General facts 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What three metabolites are absorbed at the tip of a villus along with Na?

A

glucose
amino acids
Cl

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2
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms of diarrhoea?

A

altered epithelial cell transport
altered structure and permeability
osmotic effect
altered motility

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3
Q

What is the general term for the toxins produced by E.coli and Vibrio cholerae which cause secretory diarrhoea?

A

enterotoxin

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4
Q

Which E.coli toxin interferes with adenyl cyclase?

A

heat labile toxin

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5
Q

Which E.coli toxin interferes with guanyl cyclase?

A

heat stable toxin

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6
Q

Can glucose still be absorbed into epithelial cells in the presence of enterotoxins e.g. heat labile toxin?

A

yes

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7
Q

Why does a villus become more secretory when Salmonella infects epithelial cells?

A

there is a faster rate of turnover of crypt cells leading to more immature cells at the tip which are more secretory

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8
Q

What can inflammation do to the gut vasculature?

A

it can increase its permeability

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9
Q

What is dysentery?

A

the presence of blood and mucosal shreds in watery faeces

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10
Q

What is an example of a pathogen which causes osmotic diarrhoea?

A

Cryptosporidium

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11
Q

What is the term for hypomotility of the gut?

A

ileus

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12
Q

What may be a cause of hypomotility of the gut?

A

bacterial multiplication in the intestines

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13
Q

What leads to increased gut motility in TGE?

A

prostaglandins involved in inflammation

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14
Q

What is a problem relating to small intestinal disease which can be caused due to malabsorption and maldigestion of nutrients and increased bowel permeability?

A

hypoalbuminaemia

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15
Q

What heart problem can be associated with diarrhoea and why?

A

cardiac arrhythmia because of potassium depletion in severe diarrhoea

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16
Q

What is the main cause of septicaemic colibacillosis in lambs and foals?

A

absence of circulating antibodies because very young animals have not fed on colostrum

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17
Q

Piglets and calves at what age are most susceptible to enteric colibacillosis?

A

3-10 days

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18
Q

Is inflammation a big part of enteric colibacillosis?

A

no

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19
Q

What is the name of the pathogenicity island EHEC and EPEC need for virulence?

A

LEE= locus for enterocyte effacement

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20
Q

What toxin does EHEC produce and what does this do?

A

Shiga like toxin, inactivates 60s ribosome subunit

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21
Q

What two parts of the body does EHEC infect when it becomes systemic?

A

kidney

brain

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22
Q

Do most animals infected with EHEC show disease?

A

no

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23
Q

What can EHEC cause in humans?

A

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

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24
Q

At what temperature is EHEC killed?

A

60 degrees

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25
In what two conditions does EHEC multiply in pigs?
stress | changes in diet
26
What are the adhesins used by UPEC?
P pili
27
What are 4 groups of animals which asymptomatically carry Campylobacter spp?
domestic species lifestock poultry wildlife
28
What is the optimum growth temperature of Campylobacter?
37-42 degrees
29
Where is the highest number of Campylobacter in chickens?
caecum
30
What might prevent Campylobacter invading chicken epithelial cells?
chicken mucus
31
At what age do most chicks become infected with Campylobacter?
10-14 days
32
What two things can induce carrier, non-shedder birds to become shedders?
stress | change of diet
33
What 4 species of Campylobacter do dogs carry?
jejuni coli upsaliensis hypointestinalis
34
In what 3 situations can antimicrobial treatment be used to treat Campylobacter infections in dogs?
immunocompromised patients severe clinical signs extra-intestinal signs
35
What 4 squamates are most commonly carriers and shedders of Campylobacter?
bearded dragons green iguana western beaked geko blotched blue-tongue skink
36
In what management are cattle higher carriers of Campylobacter?
feedlot (cattles fed in yards)
37
What disease can Campylobacter cause in pigs?
colitis
38
What species of Campylobacter do pigs most commonly carry?
jejuni | coli
39
What are three causes of Campylobacter induced colitis in pigs?
poor hygiene wet floor surfaces secondary infection
40
What bacteria is associated with proliferative enteritis in pigs?
Campylobacter hypointestinalis
41
What is the morphology of most Campylobacter bacteria?
spiral
42
What medium should be used to transport Campylobacter?
Cary-Blair
43
Where is Campylobacter found in eggs?
on the surface
44
What is the term for processing Campylobacter positive and negative chickens through separate processes?
logistic slaughter
45
What precaution during chicken rearing could be taken to reduce spread of Campylobacter to humans?
no thinning
46
What is a technique for serological identification of Salmonella?
slide agglutination test
47
What antigen is usually used to classify Salmonella?
O antigen
48
What is the name of the apparatus Salmonella uses to invade epithelial cells?
Type Three Secretion System (TTSS)
49
Is enteric inflammation part of Salmonellosis?
yes
50
What can gut perforation caused by Salmonella induced necrotic enteritis lead to?
peritonitis
51
What are the three forms of enteritis Salmonella can cause?
haemorrhagic enteritis necrotic enteritis acute fibrinous enteritis
52
What four places does Salmonella often reside in?
liver spleen lymph nodes bone marrow
53
What does Salmonella cause the formation of in extraintestinal sites of infection?
granulomas
54
What is the term to describe bacteria escaping to new foci?
dispersive infection
55
What disease is caused by Salmonella Gallinarum and what species is this in?
Fowl typhoid, birds
56
In what two ways can S. Gallinarum be passed between birds?
egg transmission | faecal oral route
57
What are two diseases which can be caused by Salmonella in birds?
Pullorum disease | Fowl typhoid
58
What age are the birds which show disease after Salmonella Gallinarium infection?
adults
59
What is the two names for the disease caused in birds by Salmonella which is usually transmitted via eggs and affects young birds?
Pullorum | Bacillary white diarrhoea
60
What 4 organs can be particularly infected in septicaemic salmonellosis?
lungs kidney pericardium joints
61
What condition affecting the joints can be caused by salmonella?
acute septic arthritis
62
What food borne salmonella species is associated primarily with cattle?
Salmonella Typhimurium
63
Why is the bacteria causing food borne Salmonella in humans particularly bad?
because it is multi-drug resistant
64
What must Salmonella infect in a bird for it to contaminate eggs?
ovaries
65
What does the Salmonella vaccine in chickens vaccinate against?
Salmonella Enteritidis
66
Where is the flagella found in a Brachyspira bacteria?
between the inner and outer membrane
67
What age of pigs does swine dysentery usually effect?
8-14 week old piglets
68
To what region of the gut is swine dysentery confined?
large intestine
69
What 6 pathologies can Brachyspira hyodysenteriae cause?
``` inflammation oedema fibrin formation necrosis haemorrhage excessive mucus production ```
70
Which bacteria product is important for causing pathology in swine dysentery?
haemolysin
71
Which cells does Brachyspira usually invade?
goblet cells
72
What Brachyspira organism is not pathogenic?
Brachyspira innocens
73
What are two differences between the two species of Brachyspira which can be found in pigs?
Brachyspira innocens grows at a lower temperature (37 degrees not 42 degrees) Brachyspira innocens causes weaker haemolysis
74
What three species are most susceptible to Bacillus anthracis infection?
cattle sheep goats
75
Which 2 species often die quickly and show not clinical signs when infected with Bacillus anthracis?
cattle | sheep
76
What are two clinical signs of anthrax in pigs?
hot painful swelling in throat area | loss of appetite
77
What are two clinical signs of anthrax in horses?
hot painful swelling in throat area | colic pains
78
What two pathologies in the throat does Bacillus anthracis cause?
necrotising tonsilits | haemorrhagic lymph nodes
79
What three pathologies in the intestines can Bacillus anthracis cause?
congestion oedema necrosis
80
What are the three forms of anthrax in humans?
cutaneous anthrax pulmonary anthrax intestinal anthrax
81
What does Bacillus anthracis look like when stained with polychrome methylene blue?
square ended blue rods surrounded by a link capsule
82
Where should blood be sampled from when testing for Bacillus anthracis?
superficial vein
83
Which Clostridium perfringens toxin is protected by colostrum?
beta
84
Which Clostridium perfringens toxin is not activated in the presence of colostrum?
epsilon
85
What disease does Clostridium perfringens type A cause?
enterotoxaemia in lambs
86
What disease does Clostridium perfringens type B cause?
lamb dysentery
87
What 3 diseases does Clostridium perfringens type C cause?
haemorrhagic enterotoxaemia struck necrotic enteritis
88
In what four animals does Clostridium perfringens type C cause haemorrhagic enterotoxaemia?
piglets lambs calves foals
89
What disease does Clostridium perfringens type D cause in lambs?
pulpy kidney disease
90
In what species does Clostridium perfringens type C cause necrotic enteritis?
chickens
91
What does Clostridium perfringens type E cause in lambs?
enterotoxaemia
92
What predisposes to pulpy kidney disease?
feeding a carbohydrate rich diet
93
What are two ways of diagnosing pulpy kidney disease?
glycosuria | encephalomalacia
94
What is the best control method for Clostridium?
vaccination
95
What type Clostridium bacteria affect the liver?
Clostridium novyi type B | Clostridium haemolyticum
96
What disease does Clostridium haemolyticum cause?
Red water (Bacillary haemoglobinuria)
97
Which three viral diseases can spread by the systemic route?
porcine circovirus 2 canine parvovirus type 2 Feline panleukaemia virus
98
Which enzyme cleaves rotavirus for it to become active?
chymotrypsin
99
What host defenses is rotavirus resistant to?
stomach acid | bile
100
What enetrotoxin does rotavirus produce and which is its effect?
NSP4, secretory diarrhoea
101
Does rotavirus have an envelope?
no
102
What 4 animal species does rotavirus type A infect?
cattle sheep horses chickens
103
What disease does rotavirus cause in piglets, lambs, foals and calves?
milk scours= white scours
104
What two strains of Bovine Norovirus genogroup III?
Newbury virus | Jena virus
105
What is the main symptom of norovirus infection?
yellow-green diarrhoea
106
What happens if an antibody does not fully neutralise coronavirus?
antibody-dependent enhancement of infection
107
In what aged pigs is morality high with TGE?
<2 weeks
108
What two virus are replacing TGE?
porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus | porcine respiratory coronavirus
109
Is porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus notifiable?
yes
110
What has been used to make TGEV resistant pigs in America?
CRISPR-Cas9
111
Can Feline Panleukopenia virus infect dogs?
yes
112
Which two species does the Canine Parvovirus type 2b infect?
dogs | cats
113
Where do parvoviruses primary replication take place?
pharyngeal lymphoid tissue
114
What is a systemic effect of parvovirus?
immunosuppression
115
How long is parvovirus shed urine and faeces in cats?
up to 6 weeks
116
How long is parvovirus shed urine and faeces in dogs?
7-10 days
117
Where in the intestines does the porcine circovirus type 2 infect?
Peyers patches
118
What pathology does PCV2 cause in pigs?
granulomatous enteritis
119
For what viral cause of diarrhoea are antibiotics most important?
parvovirus
120
For what three enteritic viruses is vaccines available?
rotavirus parvovirus PCV2
121
Does toxocara canis or toxocara cati have larger alae?
toxocara cati
122
How old do dogs have to be to support hepato-tracheo migration of toxocara canis?
<6 months
123
What is the PPR of toxocara canis in puppies?
4-5 weeks
124
In what three tissues does toxocara canis mainly undergo hypobiosis?
brain skeletal muscle liver
125
What is the PPR of toxocara canis when transplacental crossing of the larvae to the pup occurs?
2-3 weeks
126
What are 4 examples of paratenic hosts for toxocara canis?
birds rodents pigs sheep
127
What feature of toxocara eggs means they can survive in the environment for a long time?
waxy cuticle
128
What does the cuticle of toxocara canis eggs look like?
beehive
129
How can toxocara canis and toxocara leonine be distinguished?
by their eggs
130
What are 4 treatments for toxocara canis?
piperazine pyrantel fenbendazole mebendazole
131
When should pups first be given anthelmintic treatment?
2 weeks
132
Administration of anthelmintics when can eliminate transmammary and prenatal infection of pups with toxocara canis?
from 3 weeks to 2 days prepartum
133
Is toxocara canis zoonotic?
yes
134
What three conditions can toxocara canis cause in humans?
visceral larva migrans ocular larva migrans encephalic larva migrans
135
How can transmammary transmission of toxocara cati occur in cats?
if the dam is infected acutely in the last stage of pregnancy
136
When does tracheal migration of toxocara cati occur in cats?
throughout the whole life of the cat
137
What three species does toxocara leonina infect?
dogs cats foxes
138
What is the main reason toxocara leonina is different to toxocara canis?
toxocara leonina does not have a migratory phase
139
What are paratenic hosts of Ascaris suum?
earthworms
140
What is the name of the pathology caused by Ascaris suum in the pig liver?
milk spot
141
What two things can be obstructed by Ascaris suum?
bile duct | pancreatic duct
142
What three signs can Parascaris equorum cause in horses if the worm burden is high?
colic obstruction respiratory signs
143
What kind of enteritis do worms normally produce?
catarrhal enteritis
144
What is the main factor for causing white scours?
not enough colostrum
145
What are 3 pathogens other than viruses often associated with white scours in calves?
Cryptosporidium ETEC Campylobacter
146
What age of piglets most often get TGE?
less than 10 days old
147
What are 6 differential diagnoses for TGE?
``` Porcine respiratory coronavirus rotavirus cryptosporidium Eimeria E.coli parasites ```
148
What is a feature of the intestine of a pig with TGE?
transparent
149
Why is Feline Panleukopenia not common?
because a vaccine is available
150
How old are cats usually which get Feline Panleukopenia?
<6 months
151
What can kittens infected in utero with Feline Panleukopenia get?
cerebellar hypoplasia
152
Other than enteritis, what can canine parvovirus cause in puppies >6 weeks?
myocarditis
153
What two dog breeds are at risk of parvovirus?
Rottweilers | Dobermans
154
How can bone marrow appear if infected with parvovirus?
red liquid
155
What two pathologies does mucoid enteropathy cause in rabbits?
impaction of caecum | catarrhal enteritis
156
What are three ways Salmonella can be transmitter?
faecal-oral route transplacentally flies
157
What pathology can be seen in the stomach, caecum and colon of animals with chronic Salmonellosis?
button ulcers
158
Which is a clinical sign of salmonellosis in horses?
foul smelling diarrhoea
159
What is a clinical sign of peracute salmonellosis in a pig?
cyanosis of ventral parts
160
What is a way of diagnosing lamb dysentery caused by Clostridium perfringens type B?
glucosuria
161
What age are sheep which get clostridium perfringens type C usually?
adults
162
What two Clostridia are potentially involved in colitis x in horses?
Clostridium perfringens type A | Clostridial difficile
163
What is often a clinical sign of colitis x?
sudden death
164
What disease in rabbits is caused by Clostridium piliformis?
Tyzzer's disease
165
What kind of enteritis is seen in swine dysentery?
ulcerative enteritis
166
Where in the digestive system does Brachyspira hyodysenteriae infect?
large intestine- mainly the spiral colon
167
How old are pigs usually which get swine dysentery?
8-14 weeks
168
What is the morality rate for swine dysentery?
50%
169
Can Johne's disease be transplacentally transmitted?
yes
170
How old are cows usually which show clinical signs of Johne's disease?
3-4 years
171
What are three clinical signs of Johnes disease?
diarrhoea emaciation hypoalbuminaemia
172
What appearance does intestinal mucosa have in Johne's disease?
corn-on-the-cob
173
What type of hypersensitivity is Johne's disease?
type IV hypersensitivity
174
What is two other names for Porcine Proliferative Enteropathy?
post weaning disease | Lawsonia intracellularis
175
What are the three forms of Porcine Proliferative Enteropathy?
intestinal adenomatosis necrotic enteritis haemorrhagic enteropathy
176
What are two post mortem features of Porcine Proliferative Enteropathy?
haemorrhage | fibrin almost fully occluding the intestine
177
What two cells are reduced in Porcine Proliferative Enteropathy?
CD8+ T cells | B lymphocytes
178
What is a similar disease to Johne's disease in horses?
granulomatous colitis
179
Hypersensitivity to what may trigger granulomatous colitis in horses?
trichoneme parasite
180
How is lymphocytic-plasmocytic enteritis in dogs different to Johne's disease?
it involves the infiltration of plasma cells and lymphocytes rather than macrophages
181
What three cells infiltrate the lamina propria in lymphocytic-plasmocytic enteritis in dogs?
plasma cells lymphocytes eosinophilic cells
182
What may be a cause of lymphocytic-plasmocytic enteritis in dogs?
food allergy
183
What dog breeds have a hereditary predisposition to lymphocytic-plasmocytic enteritis?
Basenji
184
What dog breeds are predisposed to diffuse eosinophilic enteritis?
German Shepherds
185
What is a mineral concretion formed inside the intestines?
enteroliths
186
Diets high in what two things predisposes to enteroliths?
magnesium | phosphorus
187
What two places are enteroliths most likely to get lodged?
pelvic flexure | transverse colon
188
What is the term for twisted intestine on its mesenteric axis?
volvulus
189
What is the term for twisted intestine on its long axis?
torsion
190
In what species is mesenteric lipoma common?
horse
191
Are intussusceptions associated with hypo or hypermotility?
hypermotility
192
Why are infarctions rare in the intestines?
there is a good anastomosing blood supply
193
What two metal objects can cause toxicosis if in the intestines?
copper | lead
194
What are the two things found in the peritoneal cavity in the wet form of FIP?
fibrin | fluid
195
What is the other name for the 'dry form' of FIP?
pyogranuloma
196
In what two places does the FIP virus replicate?
epithelial cells | lymph node
197
What 4 pathologies does FIP cause?
peritonitis granulomatous nephritis menigitis vasculitis
198
What pathology is caused by Glasser's disease?
fibrinous polyserositis
199
What causes Glasser's disease?
Haemophilus parasuis
200
What in the urinary bladder can lead to chemical peritonitis?
calculi
201
What two pathologies can lead to chemical peritonitis?
gall bladder polycystitis | urinary bladder cycstitis
202
What forms if animals recover from peritonitis?
adhesions