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Alimentary > General facts 3 > Flashcards

General facts 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the most common oral tumours in dogs?

A

peripheral ossifying fibroma

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2
Q

Are most tumours in dogs benign or metastatic?

A

about 50% of both

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3
Q

What must be examined about an oral tumour for definitive diagnosis?

A

histology

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4
Q

Where does the oral lymphatic drainage drain to?

A

submandibular lymph nodes

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5
Q

Which oral tumour in dogs and cats histologically appears to have engulfed epithelial cells?

A

peripheral ossifying fibroma

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6
Q

How do peripheral ossifying fibromas appear on radiograph?

A

they can be very radiodense because they can develop a lot of bone

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7
Q

What is a defining feature of the histology of ancanthomatous ameloblastoma?

A

fingerlike projections of epithelium diving into the stoma

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8
Q

What oral tumour is quite radiosensitive?

A

Acanthomatous ameloblastoma

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9
Q

What is another name for ancanthomatous ameloblastoma?

A

basal cell carcinoma

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10
Q

What is the main physical presentation of epulides?

A

smooth

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11
Q

Can acanthomatous ameloblastomas invade into the alveolar bone?

A

yes

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12
Q

What are the three types of SCC?

A

gingival SCC
tonsilar SCC
soft tissue SCC

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13
Q

What are three features of the gross appearance of SCC tumours?

A

irregular
proliferative
ulcerative

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14
Q

What cancer can SCC be confused with if it becomes invasive?

A

osteosarcoma

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15
Q

What is the prognosis of gingival SCC in cats?

A

poor

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16
Q

What SCC tumours have a good prognosis in dogs?

A

rostral gingival SCC

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17
Q

What dog breeds suffer most often from oral fibrosarcoma?

A

retrievers

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18
Q

What are two characteristics of fibrosarcoma?

A

smooth

broad base

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19
Q

What sex of dog is more predisposed to oral malignant melanomas?

A

males

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20
Q

What 3 breeds of dog are predisposed to oral malignant melanomas?

A

spaniel
pug
poodle

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21
Q

What two places in the mouth are malignant melanomas commonly found?

A

gums

hard palate

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22
Q

Is bone invasion more likely with melanomas or fibrosarcomas?

A

fibrosarcomas

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23
Q

What is the most common tumour associated with the tongue of dogs and cats?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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24
Q

What region of the tongue do SCCs often arise?

A

in the area of the frenulum

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25
Q

Can radiotherapy be used to treat SCC on the tongue?

A

no

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26
Q

What is the prognosis for SCC on the tongue?

A

poor

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27
Q

What drug should be used to manage lingual SCC?

A

NSAIDs

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28
Q

What is the most common type of tumour seen on the tonsils?

A

SCC

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29
Q

What dog breeds are predisposed to tonsilar SCC?

A

Border Collies

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30
Q

What dog breeds are predisposed to gingival hyperplasia?

A

boxers

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31
Q

What is an oral tumour seen in young terriers which could be confused with osteosarcoma?

A

craniomandibular osteopathy?

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32
Q

How should craniomandibular osteopathy be treated?

A

NSAIDs

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33
Q

Are oesophageal tumours common in cats and dogs?

A

no

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34
Q

What worm can cause oesophageal tumours in cats and dogs?

A

spirocerca lupi

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35
Q

What are the four types of tumour which can be found int the oesophagus?

A

leiomyosarcoma
squamous cell carcinoma
fibrosarcoma
osteosarcoma

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36
Q

What pathology can occur due to the regurgitation caused by oesophageal tumours?

A

secondary aspiration pneumonia

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37
Q

What breeds of dog are predisposed to gastric adenocarcinoma?

A

Belgian Shepherd dogs

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38
Q

What two places in the stomach do adenocarcinomas often arise?

A

lesser curvature

pyloric antrum

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39
Q

What three places can gastric tumours metastasise to?

A

gastroduodenal lymph nodes
splenic lymph nodes
abdominal organs

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40
Q

What is the most common gastric tumour type in cats?

A

lymphoma

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41
Q

Are cats which get gastric tumours usually FeLV positive or negative?

A

negative

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42
Q

What are two clinical signs of cats with lymphoma?

A

vomiting

weight loss

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43
Q

Is Helicobacter thought to be a cause of gastric tumours?

A

not really

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44
Q

What can be caused if a gastric adenocarcinoma perforates the stomach wall?

A

peritonitis

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45
Q

Where do gastric adenocarcinomas most often arise in the stomach?

