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General Diagnosis Flashcards

1
Q

What are the components of the health history?

A

Chief Complaint
Past health history
Personal/Social History
ROS

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2
Q

What is OPQRST?

A 
Attributes of a symptom
Onset
Palliative/Provoking
Quality
Radiation/Referral
Site/Setting/Severity
Timing
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3
Q

What are key questions to ask during the past health history?

A 
Serious illnesses
Previous injuries
Hospitalizations
Surgeries
Medication
Allergies
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4
Q

What are the major disorders you’re looking for in the family health history?

A

Cardiovascular disease
Diabetes
Stroke
Cancer

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5
Q

Key questions in the personal/social history?

A 
Marital status
Occupation
Diet
Exercise
Bowel/Urinary patterns
Sleep
Alcohol, Tobacco, and Drug use
Stress
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6
Q

Components of CAGE?

A

Cutting down
Annoyed by others criticism
Guilty feelings
Eye openers

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7
Q

What is normal oral temp?

A

98.6F

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8
Q

What is normal Rectal/Tympanic temp?

A

99.6F

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9
Q

What is normal Axilla temp?

A

97.6F

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10
Q

What is generally considered a normal range for temperature?

A

96-99.5F

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11
Q

What is a normal adult pulse?

A

60-100

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12
Q

What is a normal newborn pulse?

A

120-160

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13
Q

What is a normal elderly pulse?

A

70-80

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14
Q

What is a normal adult respiratory rate?

A

14-18

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15
Q

What is a normal newborn respiratory rate?

A

44

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16
Q

What is considered normal blood pressure range?

A

90-120/60-80

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17
Q

What are Korotkoff Sounds?

A

Low pitched sounds produced by turbulent blood flow in arteries

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18
Q

What can a difference of 10-15mmHg indicate?

A

Arterial occlusion on the side of decreased pressure

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19
Q

True or False: Blood pressure readings are generally 20% lower in the lower extremities?

A

False. They are 20% higher.

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20
Q

What does Barre-Lieou test and how is it performed?

A

VBI

Patient is seated while the patient rotates the head maximally from side to side

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21
Q

What does DeKleyn’s test and how is it performed?

A

VBI

Patient supine, the patient rotates and then extends the head off the table then turns to each side for 15-45 seconds

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22
Q

What does Hallpike test and how is it performed?

A

VBI

Patient supine with head extended off the table, examiner brings the head into extension, rotation, and lateral flexion

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23
Q

What does Hautant’s test for and how is it performed?

A

VBI
Patient seated, arm are extended forward to shoulder level with the hands supinated. Maintain position for a few seconds. Patient then closes the eyes, rotates, and hyper extends the neck to one side. Repeat on the opposite side

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24
Q

What does Underberg test and how is it performed?

A

VBI
Patient stands with eyes open, arms at side, feet close together. They close eyes, supinate hands, then extend and rotate the head to one side. Once in that position they march in place

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25
Q

What is Adie’s Pupil?

A

Sluggish pupillary reaction that is unilateral, caused by parasympathetic lesion of CN3

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26
Q

What is anisocoria?

A

Unequal pupil size

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27
Q

What is Argyll Robertson?

A

Bilaterally small and irregular pupils that accommodate but do not react to light

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28
Q

What condition is Argyll Robertson commonly seen with?

A

Syphilis

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29
Q

What is Arroyo Sign? What condition is it commonly seen with?

A

Sluggish pupillary reaction due to hypo-adrenalism

Addison’s Disease

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30
Q

What are cataracts?

A

Opacities in the lens, commonly seen with diabetes and in the elderly. Also has an absent red light reflex

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31
Q

What is a chalazion?

A

Infection of the meibomian gland, causing a nodule which points inside the lid

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32
Q

What does pale conjunctive indicate?

A

Anemia

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33
Q

What is corneal arcus?

A

Grayish opaque ring around the cornea

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34
Q

What is ectropion?

A

Lid turned outward

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35
Q

What is exophthalmosis?

A

Lid lag/failure to cover the eyeball

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36
Q

What can exophtalmosis indicate when it’s bilateral? Unilateral?

A

Graves’ Disease

Tumor

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37
Q

What pathology of the eye is crescent sign commonly seen with?

A

Glaucoma

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38
Q

What is a hordeolum also known as?

A

A sty

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39
Q

What are the symptoms of Horner’s Syndrome?

A

Ptosis, Miosis, and Anhydrosis on the same side

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40
Q

What pathology will show with cotton wool exudates, flame hemorrhages, and copper wire deformity?

A

Hypertensive retinopathy

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41
Q

What pathology is associated with internal opthalmoplegia?

A

Multiple sclerosis

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42
Q

What pathology is iritis commonly seen with?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

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43
Q

What is mydriasis?

A

Dilated and fixed pupils (seen with anti cholinergic drugs)

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44
Q

What is a pinquecula?

A

A yellowish triangular nodule in the bulbar conjunctiva that indicates aging

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45
Q

What pathology is associated with blue sclera?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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46
Q

What does emmetropia mean?

A

Normal vision

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47
Q

What is the clinical term for nearsighted?

A

Myopia

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48
Q

What is the clinical term for farsighted?

A

Hyperopia

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49
Q

What CN’s does direct light reflex test?

A

2 and 3

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50
Q

What CN’s does consensual light reflex test?

A

2 and 3

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51
Q

What CN’s does Accommodation test?

A

2 and 3

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52
Q

What CN’s are tested by the cardinal fields of gaze?

A

3, 4, and 6

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53
Q

Acoustic neuroma affects which cranial nerve?

A

8

54
Q

What type of pathology is acute mastoiditis?

A

Bacterial infection

55
Q

What is the clinical name for swimmer’s ear?

A

Acute Otitis Externa

56
Q

What symptoms characterize Meniere’s Disease?

A

Recurrent prostrating vertigo, sensory hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness in the ear

57
Q

What is persbycussis?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss that occurs in people as they age and they may be affected by genetic or acquired factors

58
Q

Which part of the ear is affected by Otitis Media?

A

Middle ear

59
Q

What finding does a lateralization to the involved ear during a Weber test indicate?

A

Conductive hearing loss

60
Q

What results are “normal” for Rinne Test?

A

Acoustic conduction > Bone conduction

61
Q

What finding does a lateralization to the uninvolved ear during a Weber test indicate?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

62
Q

What is the clinical term for red sores at the corner of the mouth caused by Riboflavin deficiency?

A

Cheilosis or Angular Stomatitis

63
Q

A deficiency of what compound(s) cause the tongue to appear smooth and glossy?

A

B12 or iron

64
Q

What is the clinical term for thick white fungal patches on the tongue that can easily be scraped off?

A

Candidiasis or Thrush

65
Q

What type of lesion is leukoplakia?

A

Pre-cancerous

66
Q

When does acromegaly typically begin?

A

Middle age

67
Q

When does gigantism present?

A

Prior to skeletal maturation

68
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

A

Grave’s disease

69
Q

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism?

A

Hashimoto’s

70
Q

What are some classic symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

A 
Weight loss with increased appetite
Irritable/nervous
Heat intolerant
Moist skin
Fine hair
Possible neck swelling due to goiter
71
Q

What are some classic symptoms of hypothyroidism?

A 
Weight gain with decreased appetite
Depression, weakness, and fatigue
Intolerance to cold
Coarse, dry hair, and skin
Loss of lateral 1/3 of eyebrows
72
Q

What pathologies are associated with barrel chest?

A

COPD and cystic fibrosis

73
Q

What is Biot’s Breathing?

A

Groups of quick shallow inspirations, followed by irregular periods of apnea with no pattern

74
Q

What is Cheyne Stokes Respiration?

A

Breathing characterized by alternation periods of apnea and hyperpnea

75
Q

What is Kussmaul’s Breathing?

A

First rapid and shallow but as the metabolic acidosis worsens, breathing gradually becomes deep, slow, labored, and gasping

76
Q

What pathology are splinter hemorrhages commonly seen with?

A

Strep organisms

77
Q

What is paronychia?

A

Inflammation of the nail fold near the the cuticle

78
Q

What is Kiolonychia and what can it indicate?

A

Spoon nail

Iron deficiency anemia

79
Q

What does it indicate if vibration is increased during tactile fremitus?

A

Pneumonia

80
Q

What does is indicate if tactile fremitus is decreased with air?

A

Emphysema or pneumothorax

81
Q

What pathologies are associated with hyperresonant lung percussion?

A

Emphysema or pneumothorax

82
Q

What pathologies are associated with dull lung percussion?

A

Pneumonia or atelectasis

83
Q

What is the clinical term for small clicking, bubbling, or rattling sounds in the lung?

A

Rates

84
Q

What is the clinical term for breath sounds that resemble snoring?

A

Ronchi

85
Q

What is the clinical term for a wheeze-like sound heard upon aspiration?

A

Strider

86
Q

What is the clinical term for a high pitched sound produced on exhalation?

A

Wheeze

87
Q

What do rales indicate?

A

Bronchitis

88
Q

What do ronchi indicate?

A

Bronchiectasis

89
Q

What do wheezes indicate?

A

Asthma in young people

Emphysema in old people

90
Q

What are some signs of lobar pneumonia?

A

Productive (rusty brown) cough for about 10 days and fever

91
Q

What are some symptoms of Friedlander’s Pneumonia?

A

Productive red jelly sputum cause by Klebsiella pneumonia

92
Q

What patient population is most likely to experience Pneumocystis Carinii?

A

AIDS patients

93
Q

What causes tuberculosis?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

94
Q

What are the symptoms of pleurisy?

A

Stabbing chest pain worsened by respiration. Dry non-productive cough. Decreased excursion and fremitus. Dull with percussion.

95
Q

What is a pneumothorax?

A

A ruptured lung causing air to be trapped in the pleural space

96
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

Collapse of the lung that’s usually the result of bronchial obstruction due to a mucous plug

97
Q

What is the clinical term for the destruction of elastic pulmonary connective tissue that results in permanent dilation of the alveolar air sacs?

A

Emphysema

98
Q

What causes emphysema?

A

Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency

99
Q

What population is most heavily affected by sarcoidosis?

A

African Americans

100
Q

Where does hodgkin’s commonly spread to?

A

The spleen

101
Q

What does a bounding pulse indicate?

A

Exercise, anxiety, fever, or hyperparathyroidism

102
Q

What does a weak or th ready pulse indicate?

A

Hypovolemia
Aortic stenosis
Congestive Heart Failure

103
Q

What does a pulse with alternating amplitudes indicate?

A

Left ventricular failure

104
Q

What does pulses bisferiens indicate?

A

Aortic regurgitation or aortic stenosis

105
Q

What does a paradoxical pulse indicate?

A

COPD
Bronchial asthma
Emphysema
Pericardial effusion

106
Q

What causes a water hammer pulse?

A

Aortic insufficiency

107
Q

What occurs at S1?

A

Closure of AV valves (mitral and tricuspid)

108
Q

What occurs at S2?

A

Closure of semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic)

109
Q

What does S3 indicate?

A

Normal in children, young adults, and athletes, but over 40 it can indicate CHF

110
Q

What does S4 indicate?

A

Stiff ventricular myocardium, normal in children, young adults, and athletes

111
Q

What does a low pitch murmur indicate?

A

Stenosis

112
Q

What part of the stethoscope is best suited for auscultating valve stenosis?

A

Bell

113
Q

What does a high pitched murmur indicate?

A

Regurgitation

114
Q

What part of the stethoscope is best suited for auscultation of regurgitation?

A

Diaphragm

115
Q

What is the heart murmur mnemonic?

A

ARMS & PRTS

116
Q

What comprises the tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Dextraposition of the aorta
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Interventricular septal defect
Pulmonic stenosis

117
Q

What is the most common cause of Left Sided Heart Failure?

A

Hypertension

118
Q

What is the most common cause of right sided heart failure?

A

Left sided heart failure

119
Q

What is the P wave?

A

Normal atrial depolarization

120
Q

What is the QRS complex?

A

Depolarization of the ventricles and repolarization of the atria

121
Q

What is the T wave?

A

Repolarization of the ventricles

122
Q

What is the U wave?

A

Repolarization of the papillary muscles

123
Q

What is Mallory Weiss Syndrome?

A

Coughing, tearing esophageal blood vessels, and hematemesis with palmar rash due to bile salts

124
Q

What is Wernicke’s Korsakoff Syndrome?

A

Thiamin deficiency from alcoholism that leads to dementia

125
Q

What is the term for Thiamin deficiency without alcoholism?

A

Beri Beri

126
Q

What causes increases in direct/conjugated bilirubin?

A

Duct obstruction, hepatic disease, and pancreatic cancer

127
Q

What causes an increase in indirect or unconjugated bilirubin?

A

Hemolytic disease, drugs, and spleen disorders

128
Q

How is Hep A transmitted?

A

Fecal/oral

129
Q

How is Hep B transmitted?

A

Dirty needles and sexual contact

130
Q

How is Hep C transmitted?

A

Blood transfusions

131
Q

What type of Hepatitis is most likely to become liver cancer?

A

Hep B

132
Q

What organ most commonly refers pain to the right shoulder?

A

Gallbladder

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