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Command Assessment > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

0
Q

Which hydraulic system runs normal brakes?

A

Green

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1
Q

What is the difference between SAT and TAT?

A

SAT - Static air temp

TAT - Total air temp (measured in pitot and usually higher due to friction of flowing air).

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2
Q

Do we manually have to select auto brakes?

A

No

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3
Q

As anti skid available on the alternate brakes?

A

Normally yes, but it depends what caused the alternate braking.

Anti skid may be deactivated either,
Electronically - A/SKID NW STRG off, power failure or BCSU failure.
Hydraulically - G&Y low rp or brakes supplied by acc pressure only.

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4
Q

Above what speed is anti skid available?

A

20 kts GS

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5
Q

Name the four levels of braking depending on failures.

A

Normal
Alternate with anti skid
Alternate without anti skid
Park brake

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6
Q

How is anti skid downgraded on the alternate system?

A

If it’s available, it’s not down graded, the BCSU operates it via a different valve.

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7
Q

Is auto brake available on alternate braking?

A

No

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8
Q

If ATC tell you on approach that braking is poor/poor/poor what would you do?

A

Hold until conditions improve.
Check landing perf in LPC.
Check x-wind limitations in QRH-IFL.
Consider suitable diversion airfields.

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9
Q

Double engine failure. What are your initial actions, where would you go, how far could you reach?

A

ENG MODE SEL - IGN,
Thrust levers - IDLE,
Pitch - 3 deg ND for 300 kts (relight speed)
2 nm per 1000’
6 deg final approach glide slope
Try yellow electric pump to help lower the gear (check hydraulic page)

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10
Q

What’s the difference between OPEN CLB and CLB?

A

OPEN CLB disregards all constraints up to FCU alt.

CLB will aim to comply with FMGC constraints.

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11
Q

When is the PTU inhibited?

A

Aircraft is on the ground, and either,
The parking brake is set or the NWS steering is in tow position and,
One eng master is on and the other is off.

Also within 40 seconds of cargo door operation.

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12
Q

Which systems have hydraulic priority and why?

A

Flight controls!

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13
Q

What are the turbulence penetration speeds? Is there a difference between the a319 and the a320?

A

250kts below FL200
275kts above FL200
M0.76 above FL320

No difference

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14
Q

Actions in turbulence…

A

Select turbulence speed.
Seat belt signs ON.
Keep autopilot ON.
Consider auto thrust OFF (if large fluctuations).
Consider descent.
Brief CC (NITS style - Consider cancelling service etc).
Consider “cabin crew, be seated immediately” PA.

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15
Q

You are in CLB/ALT* and you select further climb, what happens?

A

Mode reverts to VS

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16
Q

What are the problems with using VS at high altitude?

A

VS guidance has priority over speed guidance, therefore FMGC may reduce speed to increase VS, leading to a low speed event.

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17
Q

What are the memory items?

A 
Crew incap, 
emergency descent, 
EGPWS, 
unreliable airspeed, 
loss of braking, 
stall recovery, 
stall warning at lift off, 
TCAS, 
Windshear, 
Windshear ahead.
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18
Q

Do we correct Vapp for gusts? what is the maximum correction?

A

Yes.

In gusts over 20kts Vapp should be at least vls +5kts.
It should be no more than vls +15kts.

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19
Q

Can you re-engage a cb in flight which had tripped by itself?

A

No, unless as last resort for safety of flight, and then only once.

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20
Q

Which cb’s can you never re-engage?

A

Fuel pumps of any tank.

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21
Q

What level of RNAV certification does Easyjet have? Explain those levels.

A

RNAV1 - PRNAV - terminal airspace below MFA - 1NM
RNAV5 - BRNAV - enroute and terminal airspace above MFA - 5NM
RNP APCH - RNAV (GNSS/GPS) - RNAV final appr with straight segments only - 0.3NM

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22
Q

What is the limitation for the 2 primary altimeters for RNAV airspace?

A

Within 200’ of each other.

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23
Q

What level of turbulence should you report?

A

OMA states, just report to ATC ASAP.

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24
Q

On what 3 occasions is a NAV ACCURACY check required?

A

Not required if GPS PRIMARY is available.

IRS only navigation.
Low NAV accuracy on PROG page.
NAV accuracy downgrade on MCDU.

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25
Q

What is the limit for a NAV accuracy check?

A

Error of 3 nm, FM position unreliable.

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26
Q

Where do you find the effect of downgraded equipment at an airfield?

A

OMA 8.1.3.11

27
Q

Can you start an approach with RVR’s below limits?

A

Yes, but you may not continue past 1000’ above TDZE, unless RVR has improved above minima.

28
Q

What are the max crosswind limits for take off and landing? What about a narrow runway?

A

38 kts inc gusts.

Narrow - dry 38 kts, wet - 33 kts, contaminated - 10 kts.

29
Q

Can the aircraft auto land on a narrow runway?

A

No

30
Q

Can the aircraft land on a runway which has been cleared to a width less than 45m?

A

Yes, this is not classed as a narrow runway.

31
Q

Crew health, what time is required after local, general, alcohol, deep sea diving, blood donation?

A 
24 hrs
48 hrs
10 hrs (less than 5 units in the 14 hrs preceding the 10 hr ban)
48 hrs
24 hrs
32
Q

Explain landing minima if RVRs are unavailable.

A

Met VIS can be converted to RVR using the table in ONA 8.1.3.10

Only to be used for landing.
If RVR>800m.
Not used when RVR reported.

33
Q

Can you carry firearms in the cabin? In the hold? What are the limitations?

A

Cabin - UK police/protection officers when carrying an escorted pax, Italian and Spanish police on domestic flights.