A

pyloric antrum

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46
Q

What appearance can the vomit caused by gastric tumours have?

A

‘coffee ground’

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47
Q

What gastric tumour may respond to chemotherapy?

A

lymphoma

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48
Q

Tumours in what region of the stomach are not appropriate for surgical resectomy?

A

lesser curvature

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49
Q

What antiemetic can be given at a symptomatic treatment of gastic tumour induced vomiting?

A

maropitant

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50
Q

What are two H2 antagonists which can be used to manage gastric tumours?

A

cimetidine

ranitidine

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51
Q

Are intestinal tumours more common in cats or dogs?

A

cats

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52
Q

What breed of cat has an increased risk of intestinal adenocarcinoma?

A

Siamese

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53
Q

In what part of the intestines do dogs usually get tumours?

A

distal 1/3 of colon and rectum

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54
Q

In what three regions of the intestines do cats usually get tumours?

A

ileocaecocolic junction
jejunum
ileum

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55
Q

What type of tumour is most common in a cats large intestine?

A

adenocarcinoma

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56
Q

What could leiomyomas and leiomyosarcomas in dogs be reclassified as?

A

Gastro-Intestinal Stromal Tumours (GIST)

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57
Q

Which lymphoma is recognised as diffuse, infiltrating disease?

A

low grade, epitheliotrophic T cell lymphoma

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58
Q

What are two clinical signs of large intestinal neoplasia?

A

constipation

tenesmus

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59
Q

What two drugs could low grade lymphoma in cats be treated with?

A

chlorambucil

prednisolone

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60
Q

What are the three types of perianal tumour?

A

perianal gland tumour
apocrine gland tumour of anal sac
apocrine gland tumour around anus

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61
Q

What breed of dog is predisposed to apocrine gland tumour?

A

English Cocker Spaniels

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62
Q

What three places can apocrine adenocarcinomas of the anal sac metastasise to?

A

lymph nodes
lungs
abdominal organs

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63
Q

What is a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with apocrine adenocarcinomas?

A

hypercalcaemia

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64
Q

What are two signs of hypercalcaemia?

A

polyuria

polydispsia

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65
Q

What are the two ways of treating apocrine adenocarcinomas of the anal sac and anus?

A

surgery

radiotherapy

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66
Q

What are the three morphological subtypes of liver tumour?

A

massive
nodular
diffuse

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67
Q

What type of liver tumours tend to be massive?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

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68
Q

What is the main differential for nodular lesions in the liver?

A

benign nodular hyperplasia

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69
Q

What two dog breeds are predisposed to tumours of the exocrine pancreas?

A

cocker spaniels

boxers

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70
Q

What pancreatic cells are associated with pancreatic tumours?

A

acinar cells

71
Q

What percentage of the liver parenchyma must be lost before clinical signs show in chronic liver disease?

A

75%

72
Q

What percentage of the livers blood supply comes from the hepatic portal vein?

A

75%

73
Q

What does hydropic degeneration involve?

A

excessive glycogen storage in the hepatocytes

74
Q

What are two reasons for hypdropic degeneration of the liver?

A

recently anaesthetised animal

hypoxia

75
Q

Where is the hepatocellular nucleus in hepatocytes experiencing hydropic degeneration?

A

central

76
Q

What three situations can cause hydropic degeneration?

A

diabetes mellitus
Cushings syndrome
corticosteroid administration

77
Q

What are three causes of hypoproteinaemia?

A

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
protein losing nephropathy
protein losing enteropathy

78
Q

Deficiency in what two substances causes ‘white liver disease’?

A

cobalt

vitamin B12

79
Q

What kind of liver necrosis is associated with Salmonellosis?

A

multifocal random necrosis

80
Q

What appearance can the liver take on in an animal with chronic right sided heart failure?

A

nutmeg

81
Q

What two problems can cause centrilobular necrosis?

A

chronic right sided heart failure

toxins

82
Q

What is hepatitis?

A

Inflammation of the liver

83
Q

What has to be lost for nodular regeneration of the liver to take place?

A

reticulin network

84
Q

What is two causes of centrilobular fibrosis?

A

chronic right sided heart failure

toxaemia

85
Q

What might cause diffuse/dissecting fibrosis in the liver?

A

paracetamol toxicity

86
Q

What is cirrhosis?

A

fibrosis, nodular regeneration and atrophy of the liver

87
Q

What is the name given to irregular dark red depressed areas which are commonly found in the liver of adult cows thought to be a developmental abnormality?

A

telangiectasis

88
Q

What breed of dog is predisposed to congenital portosystemic shunt?

A

deerhounds

89
Q

What two things can be seen in the mucous membranes of a dog with leptospirosis?

A

icterus

haemorrhages

90
Q

What stain can be used to detect Leptospira in the liver?

A

silver stain

91
Q

How old are puppies usually which get infectious canine hepatitis?

A

<12 weeks old

92
Q

In what two tissues does canine adenovirus grow?

A

hepatocytes

vascular endothelium

93
Q

What is a sign of recovery from canine adenovirus?

A

corneal oedema

94
Q

What is usually the outcome of canine adenovirus infection?

A

death

95
Q

Is the dry form of FIP a good or bad outcome of the disease?

A

good

96
Q

What hypersensitivity is the wet form of FIP related to?

A

type III hypersensitivity

97
Q

Do cattle get clinical signs of fasciolosis?

A

rarely

98
Q

What can blue green algae cause?

A

massive hepatic necrosis

99
Q

What colour does the liver appear in a sheep with copper toxicity?

A

yellow-green

100
Q

What breed of dog is associated with copper toxicity?

A

Bedlington terrier

101
Q

What can be caused in pigs with deficiency in vitamin E and selenium if they are given too much iron dextran?

A

iron dextran toxicity- massive liver necrosis

102
Q

What is the main indication of ragwort poisoning on histology of the liver?

A

megalocytosis of hepatocytes

103
Q

What does primary photosensitisation involve?

A

photodynamic agents not metabolised by the liver are deposited on the skin

104
Q

What is an example of a toxin associated with primary photosensitisation?

A

toxin in St John’s Wort

105
Q

What does secondary photosensitisation involve?

A

liver damage leads to alterations to metabolism which means that photosensitive substances are made

106
Q

What three species do not have a gall bladder?

A

horses
rats
camels

107
Q

What can obstruction of the bile duct cause in the kidney?

A

degeneration of tubules

108
Q

How do the kidneys appear in a case of bile duct obstruction?

A

dark

109
Q

How can cystic mucinous hyperplasia of mucus producing glands cause obstruction of the bile duct?

A

mucus rich gelatinous material builds up in the bile duct

110
Q

What does the gall bladder look like on ultrasound with cystic mucinous hyperplasia of mucus producing glands in the gall bladder?

A

star shaped (like a orange slice)

111
Q

In what animals is cholangiohepatitis most commonly seen?

A

middle-aged cats

112
Q

What may cause cholangiohepatitis?

A

ascending bacterial infection from the gut

113
Q

What are three signs of a German Shepherd dog with pancreatitis?

A

weight loss
diarrhoea with rancid smell
ravenous appetite

114
Q

What is the suggested pathology behind acute necrotising pancreatitis?

A

pancreatic enzymes activated in the acinar cells or the ducts or accessing the parenchyma from ruptured ducts

115
Q

Can acute pancreatitis be fatal?

A

yes

116
Q

What three things done to treat chronis pancreatitis?

A

administer pancreatic enzymes
avoid high fibre
avoid high fat

117
Q

What two breeds of dog are predisposed to pancreatic acinar atrophy of juvenile onset?

A

German Shepherd dogs

rough Coated Collies

118
Q

What cells cause the destruction of pancreatic acinar atrophy of juvenile onset?

A

CD8+ T cells

119
Q

What can be an effect of insulinoma?

A

hypoglycaemia because of the excessive insulin production

120
Q

What three factors can increase the half life of gut isoenzyme ALP?

A

Cushings disease
stress
corticosteroids

121
Q

What are three clinical symptoms of Cushings disease?

A

polydipsia
polyuria
polyphagia

122
Q

What are three conditions where low blood glucose may be seen in association with the liver?

A

fulminant acute hepatic necrosis
congenital portosystemic shunt
large hepatic tumours

123
Q

Reduction of what vitamin can lead to reduction in coagulation factors?

A

K

124
Q

What disease do cats usually get instead of disease of the liver parenchyma?

A

choliangitis

125
Q

What three factors can lead to a reduction in vitamin K?

A

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
Biliary obstruction
Inflammatory Bowel Disease

126
Q

Is cholesterol high or low in cholestatic disease?

A

high

127
Q

Is cholesterol high or low in hepatocellular disease?

A

low

128
Q

Is the test for ammonia or bile acids more sensitive when testing for portosystemic shunt?

A

bile salts

129
Q

What does the bile acid stimulation test involve?

