Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Interview Technical Questions > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

What conditions reduce hold over time the quickest

A

Freezing rain, freezing fog, snow, high velocity jet blast, aircraft skin below outside temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a QDM

A

A magnetic heading to a station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why climb at constant IAS then swap for Mach

A

Due to speed of sound differences-

lower = higher speed of sound, so IAS limiting

Higher = Mach due to lower speed of sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Air pressure, density and temp with alt

A

All decrease, so does IAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Purpose of winglets

A

Reduce induced drag which lowers fuel consumption, better for the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do swept wings work

A

Delay start of supersonic flow by introducing spanwise flow to reduce acceleration of air over the wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Disadvantage of swept wings

A

Left nearer the stalls at slow speeds as higher AOA. Wing tip stall first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happens if wing tips stall first

A

Lose aileron control at the onset of the stall, nose up pitching moment due to centre of pressure moving towards LE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do slats work

A

Extra lift at low speeds, increase surface area and camber of wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is spanwise flow

A

The movement of air from high pressure beneath wing to low pressure above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Effects of spanwise flow

A

-reduced aileron efficiency
-reversed spanwise flow
-wing tip vortices
-disturbed airflow = wing tip stall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Mcrit

A

lowest Mach number at which the airflow over any part of the aircraft reaches the speed of sound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Role of spoilers

A

Reduce lift, air brakes, roll devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where does a swept wing stall first

A

Wing tips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What to use to reduce wing tip stall

A

-Vortex generators
-stall fence
-stall strip
-stick shaker/warner, limiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the INS

A

A navigation device that use motion sensors (accelerometers), rotation sensors (gyro) and a computer to calculate position, orientation and velocity by dead reckoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Shortest distance on earth shown by what

A

Great circle distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is RNAV

A

Navigation method allowing operation on a flight path within coverage of ground or space based nav aids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is RNP

A

Requirement for keeping a stated level of accuracy and equipment, 95% of time, RNP forms PBN and adds to the accuracy standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

4 requirements for operating in RVSM

A
  1. Two primary altimeter systems (within 200ft)
  2. One automatic altitude control system
  3. One altitude altering system
  4. Transponder that can be connected to altitude measurement system in use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Aircraft spacing on take off

A

Heavy- 2 mins (same position or parallel runway < 760m)

Heavy- 3 mins (intermediate point)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Vmca

A

Lowest speed that a multi engine aircraft can fly and maintain heading following critical engine failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Vmcg

A

Minimum speed for control on the ground, maintaining directional control with rudder after critical engine failure

Less than or equal to 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How many climb segments are there

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

1st climb segment and config

A

35ft (screen height) to gear retract

TO power, flaps and gear down, positive roc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

2nd climb segment and config

A

Gear retraction to acceleration alt (min 400ft, max 1000ftagl)

Gear up, V2, 2.4% climb rate, flaps down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

3rd climb segment and config

A

Acceleration alt to flap retraction

Gear up, V2, 1.2% gradient, flaps up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

4th climb segment and config

A

Flap retraction to 1500ft

Gear up, flap up, MCT, 1.2% gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

V1

A

Take of decision speed

Highest speed that take off can be aborted following a critical failure

Lowest speed that take off continues following engine failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

V2

A

Take off safety speed (TOSS)

Speed at which aircraft is controllable and maintain a climb of 200ft with OEI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Rough estimate for critical AOA cambered wing

A

16degs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is bypass ratio

A

Ratio between mass flow of bypass stream flow mass flow entering core

33
Q

Most thrust from which engine flow?

A

Bypass flow

34
Q

Do jets have critical engines

A

No, but crosswinds can cause upwind engine to be more critical (less rudder authority)

35
Q

What is a turbo charger

A

Turbine driven induction device which increases internal combustion efficiency by forcing extra compressed air into the combustion chamber

36
Q

What is a super charger

A

Air compressor that increases the pressure or density of air supplied. More oxygen, more fuel burnt, more power output

37
Q

2 stroke v 4 stroke

A

2 revs for one power stroke (more torque)

4 revs for one power stroke

38
Q

Critical engine for clockwise propeller when viewed behind

A

Left engine

39
Q

How to calculate magnetic headings given true and variation

A

C D M V T

Cadburys dairy milk very tasty

40
Q

Types of flaps

A

Plain, slotted, fowler, double slotted, split, Zat

41
Q

How does an altimeter work

A

Partially evacuated capsule in case, static pressure fed into the case.