Hold - sporting firearms and ammo, ammo not loose and max 5 kg.

Requirements in OMA 9.2

34
Q

What is IRS drift? Where do you find the tolerances?

A

Position error of the IRS position.

OMB 2.3.25.2 shutdown.

35
Q

When so you do a rapid/full align of the IRS? When do you consider the IRS unserviceable?

A

Rapid align when residual GS > 5 kts
Full align on first flight of the day or flight without GPS and poor NAV coverage.

Failed if residual GS > 15 kts after 2 flights or if > 21 kts ever.

36
Q

What are the flight instrument tolerances?

A

PFDs within 20 ft of each other, 25 ft of airfield elev, and 100 ft ISIS.

37
Q

Why following an RA do you turn off the flight directors?

A

To ensure auto thrust speed mode.

To avoid confusion between FD orders and TCAS aural and VSI orders.

38
Q

What is the mode reversion if NAV is lost?

A

HDG

39
Q

When you need to make cold temp corrections?

A

< -10 C

40
Q

Do you need to file an ASR for a GA?

A

Yes

41
Q

You are flying an approach in LVPs. You have a failure at 2000’. Can you continue? When must you go around?

A

Continue if, by 1,000 feet:

ECAM (check-list items) complete.
RVR at least equal to that required for downgrade.
Briefing updated to include new procedure & DH ref. the downgrade.
Decision to downgrade is completed by 1,000 feet above TDZE.

42
Q

What must you go around for below 1000ft in LVPs?

A 
Alpha floor activation.
Loss of AP - calvary charge.
Downgrade - triple click.
Amber caution - single chime.
Engine failure.
43
Q

Can we carry children under 14? Requirements?

A

Yes, if accompanied by passenger 16 or above.

Max ten under 14s to each passenger 16 or above.

44
Q

What are the stability es when in alternate law?

A

Load factor limitation - similar to normal law.

High speed stability - nose up demand after Vmo/Mmo

Low speed stability - nose down demand 5-10 before Vsw, replaces alpha prot.

45
Q

Why in alternate law is the aircraft put into direct law when the gear is extended?

A

Only way to simply the flare mode. Instead of a nose down input input at 50 ft you simply get a direct stick to elevator relationship.

46
Q

On an LVP approach below 1000 ft, explain what happens to the aircraft.

A

800 ft - landing inhibit
700 ft - FMGC data lock (ILS CRS, freq and perf data)
500 ft - stable call
400 ft - Land FMA (loc and GS are active and one RA available)
350 ft - if no Land seen, go around.
200 ft - Autoland light becomes active
100 ft - Alert height. Continue for single failures except Autoland light.
40 ft - Flare. Go around if not seen.
30 ft - thrust idle.
10 ft - retard call.
Touchdown - Rollout on FMA.

47
Q

Which slats have anti ice?

A

Outboard (3,4,5)

48
Q

When does a cabin search apply?

A 
Cold aircraft. 
UK turnarounds.
Russian turnarounds.
Israel turnarounds.
Jordanian turnarounds.
49
Q

When does crew inexperience end?

A

FO - 100 hrs and 50 sectors within 120 day consolidation period.

Capt - 100 hrs and 50 sectors within 120 days plus successful completion of first sim check.

50
Q

What are the pitch limits for landing on the a319/a/320 and when should pitch be called?

A

A319 - 15.5nu (13.9 gear compressed)
A320 - 13.5 (11.7 gear compressed)

Pitch call at 10 NU

51
Q

Landing distance procedures. When should you use ‘without reverse’?

A

When calculating the IFLD on the LPC as it defaults to max reverse on both wet and dry runways

52
Q

What multiple failures are you allowed to combine?

A

None if using the QRH.

as many as you like on the LPC.

53
Q

IFLD on the LPC. On a damp runway, what selection do you apply for take off, landing-dispatch and landing-inflight?

A

Take off - dry
Landing dispatch - wet
Landing inflight - good

54
Q

What corrections can you make to Vapp in normal, gusty or icy conditions?

A

Normal - Vapp
Gusty - Vapp + 5-15 kts
Icy - Vapp + 5 flap full
Icy - Vapp + 10 flap 3

55
Q

IFLD using the LPC for a SLIPPERY WHEN WET runway. What selection do you apply in the LPC for Takeoff, Landing-Dispatch & Landing-InFlight?

A

Take-off: ICY
Landing (Dispatch) STANDING WATER
Landing (In-Flight) MEDIUM

56
Q

When can you continue with an EGPWS warning?

A

Daylight conditions, when terrain and obstacles are in sight, alert may be considered cautionary.

57
Q

What is the max engine restart altitude?

A

FL250

58
Q

What is the Easyjet ops freq?

A

131.4 (discontinued?)

59
Q

What is the min RVR for a straight in approach?

A

800m

60
Q

What are the min VIS/ceiling requirements for a visual approach?

A

2500 ft ceiling

5 km VIS

61
Q

Talk me through a visual approach from downwind.

A 
Activate approach.
FDs off. Bird on.
Abeam threshold time 45 s +/- wind for a 1500 ft circuit.
Turn base 30 deg max bank.
Descend flap 2, s speed.
Configure and turn final as normal.
62
Q

When does the landing gear safety valve operate?

A

> 260 kts

Automatically cuts off hydraulics to the gear.

63
Q

Explain FDP considerations of delayed reports.

A

4 hrs. Most limiting FDP & FDP/DP begins at orig report time + 4hrs.

64
Q

What distance and height should thunderstorms be avoided by?

A

20nm

5000 ft but avoid if possible

Command Assessment (8 decks)

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