A

measuring the bile acids in the blood 2 hours before and after feeding the animal a fatty meal

130
Q

What is bilirubin converted into in the intestines?

A

urobilinogen

131
Q

What two ways can urobilinogen be excreted?

A

in the faeces

some absorbed from the GI tract and excreted in urine

132
Q

What three substances found in the urine can indicate a problem with the liver?

A

bilirubin
urobilinogen
urates

133
Q

What are the two sorts of assays for testing for pancreatic insufficiency?

A

catalytic assay

immunoassay

134
Q

What two tests would you run on a dog with suspected pancreatitis?

A

serum lipase test

cPLI

135
Q

Can catalytic tests test how much inactive precursor enzyme there is in the blood?

A

no

136
Q

Is the DGGR lipase test sensitive for both cats and dogs?

A

yes

137
Q

Is the PLI or TLI more sensitive and specific for pancreatitis?

A

PLI

138
Q

Are there any good tests for chronic pancreatitis?

A

no

139
Q

What is the fluid in the abdomen of animals with pancreatitis?

A

exudate

140
Q

What characteristics of the abdominal fluid indicate pancreatitis?

A

increased lipase

normal bilirubin and urea

141
Q

Would you test for folate and vitamin B12 in acute or chronic GI disease?

A

chronic

142
Q

Where in the intestines is folate absorbed?

A

jejunum

143
Q

Where in the intestines is vitamin B12 absorbed?

A

ileum

144
Q

What diet can lead to low folate?

A

raw food diet for dogs

145
Q

What three pathologies can cause a reduction in vitamin B12?

A

problems with the ileum
exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
dysbiosis

146
Q

Why can dysbiosis cause a reduction in the levels of vitamin B12 in the blood?

A

because bacteria bind vitamin B12

147
Q

In what two diseases would you expect to see reduced folate?

A

severe inflammatory bowel disease

tumour

148
Q

Why can using creatinine kinase not always distinguish a muscle disease from liver disease if AST is also high?

A

AST remains high for as much longer than CK

149
Q

What is a good marker of colostrum intake in calves?

A

GGT

150
Q

In foals of what age will have high levels of GGT?

A

2-4 weeks

151
Q

Why is the plasma of horses yellow?

A

because they have very high amounts of bilirubin

152
Q

Why does unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin increase in horses in fasting?

A

because hepatocytes reduce their uptake of unconjugated bilirubin so that they can concentrate on free fatty acid production

153
Q

Is the bile acid stimulation test used for horses and why?

A

no, because they have no gall bladder

154
Q

Are bile acid stimulation tests used in cattle?

A

not really

155
Q

What three things are increased in equine metabolic syndrome?

A

GGT
NEFA
leptin

156
Q

To measure endogenous ACTH in a horse what must blood be collected in?

A

EDTA tube

157
Q

What disease in horses is associated with increased ACTH?

A

PPID

158
Q

Why can increased respiration be associated with GI disease in horses?

A

because bicarbonate may be being lost into the GI tract leading to metabolic acidosis and respiratory compensation

159
Q

What enzyme may increase in a horse with GI disease e.g. colic and why?

A

ALP, because there is an intestinal isoenzyme

160
Q

In horses, does transudate or exudate form secondary to liver disease?

A

transudate

161
Q

What are two characteristics of transudate in liver disease?

A

low protein

low cells

162
Q

If liver disease or GI disease has an infectious cause, does transudate or exudate form?

A

exudate

163
Q

What are two characteristics of exudate?

A

high protein

high cells

164
Q

What test can be used to test for failure of passive transfer?

A

zinc sulfate turbidity test

165
Q

What is the number range for zinc sulfate turbidity test?

A

0-2

166
Q

What should the chloride concentration of a cows rumen be?

A

<30 mmol/L

167
Q

What three things does the chloride above 30mmol/L indicate?

A

rumen stasis
reflux of abomasal contents
intestinal obstruction

168
Q

Does lactic acidosis lead to increased chloride in the rumen?

A

no

169
Q

Why is metabolic alkalosis cause in cattle when chloride is sequestered to the rumen?

A

because this leads to an increase in bicarbonate in the blood

170
Q

In lactic acidosis, is the level of bicarbonate in the blood high or low?

A

low

171
Q

What is the cause of low chloride in the blood of the cow (because of sequestration to the rumen)?

A

LDA

172
Q

What is cause in the urine in cattle with LDA?

A

paradoxial acid urine

173
Q

Is pancreatitis common in farm animals?

A

no

174
Q

Which large animal can get pancreatitis?

A

horses

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