Static pressure decreases with alt, case expands. Moves mechanisms. Opposite decent

42
Q

How does a VSI work

A

Uses differential pressure. Metering valve, casing and diaphragm

Rate of static pressure change measured, case pressure remains the same. Diaphragm contracts, showing climb

43
Q

How does an ASI work

A

Works from a pitot static system. Dynamic pressure used to indicate reading

44
Q

Information transmitted from mode S transponder

A

Squawk code, altitude, aircraft ID

45
Q

Fly by wire principle

A

Pilot moves control, which turns into an electrical signal which is interpreted by computers and moves flight control surface

46
Q

Where to find visibility requirements for landing minima

A

Pan Ops

47
Q

Advection fog

A

Warm moist air flows across colder surface, cooling and condensing air

48
Q

What should thunderstorms be avoided by

A

5000ft vertically, 20nm laterally

49
Q

What is rime ice

A

Small, supercooled water droplets which freeze on contact with a surface temp below freezing

50
Q

Cloud base height calculate

A

(Temp - dew point) x 400

51
Q

MEA

A

Minimum en route altitude to ensure nav aids received, comms, obstacle clearance, ATC procedures etc

52
Q

Missed approach gradient

A

2.5%

53
Q

3 sections to go around segments

A

Initial missed approach segment

Intermediate

Final

54
Q

What is an LVO approach

A

Any approach below cat 1 minima

55
Q

Minimum vis for take off no LVO

A

400m

56
Q

How does a VOR work

A

Signal emitted from antenna in all directions

57
Q

NDB frequency band

A

190-535

58
Q

Runway centreline and edge light colours

A

Centreline line = White lights, then 900 to 300m alternate white and red, then last 300m is red

Edge lights = white then turn yellow 600m to go

59
Q

Location of 3% enroute alternate to reduce contingency fuel

A

Circle radius equal to 20% flight plan route, with the centre at a distance of 25% of the flight planned route from destination (or 20% +50nm, whatever is greater)

60
Q

Contaminated and wet difference

A

Contaminated = more than 25% and covered by more than 3mm

Wet = surface covered in moisture or wet but no significant areas of standing water

61
Q

How many lights needed for take off if rvr 125/125/125

A

As centreline lights at 15m interval, expect 8 lights (7 it assume one behind you)

62
Q

Cat 1, 2 and 3 approach limits

A

Cat I - DH not lower than 200ft, rvr of 550m or more, or 800m vis

Cat II- DH lower than 200ft, but not less than 100ft, RVR 300m or more, 150m at midpoint

Cat IIIA- DH lower than 100ft, but not less than 50ft, rvr 200m or more, 150m at midpoint

Cat IIIB- DH lower than 50ft but not less than 0, rvr 50m (75 common) or more, 50m at midpoint

Cat IIIC- DH of 0ft, rvr 0m

63
Q

RVR take off with HILS

A

150m at tochdown zone, with midpoint rvr equal to TDZ rvr

No stop end factor

64
Q

RVR t/o no HILS

A

200m rvr, midpoint same, no stop end factor

65
Q

Air navigation order prevents all CAT 2 and 3 take off and landings when rvr is below what

A

150m

66
Q

Where can all low vis procedures (TO, landing, roll out, system minima etc) be found?

A

EU Ops sub part E

67
Q

Take off obstacle clearance with one engine failed

A

50ft + 0.01xD or 90m horizontally + 0.125xD

Where D is the horizontal distance travelled from end of TODA

Wing span < 60m, 60 + 0.125xD can be used

68
Q

Max angle of bank before and after 400ft

A

15degs before and not more than 25degs after

69
Q

Minimum roc required if all engines operating enroute

A

300ft/min

70
Q

Clearance required when OEI at MCT

A

Within 5nm of track….

1000ft when roc is 0 or more

2000ft when roc is < 0

71
Q

Wet runway landing factor

A

1.15

72
Q

9 core competencies

A

-problem solving and decision making
-leadership and team work
-communication
-knowledge
-flight path manual
-flight path automation
-situational awareness
- work load management
-application of procedures

73
Q

High to low, look out below used when

A

When going from high pressure/temp, to a lower value (altimeter over reading, true alt is less)

74
Q

1944 Chicago convention

A

Established the creation of ICAO, rules regarding airspace, registration, safety etc

75
Q

1963 Tokyo convention

A

Relates to safety and security of people on board and details offences and acts that are not permitted on board

76
Q

1970 Hague convention

A

Agreement to prohibit and punish those involved in hijacking or related events

77
Q

1971 Montreal convention

A

Defines unlawful acts against safety of aviation, violence on board, damage to aircraft, bombs, interference etc

78
Q

1999 Montreal convention

A

Relates to rights of passengers

Interview Technical Questions (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions