditions can gingivitis lead to if the tooth falls out?

A

alveolar periostitis

osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an infectious cause of gingivitis in cats?

A

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which cells are damaged in vesicular stomatitis and in what layer of the epidermis are they?

A

prickle cells

stratum spinosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What 5 places can FMD lesions be found?

A 
skin
oral cavity
oesophagus
conjunctiva 
rumen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who takes fluid samples when trying to diagnose FMD?

A

DEFRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What layer has to be eroded on the oral epithelium for the lesion to be a true ulcer?

A

stratum germinativum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What kind of lesion does BVDV cause?

A

small, punched out lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What stain of BVDV causes diarrhoea?

A

cytopathic form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What strain of BVDV causes lesions in the mouth, profuse watery diarrhoea and death?

A

non-cytopathic form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which BVDV stain causes persistent infection?

A

non-cytopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What kind of stomatitis does BVDV cause?

A

erosive stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are 7 diseases involving ulcerative stomatitis?

A 
malignant catarrhal fever
ulcerative glossitis 
eosinophilic granuloma 
Blue tongue
ureamia
foreign bodies
Vitamin C deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What two species are carriers of the bovine herpes virus which causes MCF?

A

sheep

Wilderbeest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the target tissue for bovine herpesvirus causing malignant catarrhal fever?

A 
lymph node
epithelial tissue
respiratory tissue
intestinal tissue 
vasculature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What disease starts at the angle of the jaw of a cat?

A

ulcerative glossitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What 3 viruses have been associated with ulcerative glossitis?

A

calicivirus
picornavirus
FIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the prognosis of ulcerative glossitis?

A

will normally heal in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What 2 regions of the mouth does eosinophilic granulomas affect?

A

lips

frenulum of tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is involved in eosinophilic granulomas in cats?

A

type I hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What 3 conditions are associated with calf diptheria?

A

cold
damp
muddy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How old are calves affected by the Fusobacterium necrophorum bacteria?

A

up to 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What pathology is cause by Fusobacterium necrophorum bacteria in calves?

A

necrotising laryngitis

40
Q

What two pathologies does the Blue Tongue virus lead to?

A

loss of tongue epithelium

haemorrhage

41
Q

What are three diseases which involve proliferative stomatitis?

A

Orf
Wooden tongue
Lumpy jaw

42
Q

What are two changes to epithelial cells seen in Orf?

A

cells become fluid filled

striatum spinosum proliferates

43
Q

What do papules form if they get worse?

A

pustules

44
Q

What do pustules form if they get worse?

A

nodules

45
Q

What is the term for proliferating striatum spinosum?

A

acanthosis

46
Q

Which cells are infected by Fusobacterium necrophorum bacteria in Orf?

A

prickle cells

47
Q

What is the name of the disease which is the equivalent of Orf but in cattle?

A

papular stomatitis

48
Q

What bacteria causes ‘Wooden tongue’

A

Actinobacillus lignieresi

49
Q

What is the name of the granuloma formed by Actinobacillus lignieresi?

A

pyogranuloma

50
Q

What secondary disease can be caused from Wooden tongue?

A

pneumonia

51
Q

What organ does Actinobacillus lignieresi affect in a horse?

A

skin

52
Q

What 4 ‘itis’s does Actinomyces bovis cause?

A

gingivitis
alveolar periostitis
osteitis
osteomyelitis

53
Q

Is Actinomyces bovis gram positive or negative?

A

positive

54
Q

In which animals is the oesophagus keratinised stratified squamous epithelium?

A

ruminants
horses
pigs

55
Q

What is the term to describe oesophageal obstruction subsequent to stenosis or blockage?

A

chock

56
Q

What three places is impaction of the oesophagus often seen?

A

dorsal to larynx
thoracic inlet
diaphragmatic hiatus

57
Q

What can be a secondary problem caused by oesophageal impaction?

A

ruminal tympany

58
Q

What could be caused by the oesophagus tears

A

pyothorax

59
Q

What are two causes of congenital megaoesophagus?

A

persistence of IV right aortic arch- ligamentum arteriosum

denervation

60
Q

What are two acquired causes of megaoesophagus?

A

myastenia gravis

dysautonomia

61
Q

In what species can idiopathic muscular hypertrophy be seen?

A

horses

pigs

62
Q

What are the 3 main causes of ruminal acidosis?

A

sudden increase in concentrates
high temperatures and humidity followed by sudden cooling- stimulates overeating
rainstorm

63
Q

What gram positive bacteria colonise an acidic rumen?

A

Streptococcus

Streptobacillus

64
Q

How does ruminal acidosis cause dehydration?

A

draws water out of the rumen wall into the lumen

65
Q

What bacteria can cause liver abscesses flowing ruminal acidosis?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

66
Q

What can chronic rumenitis lead to?

A

mucormycosis

67
Q

What is the rumen wall likened to after prolonged rumenitis?

A

thick leather

68
Q

Which part of the oesophagus is pale where a ‘bloat line forms’?

A

the distal part

69
Q

Feeding cow what 3 things predisposes to frothy bloat?

A

legumes e.g. clover
alfalfa
grain concentrates

70
Q

What are 3 clinical signs of bloat?

A

distended left paralumbar fossa
distended abdomen
congested mucous membranes

71
Q

Why are calves predisposed to trichobezores?

A

because of nursing other calves or themselves

72
Q

What is the test used to test for traumatic reticuloperitonitis/pericarditis in cow?

A

bar test- grunt with pain

73
Q

What is a clinical sign of reticularpericarditis?

A

‘bottle jaw’

74
Q

What is the pathology behind reticulopericarditis induced mandibular oedema?

A

congested heart failure

75
Q

In which species can gastric dilation lead to stomach rupture?

A

horses

76
Q

What food is associated with GDV in dogs?

A

dry food

77
Q

Which part of the stomach normally ruptures?

A

muscle of the greater curvature

78
Q

What do animals with catarrhal gastritis usually die of?

A

hypovolaemic shock because of vomiting

79
Q

What drug may cause catarrhal gastritis?

A

NSAIDs

80
Q

How old are pigs usually which get ‘oedema disease’?

A

6-14 weeks

81
Q

Is oedema disease in pigs associated with diarrhoea?

A

no

82
Q

In what two main regions is oedema seen in oedema disease?

A

stomach mucosa

between the coils of the spiral colon

83
Q

What is a distinct clinical sign of oedema disease?

A

high pitched squeaking

84
Q

Which part of the horse stomach do ‘Bots’ attach to?

A

non-glandular part

85
Q

What are 3 causes of gastric ulcers in dogs?

A

gastric carcinoma
mast cell tumours
ureamia

86
Q

How does chronic interstitial nephritis lead to gastric ulcers?

A

animal with polydipsia and polyuria not given enough water
urea accumulates in blood
urea enters stomach and becomes ammonia
ammonia causes ulcer

87
Q

What can urea cause in the blood vessels?

A

vasculitis

88
Q

What is the most common sign of gastric ulcers in pigs?

A

dead pigs

89
Q

What causes ‘Braxy’ in sheep?

A

Clostridium septicum

90
Q

What predisposes sheep to Braxy?

A

eating frosted grass

91
Q

What are 4 pathologies cause by Haemonchus contortus?

A

anaemia
hypoproteinaemia
oedema
diarrhoea

92
Q

What appearance to the abomasum can Ostertagia give?

A

moroccan leather

93
Q

Which salmonella species can cause disease in animals?

A

Salmonella serovars

94
Q

How does meat become contaminated with E. coli for example?

A

if the GI tract is nicked during meat processing

95
Q

What pathogen benefits from the absence of gut flora in the intestines?

A

Clostridium difficile

96
Q

What can happen to gut villi in the absence of gut flora?

A

destruction of villi structure

97
Q

What is the term for the idea that if the gut flora is disrupted or not present, something can be done to prevent enteritis?

A

competitive exclusion

Alimentary (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions