Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Gastrointestinal (LECTURE NOTES) > Gastrointestinal Infections > Flashcards

Gastrointestinal Infections Flashcards

1
Q

What is candidiasis and who is likely to get it

A

Thrush
Immunocompromised patients
Diabetics
Those taking antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is candidiasis and who is likely to get it

A

Thrush
Immunocompromised patients
Diabetics
Those taking antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is oral candidiasis treated

A

Nystatin or amphotericin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the common presentations of Vincent’s angina

A 
Appalling oral hygiene
deep, sloughing ulcers 
severe pain 
halitosis 
fever
malaise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What might be needed to treat Vincent’s angina

A

Oral antibiotics or anaesthetic mouthwashes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is parotitis

A

Viral or bacterial infections of the parotid glands causing swelling and pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is required for parotitis is an abscess is present

A

Surgical drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the differential for parotid swelling

A

Salivary gland stones
Sjogren’s syndrome
sarcoidosis
tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a common observation of oesophageal problems

A

Oesophageal candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Is H pylori usually symptomatic or asymptomatic

A

Asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What can H pylori result in (2 things)

A 
Antral gastritis  (predisoposes to duodenal ulcer)
Pan-gastritis (predisposes to gastric carcinoma)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What 2 things are gastric ulcers associated with

A

Both antral and pan gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common way to test for H pylori

A

Urea breath test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long do PPIs have to be stopped before the urea breath test

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What enzyme does H pylori produce and what does it cleave to

A

Urease which can cleave urea to ammonia and CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the colour change for the pH indicator for a positive H pylori test

A

it turns to pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

WHat is the first line treatment for H pylori

A

1 week of triple therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is triple therapy

A

PPI and 2 antibiotics: amoxicilin and metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the second line treatment for H pylori infection

A

Quadruple therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is quadruple therapy

A

Bismuth-containing prearation of triple therapy incoroprated tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why does treatment often fail in quadruple therapy

A

Poor compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does an infection in the GI tract usually result in

A

Diarrhoea, abdominal pain and occasional vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How long do most GI tract infections last

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Investigation for the specific organisms is required in which 4 situations

A

Elderly patients, especially those in institutes
Immunocompromised patients
Symtoms >5days
Epidemics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the incubation period for Staph aureus

A

1-6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the incubation for Ecoli, Campylobacter and Clostrium perfringens

A

8-18hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the incubation for salmonella

A

12-36 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What organisms can cause bloody diarrhoea

A

Shigella,
enterotoxic E coli
Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the most common organism for causing abdominal pain

A

Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is oral candidiasis treated

A

Nystatin or amphotericin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the common presentations of Vincent’s angina

A 
Appalling oral hygiene
deep, sloughing ulcers 
severe pain 
halitosis 
fever
malaise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What might be needed to treat Vincent’s angina

A

Oral antibiotics or anaesthetic mouthwashes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is parotitis

A

Viral or bacterial infections of the parotid glands causing swelling and pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is required for parotitis is an abscess is present

A

Surgical drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the differential for parotid swelling

A

Salivary gland stones
Sjogren’s syndrome
sarcoidosis
tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a common observation of oesophageal problems

A

Oesophageal candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Is H pylori usually symptomatic or asymptomatic

A

Asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What can H pylori result in (2 things)

A 
Antral gastritis  (predisoposes to duodenal ulcer)
Pan-gastritis (predisposes to gastric carcinoma)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What 2 things are gastric ulcers associated with

A

Both antral and pan gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the most common way to test for H pylori

A

Urea breath test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How long do PPIs have to be stopped before the urea breath test

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What enzyme does H pylori produce and what does it cleave to

A

Urease which can cleave urea to ammonia and CO2

43
Q

What is the colour change for the pH indicator for a positive H pylori test

A

it turns to pink

44
Q

WHat is the first line treatment for H pylori

A

1 week of triple therapy

45
Q

What is triple therapy

A

PPI and 2 antibiotics: amoxicilin and metronidazole

46
Q

What is the second line treatment for H pylori infection

A

Quadruple therapy

47
Q

What is quadruple therapy

A

Bismuth-containing prearation of triple therapy incoroprated tetracycline

48
Q

Why does treatment often fail in quadruple therapy

A

Poor compliance

49
Q

What does an infection in the GI tract usually result in

A

Diarrhoea, abdominal pain and occasional vomiting

50
Q

How long do most GI tract infections last

A
51
Q

Investigation for the specific organisms is required in which 4 situations

A

Elderly patients, especially those in institutes
Immunocompromised patients
Symtoms >5days
Epidemics

52
Q

What is the incubation period for Staph aureus

A

1-6 hours

53
Q

What is the incubation for Ecoli, Campylobacter and Clostrium perfringens

A

8-18hours

54
Q

What is the incubation for salmonella

A

12-36 hours

55
Q

What organisms can cause bloody diarrhoea

A

Shigella,
enterotoxic E coli
Campylobacter

56
Q

What is the most common organism for causing abdominal pain

A

Campylobacter

57
Q

What is quadruple therapy

A

Bismuth-containing preparation of triple therapy incorporated tetracycline

58
Q

What is the most common organism for causing abdominal pain

A

Campylobacter

59
Q

What are the investigations that should be carried out if needs be

A

Stool culture and microscopy (for cysts and trophoziotes)
Serology for toxins (C.difficile, E coli, Shigella, Campylobacter)
Sigmoidoscopy and biopsy (if symptoms > 2 weeks)
Joint X rays and aspiration if joint is swollen and there is fever and leucocytosis

60
Q

What is the general management for gastroenteritis

A

Resuscitation: oral hydration is preferred
Meticulous hand hygienge
antidiarrhoeal should be AVOIDED
antiemetics

61
Q

What is the treatment for viral gastroenteritis

A

Supportive

62
Q

What is the first line antibiotic used in salmonella, shigella, Ecoli , campylobacter

A

Ciprofloxacin

63
Q

Where does Ecoli usually come from

A

Infected meat

64
Q

What type of organism is C difficile

A

Gram positive anaerobe

65
Q

Why is C difficile such a big problem in hospitals

A

It is resistant to most disinfectants

66
Q

What are 3 of the main risk factors for developing C difficile

A

Antibiotics
Old age
Immunocompromised

67
Q

What is the treatment for C difficile

A

Oral metronidazole for 7-10 days

Oral vancomycin for 14-28 days

68
Q

What is the treatment for C difficile

A

Oral metronidazole for 7-10 days

Oral vancomycin for 14-28 days

69
Q

How might mycobacterium tb cause intestinal infection

A

ingestion of infected milk
blood borne spread from the lung
direct spread from adjacent organs (rare)

70
Q

Who does intestinal TB most commonly affect

A

Immigrant populations Saharan africa and south east asia

71
Q

What are the clinical features of Intestinal TB

A

Ileocaecal disease - diarrhoea, abdo pain, weight loss, systemic ill health, abdombinal mass
TB adenitis - mimics appendicitis
TB peritonitis - weight loss, systemic ill health and asciteis

72
Q

What are the investigations for Intestinal TB

A

Tissue diagnosis is key!

Ascites: exudate with increased lymphocytes supported by Ziehl-Nielsen staining and culture of acid-fast bacilli

73
Q

What might be seen on an abdominal CT of a patient with Abdominal TB

A

indistinguishable from Crohn;’s disease (small bowel thickening, intra abdominal lymphadenopathy, peritoneal reaction

74
Q

What is the management for abdominal TB

A

Triple therapy ( rifampicin, isoniaxid and pyrazinamide) for 2 months followed by dual therapy (rifampixin and isonizid ) for 4 months

75
Q

Who is Amoebiasis most common in

A

Immigrant populations after ingestion of contaminated water of food

76
Q

What drug might patients be on if they develop Amoebiasis

A

Corticosteroids

77
Q

How is ameobiasis diagnosed

A

Entameoba histolytica antigen in stool and serum

78
Q

What is the management for Amoebiasis

A

Metronidaxole for 5 days followed by paramyocin to eradicate luminal parasites

79
Q

How is eradication of Amoebiasis confirmed

A

3 sequential clear stool samples

80
Q

Who presents most commonly with Typhoid and paratyphoid

A

Returning travellers

81
Q

What causes Typhoid and paratyphoid

A

Salmonella typhi or paratyphi

82
Q

What are the symptoms of Typhoid and paratyphoid

A 
usually systemic and non-specific 
Rose-spot rash 
constipation with diarrhoea later
bradycardia 
hepatosplnomegaly 
lucopaenia
83
Q

What is the management of Typhoid and paratyphoid

A

Cirpofloxacin or chloramphenicol to eradicate the bacterium and prednisolone for encephalopathy

84
Q

How are worms consumed

A

Either by eating contaminated uncooked meat or through the faeco-oral route

85
Q

What are the symptoms of worms

A

Often asymptomatic
May cause low-grade abdominal distension and nausea
Anaemia

86
Q

What type of worm gives the more dramatic symptoms

A

Tapeworms

87
Q

What symtpoms do Tapeworms cause

A

Fever
enterocolitis
cyst formation in brain or muscle
weight loss

88
Q

What is the treatment for Tapeworms

A

Niclosamide as a stat dose

89
Q

What is the treatment for other forms of worms

A

3 days of mebendazole or levamisole

90
Q

What is the commonest STV

A

HPV

91
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of anal warts

A

Cauliflower appearance and may extend to the dentate line

92
Q

What is the treatment for anal warts

A

Topical antiviral (podophyllin, podofilox or imiquimod)

93
Q

When might surgery be indicated for anal warts

A

For when there is large clusters of lesions or when there is extension into the rectum

94
Q

What is the commonest STD in the developed world

A

Chlamydia

95
Q

Men are affected by chlamydia more than women. true or false

A

False - women are more commonly affected

96
Q

What are the symptoms of chlamydia

A

Urethral discharge and dysuria precede a shallow ulcer on the penis before the characteristic groin hymphadenopathy occurs

97
Q

How is chlamydia diagnosed

A

Based on antibody and complemetn fixation testing

98
Q

What is the treatment for chlamydia

A

Azithromycin

Doxicycline or co-trimoxazole

99
Q

What parts of the GI tract can be affected by HIV infection

A

any part of the GI tract

100
Q

What are 6 of the common symptoms suggest specific opportunistic infection

A 
Oral ulceraltion - herpes simplex
Dysphagia - cytomegalovirus 
Abdominal pain - TB, CMV in the gallbladder
Diarrhoea - TB
rectal stricture - Chlamydia 
Rectal bleeding - syphilis
101
Q

Where can cytomegalovirus invade

A

The mucosa of any region of the gut

102
Q

What confirms cytomegalovirus

A

Histology

103
Q

Who can get infected with Cytomegalovirus

A

Anyone who is immunocompromised

flare up of UC

Gastrointestinal (LECTURE NOTES) (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions