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alimentary > General facts 2 > Flashcards

General facts 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What three metabolites are absorbed at the tip of a villus along with Na?

A

glucose
amino acids
Cl

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2
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms of diarrhoea?

A

altered epithelial cell transport
altered structure and permeability
osmotic effect
altered motility

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3
Q

What is the general term for the toxins produced by E.coli and Vibrio cholerae which cause secretory diarrhoea?

A

enterotoxin

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4
Q

Which E.coli toxin interferes with adenyl cyclase?

A

heat labile toxin

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5
Q

Which E.coli toxin interferes with guanyl cyclase?

A

heat stable toxin

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6
Q

Can glucose still be absorbed into epithelial cells in the presence of enterotoxins e.g. heat labile toxin?

A

yes

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7
Q

Why does a villus become more secretory when Salmonella infects epithelial cells?

A

there is a faster rate of turnover of crypt cells leading to more immature cells at the tip which are more secretory

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8
Q

What can inflammation do to the gut vasculature?

A

it can increase its permeability

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9
Q

What is dysentery?

A

the presence of blood and mucosal shreds in watery faeces

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10
Q

What is an example of a pathogen which causes osmotic diarrhoea?

A

Cryptosporidium

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11
Q

What is the term for hypomotility of the gut?

A

ileus

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12
Q

What may be a cause of hypomotility of the gut?

A

bacterial multiplication in the intestines

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13
Q

What leads to increased gut motility in TGE?

A

prostaglandins involved in inflammation

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14
Q

What is a problem relating to small intestinal disease which can be caused due to malabsorption and maldigestion of nutrients and increased bowel permeability?

A

hypoalbuminaemia

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15
Q

What heart problem can be associated with diarrhoea and why?

A

cardiac arrhythmia because of potassium depletion in severe diarrhoea

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16
Q

What is the main cause of septicaemic colibacillosis in lambs and foals?

A

absence of circulating antibodies because very young animals have not fed on colostrum

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17
Q

Piglets and calves at what age are most susceptible to enteric colibacillosis?

A

3-10 days

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18
Q

Is inflammation a big part of enteric colibacillosis?

A

no

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19
Q

What is the name of the pathogenicity island EHEC and EPEC need for virulence?

A

LEE= locus for enterocyte effacement

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20
Q

What toxin does EHEC produce and what does this do?

A

Shiga like toxin, inactivates 60s ribosome subunit

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21
Q

What two parts of the body does EHEC infect when it becomes systemic?

A

kidney

brain

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22
Q

Do most animals infected with EHEC show disease?

A

no

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23
Q

What can EHEC cause in humans?

A

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

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24
Q

At what temperature is EHEC killed?

A

60 degrees

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25
Q

In what two conditions does EHEC multiply in pigs?

A

stress

changes in diet

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26
Q

What are the adhesins used by UPEC?

A

P pili

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27
Q

What are 4 groups of animals which asymptomatically carry Campylobacter spp?

A

domestic species
lifestock
poultry
wildlife

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28
Q

What is the optimum growth temperature of Campylobacter?

A

37-42 degrees

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29
Q

Where is the highest number of Campylobacter in chickens?

A

caecum

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30
Q

What might prevent Campylobacter invading chicken epithelial cells?

A

chicken mucus

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31
Q

At what age do most chicks become infected with Campylobacter?

A

10-14 days

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32
Q

What two things can induce carrier, non-shedder birds to become shedders?

A

stress

change of diet

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33
Q

What 4 species of Campylobacter do dogs carry?

A

jejuni
coli
upsaliensis
hypointestinalis

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34
Q

In what 3 situations can antimicrobial treatment be used to treat Campylobacter infections in dogs?

A

immunocompromised patients
severe clinical signs
extra-intestinal signs

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35
Q

What 4 squamates are most commonly carriers and shedders of Campylobacter?

A

bearded dragons
green iguana
western beaked geko
blotched blue-tongue skink

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36
Q

In what management are cattle higher carriers of Campylobacter?

A

feedlot (cattles fed in yards)

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37
Q

What disease can Campylobacter cause in pigs?

A

colitis

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38
Q

What species of Campylobacter do pigs most commonly carry?

A

jejuni

coli

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39
Q

What are three causes of Campylobacter induced colitis in pigs?

A

poor hygiene
wet floor surfaces
secondary infection

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40
Q

What bacteria is associated with proliferative enteritis in pigs?

A

Campylobacter hypointestinalis

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41
Q

What is the morphology of most Campylobacter bacteria?

A

spiral

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42
Q

What medium should be used to transport Campylobacter?

A

Cary-Blair

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43
Q

Where is Campylobacter found in eggs?

A

on the surface

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44
Q

What is the term for processing Campylobacter positive and negative chickens through separate processes?

A

logistic slaughter

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45
Q

What precaution during chicken rearing could be taken to reduce spread of Campylobacter to humans?

A

no thinning

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46
Q

What is a technique for serological identification of Salmonella?

A

slide agglutination test

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47
Q

What antigen is usually used to classify Salmonella?

A

O antigen

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48
Q

What is the name of the apparatus Salmonella uses to invade epithelial cells?

A

Type Three Secretion System (TTSS)

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49
Q

Is enteric inflammation part of Salmonellosis?

A

yes

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50
Q

What can gut perforation caused by Salmonella induced necrotic enteritis lead to?

A

peritonitis

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51
Q

What are the three forms of enteritis Salmonella can cause?

A

haemorrhagic enteritis
necrotic enteritis
acute fibrinous enteritis

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52
Q

What four places does Salmonella often reside in?

A

liver
spleen
lymph nodes
bone marrow

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53
Q

What does Salmonella cause the formation of in extraintestinal sites of infection?

A

granulomas

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54
Q

What is the term to describe bacteria escaping to new foci?

A

dispersive infection

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55
Q

What disease is caused by Salmonella Gallinarum and what species is this in?

A

Fowl typhoid, birds

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56
Q

In what two ways can S. Gallinarum be passed between birds?

A

egg transmission

faecal oral route

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57
Q

What are two diseases which can be caused by Salmonella in birds?

A

Pullorum disease

Fowl typhoid

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58
Q

What age are the birds which show disease after Salmonella Gallinarium infection?

A

adults

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59
Q

What is the two names for the disease caused in birds by Salmonella which is usually transmitted via eggs and affects young birds?

A

Pullorum

Bacillary white diarrhoea

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60
Q

What 4 organs can be particularly infected in septicaemic salmonellosis?

A

lungs
kidney
pericardium
joints

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61
Q

What condition affecting the joints can be caused by salmonella?

A

acute septic arthritis

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62
Q

What food borne salmonella species is associated primarily with cattle?

A

Salmonella Typhimurium

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63
Q

Why is the bacteria causing food borne Salmonella in humans particularly bad?

A

because it is multi-drug resistant

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64
Q

What must Salmonella infect in a bird for it to contaminate eggs?

A

ovaries

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65
Q

What does the Salmonella vaccine in chickens vaccinate against?

A

Salmonella Enteritidis

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66
Q

Where is the flagella found in a Brachyspira bacteria?

A

between the inner and outer membrane

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67
Q

What age of pigs does swine dysentery usually effect?

A

8-14 week old piglets

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68
Q

To what region of the gut is swine dysentery confined?

A

large intestine

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69
Q

What 6 pathologies can Brachyspira hyodysenteriae cause?

A 
inflammation 
oedema
fibrin formation
necrosis 
haemorrhage
excessive mucus production
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70
Q

Which bacteria product is important for causing pathology in swine dysentery?

A

haemolysin

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71
Q

Which cells does Brachyspira usually invade?

A

goblet cells

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72
Q

What Brachyspira organism is not pathogenic?

A

Brachyspira innocens

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73
Q

What are two differences between the two species of Brachyspira which can be found in pigs?

A

Brachyspira innocens grows at a lower temperature (37 degrees not 42 degrees)
Brachyspira innocens causes weaker haemolysis

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74
Q

What three species are most susceptible to Bacillus anthracis infection?

A

cattle
sheep
goats

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75
Q

Which 2 species often die quickly and show not clinical signs when infected with Bacillus anthracis?

A

cattle

sheep

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76
Q

What are two clinical signs of anthrax in pigs?

A

hot painful swelling in throat area

loss of appetite

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77
Q

What are two clinical signs of anthrax in horses?

A

hot painful swelling in throat area

colic pains

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78
Q

What two pathologies in the throat does Bacillus anthracis cause?

A

necrotising tonsilits

haemorrhagic lymph nodes

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79
Q

What three pathologies in the intestines can Bacillus anthracis cause?

A

congestion
oedema
necrosis

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80
Q

What are the three forms of anthrax in humans?

A

cutaneous anthrax
pulmonary anthrax
intestinal anthrax

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81
Q

What does Bacillus anthracis look like when stained with polychrome methylene blue?

A

square ended blue rods surrounded by a link capsule

82
Q

Where should blood be sampled from when testing for Bacillus anthracis?

A

superficial vein

83
Q

Which Clostridium perfringens toxin is protected by colostrum?

A

beta

84
Q

Which Clostridium perfringens toxin is not activated in the presence of colostrum?

A

epsilon

85
Q

What disease does Clostridium perfringens type A cause?

A

enterotoxaemia in lambs

86
Q

What disease does Clostridium perfringens type B cause?

A

lamb dysentery

87
Q

What 3 diseases does Clostridium perfringens type C cause?

A

haemorrhagic enterotoxaemia
struck
necrotic enteritis

88
Q

In what four animals does Clostridium perfringens type C cause haemorrhagic enterotoxaemia?

A

piglets
lambs
calves
foals

89
Q

What disease does Clostridium perfringens type D cause in lambs?

A

pulpy kidney disease

90
Q

In what species does Clostridium perfringens type C cause necrotic enteritis?

A

chickens

91
Q

What does Clostridium perfringens type E cause in lambs?

A

enterotoxaemia

92
Q

What predisposes to pulpy kidney disease?

A

feeding a carbohydrate rich diet

93
Q

What are two ways of diagnosing pulpy kidney disease?

A

glycosuria

encephalomalacia

94
Q

What is the best control method for Clostridium?

A

vaccination

95
Q

What type Clostridium bacteria affect the liver?

A

Clostridium novyi type B

Clostridium haemolyticum

96
Q

What disease does Clostridium haemolyticum cause?

A

Red water (Bacillary haemoglobinuria)

97
Q

Which three viral diseases can spread by the systemic route?

A

porcine circovirus 2
canine parvovirus type 2
Feline panleukaemia virus

98
Q

Which enzyme cleaves rotavirus for it to become active?

A

chymotrypsin

99
Q

What host defenses is rotavirus resistant to?

A

stomach acid

bile

100
Q

What enetrotoxin does rotavirus produce and which is its effect?

A

NSP4, secretory diarrhoea

101
Q

Does rotavirus have an envelope?

A

no

102
Q

What 4 animal species does rotavirus type A infect?

A

cattle
sheep
horses
chickens

103
Q

What disease does rotavirus cause in piglets, lambs, foals and calves?

A

milk scours= white scours

104
Q

What two strains of Bovine Norovirus genogroup III?

A

Newbury virus

Jena virus

105
Q

What is the main symptom of norovirus infection?

A

yellow-green diarrhoea

106
Q

What happens if an antibody does not fully neutralise coronavirus?

A

antibody-dependent enhancement of infection

107
Q

In what aged pigs is morality high with TGE?

A

<2 weeks

108
Q

What two virus are replacing TGE?

A

porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus

porcine respiratory coronavirus

109
Q

Is porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus notifiable?

A

yes

110
Q

What has been used to make TGEV resistant pigs in America?

A

CRISPR-Cas9

111
Q

Can Feline Panleukopenia virus infect dogs?

A

yes

112
Q

Which two species does the Canine Parvovirus type 2b infect?

A

dogs

cats

113
Q

Where do parvoviruses primary replication take place?

A

pharyngeal lymphoid tissue

114
Q

What is a systemic effect of parvovirus?

A

immunosuppression

115
Q

How long is parvovirus shed urine and faeces in cats?

A

up to 6 weeks

116
Q

How long is parvovirus shed urine and faeces in dogs?

A

7-10 days

117
Q

Where in the intestines does the porcine circovirus type 2 infect?

A

Peyers patches

118
Q

What pathology does PCV2 cause in pigs?

A

granulomatous enteritis

119
Q

For what viral cause of diarrhoea are antibiotics most important?

A

parvovirus

120
Q

For what three enteritic viruses is vaccines available?

A

rotavirus
parvovirus
PCV2

121
Q

Does toxocara canis or toxocara cati have larger alae?

A

toxocara cati

122
Q

How old do dogs have to be to support hepato-tracheo migration of toxocara canis?

A

<6 months

123
Q

What is the PPR of toxocara canis in puppies?

A

4-5 weeks

124
Q

In what three tissues does toxocara canis mainly undergo hypobiosis?

A

brain
skeletal muscle
liver

125
Q

What is the PPR of toxocara canis when transplacental crossing of the larvae to the pup occurs?

A

2-3 weeks

126
Q

What are 4 examples of paratenic hosts for toxocara canis?

A

birds
rodents
pigs
sheep

127
Q

What feature of toxocara eggs means they can survive in the environment for a long time?

A

waxy cuticle

128
Q

What does the cuticle of toxocara canis eggs look like?

A

beehive

129
Q

How can toxocara canis and toxocara leonine be distinguished?

A

by their eggs

130
Q

What are 4 treatments for toxocara canis?

A

piperazine
pyrantel
fenbendazole
mebendazole

131
Q

When should pups first be given anthelmintic treatment?

A

2 weeks

132
Q

Administration of anthelmintics when can eliminate transmammary and prenatal infection of pups with toxocara canis?

A

from 3 weeks to 2 days prepartum

133
Q

Is toxocara canis zoonotic?

A

yes

134
Q

What three conditions can toxocara canis cause in humans?

A

visceral larva migrans
ocular larva migrans
encephalic larva migrans

135
Q

How can transmammary transmission of toxocara cati occur in cats?

A

if the dam is infected acutely in the last stage of pregnancy

136
Q

When does tracheal migration of toxocara cati occur in cats?

A

throughout the whole life of the cat

137
Q

What three species does toxocara leonina infect?

A

dogs
cats
foxes

138
Q

What is the main reason toxocara leonina is different to toxocara canis?

A

toxocara leonina does not have a migratory phase

139
Q

What are paratenic hosts of Ascaris suum?

A

earthworms

140
Q

What is the name of the pathology caused by Ascaris suum in the pig liver?

A

milk spot

141
Q

What two things can be obstructed by Ascaris suum?

A

bile duct

pancreatic duct

142
Q

What three signs can Parascaris equorum cause in horses if the worm burden is high?

A

colic
obstruction
respiratory signs

143
Q

What kind of enteritis do worms normally produce?

A

catarrhal enteritis

144
Q

What is the main factor for causing white scours?

A

not enough colostrum

145
Q

What are 3 pathogens other than viruses often associated with white scours in calves?

A

Cryptosporidium
ETEC
Campylobacter

146
Q

What age of piglets most often get TGE?

A

less than 10 days old

147
Q

What are 6 differential diagnoses for TGE?

A 
Porcine respiratory coronavirus 
rotavirus 
cryptosporidium 
Eimeria 
E.coli
parasites
148
Q

What is a feature of the intestine of a pig with TGE?

A

transparent

149
Q

Why is Feline Panleukopenia not common?

A

because a vaccine is available

150
Q

How old are cats usually which get Feline Panleukopenia?

A

<6 months

151
Q

What can kittens infected in utero with Feline Panleukopenia get?

A

cerebellar hypoplasia

152
Q

Other than enteritis, what can canine parvovirus cause in puppies >6 weeks?

A

myocarditis

153
Q

What two dog breeds are at risk of parvovirus?

A

Rottweilers

Dobermans

154
Q

How can bone marrow appear if infected with parvovirus?

A

red liquid

155
Q

What two pathologies does mucoid enteropathy cause in rabbits?

A

impaction of caecum

catarrhal enteritis

156
Q

What are three ways Salmonella can be transmitter?

A

faecal-oral route
transplacentally
flies

157
Q

What pathology can be seen in the stomach, caecum and colon of animals with chronic Salmonellosis?

A

button ulcers

158
Q

Which is a clinical sign of salmonellosis in horses?

A

foul smelling diarrhoea

159
Q

What is a clinical sign of peracute salmonellosis in a pig?

A

cyanosis of ventral parts

160
Q

What is a way of diagnosing lamb dysentery caused by Clostridium perfringens type B?

A

glucosuria

161
Q

What age are sheep which get clostridium perfringens type C usually?

A

adults

162
Q

What two Clostridia are potentially involved in colitis x in horses?

A

Clostridium perfringens type A

Clostridial difficile

163
Q

What is often a clinical sign of colitis x?

A

sudden death

164
Q

What disease in rabbits is caused by Clostridium piliformis?

A

Tyzzer’s disease

165
Q

What kind of enteritis is seen in swine dysentery?

A

ulcerative enteritis

166
Q

Where in the digestive system does Brachyspira hyodysenteriae infect?

A

large intestine- mainly the spiral colon

167
Q

How old are pigs usually which get swine dysentery?

A

8-14 weeks

168
Q

What is the morality rate for swine dysentery?

A

50%

169
Q

Can Johne’s disease be transplacentally transmitted?

A

yes

170
Q

How old are cows usually which show clinical signs of Johne’s disease?

A

3-4 years

171
Q

What are three clinical signs of Johnes disease?

A

diarrhoea
emaciation
hypoalbuminaemia

172
Q

What appearance does intestinal mucosa have in Johne’s disease?

A

corn-on-the-cob

173
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is Johne’s disease?

A

type IV hypersensitivity

174
Q

What is two other names for Porcine Proliferative Enteropathy?

A

post weaning disease

Lawsonia intracellularis

175
Q

What are the three forms of Porcine Proliferative Enteropathy?

A

intestinal adenomatosis
necrotic enteritis
haemorrhagic enteropathy

176
Q

What are two post mortem features of Porcine Proliferative Enteropathy?

A

haemorrhage

fibrin almost fully occluding the intestine

177
Q

What two cells are reduced in Porcine Proliferative Enteropathy?

A

CD8+ T cells

B lymphocytes

178
Q

What is a similar disease to Johne’s disease in horses?

A

granulomatous colitis

179
Q

Hypersensitivity to what may trigger granulomatous colitis in horses?

A

trichoneme parasite

180
Q

How is lymphocytic-plasmocytic enteritis in dogs different to Johne’s disease?

A

it involves the infiltration of plasma cells and lymphocytes rather than macrophages

181
Q

What three cells infiltrate the lamina propria in lymphocytic-plasmocytic enteritis in dogs?

A

plasma cells
lymphocytes
eosinophilic cells

182
Q

What may be a cause of lymphocytic-plasmocytic enteritis in dogs?

A

food allergy

183
Q

What dog breeds have a hereditary predisposition to lymphocytic-plasmocytic enteritis?

A

Basenji

184
Q

What dog breeds are predisposed to diffuse eosinophilic enteritis?

A

German Shepherds

185
Q

What is a mineral concretion formed inside the intestines?

A

enteroliths

186
Q

Diets high in what two things predisposes to enteroliths?

A

magnesium

phosphorus

187
Q

What two places are enteroliths most likely to get lodged?

A

pelvic flexure

transverse colon

188
Q

What is the term for twisted intestine on its mesenteric axis?

A

volvulus

189
Q

What is the term for twisted intestine on its long axis?

A

torsion

190
Q

In what species is mesenteric lipoma common?

A

horse

191
Q

Are intussusceptions associated with hypo or hypermotility?

A

hypermotility

192
Q

Why are infarctions rare in the intestines?

A

there is a good anastomosing blood supply

193
Q

What two metal objects can cause toxicosis if in the intestines?

A

copper

lead

194
Q

What are the two things found in the peritoneal cavity in the wet form of FIP?

A

fibrin

fluid

195
Q

What is the other name for the ‘dry form’ of FIP?

A

pyogranuloma

196
Q

In what two places does the FIP virus replicate?

A

epithelial cells

lymph node

197
Q

What 4 pathologies does FIP cause?

A

peritonitis
granulomatous nephritis
menigitis
vasculitis

198
Q

What pathology is caused by Glasser’s disease?

A

fibrinous polyserositis

199
Q

What causes Glasser’s disease?

A

Haemophilus parasuis

200
Q

What in the urinary bladder can lead to chemical peritonitis?

A

calculi

201
Q

What two pathologies can lead to chemical peritonitis?

A

gall bladder polycystitis

urinary bladder cycstitis

202
Q

What forms if animals recover from peritonitis?

A

adhesions

alimentary (4 decks)

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