General facts 3 Flashcards
1
Q
What are the most common oral tumours in dogs?
A
peripheral ossifying fibroma
2
Q
Are most tumours in dogs benign or metastatic?
A
about 50% of both
3
Q
What must be examined about an oral tumour for definitive diagnosis?
A
histology
4
Q
Where does the oral lymphatic drainage drain to?
A
submandibular lymph nodes
5
Q
Which oral tumour in dogs and cats histologically appears to have engulfed epithelial cells?
A
peripheral ossifying fibroma
6
Q
How do peripheral ossifying fibromas appear on radiograph?
A
they can be very radiodense because they can develop a lot of bone
7
Q
What is a defining feature of the histology of ancanthomatous ameloblastoma?
A
fingerlike projections of epithelium diving into the stoma
8
Q
What oral tumour is quite radiosensitive?
A
Acanthomatous ameloblastoma
9
Q
What is another name for ancanthomatous ameloblastoma?
A
basal cell carcinoma
10
Q
What is the main physical presentation of epulides?
A
smooth
11
Q
Can acanthomatous ameloblastomas invade into the alveolar bone?
A
yes
12
Q
What are the three types of SCC?
A
gingival SCC
tonsilar SCC
soft tissue SCC
13
Q
What are three features of the gross appearance of SCC tumours?
A
irregular
proliferative
ulcerative
14
Q
What cancer can SCC be confused with if it becomes invasive?
A
osteosarcoma
15
Q
What is the prognosis of gingival SCC in cats?
A
poor
16
Q
What SCC tumours have a good prognosis in dogs?
A
rostral gingival SCC
17
Q
What dog breeds suffer most often from oral fibrosarcoma?
A
retrievers
18
Q
What are two characteristics of fibrosarcoma?
A
smooth
broad base
19
Q
What sex of dog is more predisposed to oral malignant melanomas?
A
males
20
Q
What 3 breeds of dog are predisposed to oral malignant melanomas?
A
spaniel
pug
poodle
21
Q
What two places in the mouth are malignant melanomas commonly found?
A
gums
hard palate
22
Q
Is bone invasion more likely with melanomas or fibrosarcomas?
A
fibrosarcomas
23
Q
What is the most common tumour associated with the tongue of dogs and cats?
A
squamous cell carcinoma
24
Q
What region of the tongue do SCCs often arise?
A
in the area of the frenulum
25
Can radiotherapy be used to treat SCC on the tongue?
no
26
What is the prognosis for SCC on the tongue?
poor
27
What drug should be used to manage lingual SCC?
NSAIDs
28
What is the most common type of tumour seen on the tonsils?
SCC
29
What dog breeds are predisposed to tonsilar SCC?
Border Collies
30
What dog breeds are predisposed to gingival hyperplasia?
boxers
31
What is an oral tumour seen in young terriers which could be confused with osteosarcoma?
craniomandibular osteopathy?
32
How should craniomandibular osteopathy be treated?
NSAIDs
33
Are oesophageal tumours common in cats and dogs?
no
34
What worm can cause oesophageal tumours in cats and dogs?
spirocerca lupi
35
What are the four types of tumour which can be found int the oesophagus?
leiomyosarcoma
squamous cell carcinoma
fibrosarcoma
osteosarcoma
36
What pathology can occur due to the regurgitation caused by oesophageal tumours?
secondary aspiration pneumonia
37
What breeds of dog are predisposed to gastric adenocarcinoma?
Belgian Shepherd dogs
38
What two places in the stomach do adenocarcinomas often arise?
lesser curvature
| pyloric antrum
39
What three places can gastric tumours metastasise to?
gastroduodenal lymph nodes
splenic lymph nodes
abdominal organs
40
What is the most common gastric tumour type in cats?
lymphoma
41
Are cats which get gastric tumours usually FeLV positive or negative?
negative
42
What are two clinical signs of cats with lymphoma?
vomiting
| weight loss
43
Is Helicobacter thought to be a cause of gastric tumours?
not really
44
What can be caused if a gastric adenocarcinoma perforates the stomach wall?
peritonitis
45
Where do gastric adenocarcinomas most often arise in the stomach?
pyloric antrum
46
What appearance can the vomit caused by gastric tumours have?
'coffee ground'
47
What gastric tumour may respond to chemotherapy?
lymphoma
48
Tumours in what region of the stomach are not appropriate for surgical resectomy?
lesser curvature
49
What antiemetic can be given at a symptomatic treatment of gastic tumour induced vomiting?
maropitant
50
What are two H2 antagonists which can be used to manage gastric tumours?
cimetidine
| ranitidine
51
Are intestinal tumours more common in cats or dogs?
cats
52
What breed of cat has an increased risk of intestinal adenocarcinoma?
Siamese
53
In what part of the intestines do dogs usually get tumours?
distal 1/3 of colon and rectum
54
In what three regions of the intestines do cats usually get tumours?
ileocaecocolic junction
jejunum
ileum
55
What type of tumour is most common in a cats large intestine?
adenocarcinoma
56
What could leiomyomas and leiomyosarcomas in dogs be reclassified as?
Gastro-Intestinal Stromal Tumours (GIST)
57
Which lymphoma is recognised as diffuse, infiltrating disease?
low grade, epitheliotrophic T cell lymphoma
58
What are two clinical signs of large intestinal neoplasia?
constipation
| tenesmus
59
What two drugs could low grade lymphoma in cats be treated with?
chlorambucil
| prednisolone
60
What are the three types of perianal tumour?
perianal gland tumour
apocrine gland tumour of anal sac
apocrine gland tumour around anus
61
What breed of dog is predisposed to apocrine gland tumour?
English Cocker Spaniels
62
What three places can apocrine adenocarcinomas of the anal sac metastasise to?
lymph nodes
lungs
abdominal organs
63
What is a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with apocrine adenocarcinomas?
hypercalcaemia
64
What are two signs of hypercalcaemia?
polyuria
| polydispsia
65
What are the two ways of treating apocrine adenocarcinomas of the anal sac and anus?
surgery
| radiotherapy
66
What are the three morphological subtypes of liver tumour?
massive
nodular
diffuse
67
What type of liver tumours tend to be massive?
hepatocellular carcinoma
68
What is the main differential for nodular lesions in the liver?
benign nodular hyperplasia
69
What two dog breeds are predisposed to tumours of the exocrine pancreas?
cocker spaniels
| boxers
70
What pancreatic cells are associated with pancreatic tumours?
acinar cells
71
What percentage of the liver parenchyma must be lost before clinical signs show in chronic liver disease?
75%
72
What percentage of the livers blood supply comes from the hepatic portal vein?
75%
73
What does hydropic degeneration involve?
excessive glycogen storage in the hepatocytes
74
What are two reasons for hypdropic degeneration of the liver?
recently anaesthetised animal
| hypoxia
75
Where is the hepatocellular nucleus in hepatocytes experiencing hydropic degeneration?
central
76
What three situations can cause hydropic degeneration?
diabetes mellitus
Cushings syndrome
corticosteroid administration
77
What are three causes of hypoproteinaemia?
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
protein losing nephropathy
protein losing enteropathy
78
Deficiency in what two substances causes 'white liver disease'?
cobalt
| vitamin B12
79
What kind of liver necrosis is associated with Salmonellosis?
multifocal random necrosis
80
What appearance can the liver take on in an animal with chronic right sided heart failure?
nutmeg
81
What two problems can cause centrilobular necrosis?
chronic right sided heart failure
| toxins
82
What is hepatitis?
Inflammation of the liver
83
What has to be lost for nodular regeneration of the liver to take place?
reticulin network
84
What is two causes of centrilobular fibrosis?
chronic right sided heart failure
| toxaemia
85
What might cause diffuse/dissecting fibrosis in the liver?
paracetamol toxicity
86
What is cirrhosis?
fibrosis, nodular regeneration and atrophy of the liver
87
What is the name given to irregular dark red depressed areas which are commonly found in the liver of adult cows thought to be a developmental abnormality?
telangiectasis
88
What breed of dog is predisposed to congenital portosystemic shunt?
deerhounds
89
What two things can be seen in the mucous membranes of a dog with leptospirosis?
icterus
| haemorrhages
90
What stain can be used to detect Leptospira in the liver?
silver stain
91
How old are puppies usually which get infectious canine hepatitis?
<12 weeks old
92
In what two tissues does canine adenovirus grow?
hepatocytes
| vascular endothelium
93
What is a sign of recovery from canine adenovirus?
corneal oedema
94
What is usually the outcome of canine adenovirus infection?
death
95
Is the dry form of FIP a good or bad outcome of the disease?
good
96
What hypersensitivity is the wet form of FIP related to?
type III hypersensitivity
97
Do cattle get clinical signs of fasciolosis?
rarely
98
What can blue green algae cause?
massive hepatic necrosis
99
What colour does the liver appear in a sheep with copper toxicity?
yellow-green
100
What breed of dog is associated with copper toxicity?
Bedlington terrier
101
What can be caused in pigs with deficiency in vitamin E and selenium if they are given too much iron dextran?
iron dextran toxicity- massive liver necrosis
102
What is the main indication of ragwort poisoning on histology of the liver?
megalocytosis of hepatocytes
103
What does primary photosensitisation involve?
photodynamic agents not metabolised by the liver are deposited on the skin
104
What is an example of a toxin associated with primary photosensitisation?
toxin in St John's Wort
105
What does secondary photosensitisation involve?
liver damage leads to alterations to metabolism which means that photosensitive substances are made
106
What three species do not have a gall bladder?
horses
rats
camels
107
What can obstruction of the bile duct cause in the kidney?
degeneration of tubules
108
How do the kidneys appear in a case of bile duct obstruction?
dark
109
How can cystic mucinous hyperplasia of mucus producing glands cause obstruction of the bile duct?
mucus rich gelatinous material builds up in the bile duct
110
What does the gall bladder look like on ultrasound with cystic mucinous hyperplasia of mucus producing glands in the gall bladder?
star shaped (like a orange slice)
111
In what animals is cholangiohepatitis most commonly seen?
middle-aged cats
112
What may cause cholangiohepatitis?
ascending bacterial infection from the gut
113
What are three signs of a German Shepherd dog with pancreatitis?
weight loss
diarrhoea with rancid smell
ravenous appetite
114
What is the suggested pathology behind acute necrotising pancreatitis?
pancreatic enzymes activated in the acinar cells or the ducts or accessing the parenchyma from ruptured ducts
115
Can acute pancreatitis be fatal?
yes
116
What three things done to treat chronis pancreatitis?
administer pancreatic enzymes
avoid high fibre
avoid high fat
117
What two breeds of dog are predisposed to pancreatic acinar atrophy of juvenile onset?
German Shepherd dogs
| rough Coated Collies
118
What cells cause the destruction of pancreatic acinar atrophy of juvenile onset?
CD8+ T cells
119
What can be an effect of insulinoma?
hypoglycaemia because of the excessive insulin production
120
What three factors can increase the half life of gut isoenzyme ALP?
Cushings disease
stress
corticosteroids
121
What are three clinical symptoms of Cushings disease?
polydipsia
polyuria
polyphagia
122
What are three conditions where low blood glucose may be seen in association with the liver?
fulminant acute hepatic necrosis
congenital portosystemic shunt
large hepatic tumours
123
Reduction of what vitamin can lead to reduction in coagulation factors?
K
124
What disease do cats usually get instead of disease of the liver parenchyma?
choliangitis
125
What three factors can lead to a reduction in vitamin K?
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
Biliary obstruction
Inflammatory Bowel Disease
126
Is cholesterol high or low in cholestatic disease?
high
127
Is cholesterol high or low in hepatocellular disease?
low
128
Is the test for ammonia or bile acids more sensitive when testing for portosystemic shunt?
bile salts
129
What does the bile acid stimulation test involve?
measuring the bile acids in the blood 2 hours before and after feeding the animal a fatty meal
130
What is bilirubin converted into in the intestines?
urobilinogen
131
What two ways can urobilinogen be excreted?
in the faeces
| some absorbed from the GI tract and excreted in urine
132
What three substances found in the urine can indicate a problem with the liver?
bilirubin
urobilinogen
urates
133
What are the two sorts of assays for testing for pancreatic insufficiency?
catalytic assay
| immunoassay
134
What two tests would you run on a dog with suspected pancreatitis?
serum lipase test
| cPLI
135
Can catalytic tests test how much inactive precursor enzyme there is in the blood?
no
136
Is the DGGR lipase test sensitive for both cats and dogs?
yes
137
Is the PLI or TLI more sensitive and specific for pancreatitis?
PLI
138
Are there any good tests for chronic pancreatitis?
no
139
What is the fluid in the abdomen of animals with pancreatitis?
exudate
140
What characteristics of the abdominal fluid indicate pancreatitis?
increased lipase
| normal bilirubin and urea
141
Would you test for folate and vitamin B12 in acute or chronic GI disease?
chronic
142
Where in the intestines is folate absorbed?
jejunum
143
Where in the intestines is vitamin B12 absorbed?
ileum
144
What diet can lead to low folate?
raw food diet for dogs
145
What three pathologies can cause a reduction in vitamin B12?
problems with the ileum
exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
dysbiosis
146
Why can dysbiosis cause a reduction in the levels of vitamin B12 in the blood?
because bacteria bind vitamin B12
147
In what two diseases would you expect to see reduced folate?
severe inflammatory bowel disease
| tumour
148
Why can using creatinine kinase not always distinguish a muscle disease from liver disease if AST is also high?
AST remains high for as much longer than CK
149
What is a good marker of colostrum intake in calves?
GGT
150
In foals of what age will have high levels of GGT?
2-4 weeks
151
Why is the plasma of horses yellow?
because they have very high amounts of bilirubin
152
Why does unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin increase in horses in fasting?
because hepatocytes reduce their uptake of unconjugated bilirubin so that they can concentrate on free fatty acid production
153
Is the bile acid stimulation test used for horses and why?
no, because they have no gall bladder
154
Are bile acid stimulation tests used in cattle?
not really
155
What three things are increased in equine metabolic syndrome?
GGT
NEFA
leptin
156
To measure endogenous ACTH in a horse what must blood be collected in?
EDTA tube
157
What disease in horses is associated with increased ACTH?
PPID
158
Why can increased respiration be associated with GI disease in horses?
because bicarbonate may be being lost into the GI tract leading to metabolic acidosis and respiratory compensation
159
What enzyme may increase in a horse with GI disease e.g. colic and why?
ALP, because there is an intestinal isoenzyme
160
In horses, does transudate or exudate form secondary to liver disease?
transudate
161
What are two characteristics of transudate in liver disease?
low protein
| low cells
162
If liver disease or GI disease has an infectious cause, does transudate or exudate form?
exudate
163
What are two characteristics of exudate?
high protein
| high cells
164
What test can be used to test for failure of passive transfer?
zinc sulfate turbidity test
165
What is the number range for zinc sulfate turbidity test?
0-2
166
What should the chloride concentration of a cows rumen be?
<30 mmol/L
167
What three things does the chloride above 30mmol/L indicate?
rumen stasis
reflux of abomasal contents
intestinal obstruction
168
Does lactic acidosis lead to increased chloride in the rumen?
no
169
Why is metabolic alkalosis cause in cattle when chloride is sequestered to the rumen?
because this leads to an increase in bicarbonate in the blood
170
In lactic acidosis, is the level of bicarbonate in the blood high or low?
low
171
What is the cause of low chloride in the blood of the cow (because of sequestration to the rumen)?
LDA
172
What is cause in the urine in cattle with LDA?
paradoxial acid urine
173
Is pancreatitis common in farm animals?
no
174
Which large animal can get pancreatitis?
horses
