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Ettinger > Gastrointestinal disease > Flashcards

Gastrointestinal disease Flashcards

1
Q

What non-invasive test for helicobacter has been described?

A

C-urea blood/urine

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2
Q

What can cause false positive CPV-2 ELISA results?

A

Recent vaccination

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3
Q

Which campylobacter species have been associated with disease?

A

Jejuni and coli

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4
Q

Which clostridia species have been associated with diarrhoea in dogs and cats? What toxins do they produce?

A

Difficile - toxin A (enterotoxin), toxin B (cytotoxin)
Perfringens - CPE

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5
Q

Where is heterobilharzia americana seen? What disease does it cause?

A

Louisiana and Texas
Schistosomiasis

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6
Q

How is heterobilharzia americana diagnosed?

A

Sodium chloride flotation sedimentation
PCR

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7
Q

How is folate absorbed?

A

Folate polyglutamate deconjugated by folate deconjugase into folate monoglutamate
Absorbed by receptors in proximal small intestine

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8
Q

What is calprotectin?

A

Marker of neutrophilic inflammation

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9
Q

What is a marker of a) mast cell degranulation and b?eosinophil acticity

A

a) Methylhistamine
b) Brominated tyrosine

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10
Q

What salivary glands are present in dogs/cats?

A

Major - parotid, zygomatic, mandibular, sublingual
Minor (cats only) - lingual molar gland

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11
Q

Which muscles possess 2M fibres?

A

Temporal, masseter, medial and lateral pterygoid

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12
Q

Which salivary gland is most commonly affected by sialadenitis?

A

Zygomatic

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13
Q

What conditions are associated with pharyngeal weakness?

A

Morphological abnormalities - infection, inflammation, trauma, neoplasia, UES obstruction
Functional causes - myasthenia, muscular dystrophy, polymyositis, hypothyroidism, cranial nerve neuropathy

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14
Q

What forms of cricopharyngeal dysphagia are recognised?

A

Congenital/acquired
Achalasia - failure to relax
Asynchrony - lack of coordination

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15
Q

How is cricopharyngeal achalasia treated?

A

Surgical myotomy or myectomy of the cricopharyngeal muscle
Botulinum toxin injection

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16
Q

How is cricopharyngeal asynchrony treated?

A

Less evidence. Case report of myectomy

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17
Q

What treatments have been shown to reduce the risk of reformation after balloon dilation of oesophageal strictures?

A

Triamcinolone
Topical mitomycin C

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18
Q

Which breeds are associated with vascular ring anomalies?

A

GSD and Irish Setters

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19
Q

What are the most common oesophageal neoplasms in dogs? what is a risk factor for their formation?

A

Osteosarcoma/fibrosarcoma
Transformation of granules associated with Spirocerca lupi

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20
Q

What is the most common oesophageal tumour in cats?

A

SCC

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21
Q

How are oesophageal granulomas associated with spirocerca lupin treated?

A

Doramectin (SC or oral)

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22
Q

What types of oesophageal diverticula are recognised?

A

Pulsion - secondary to increased intraluminal pressure
Traction - secondary to peri-oesophageal inflammation

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23
Q

What conditions are associated with acquired megaoesophagus?

A

Myasthenia, hypoadrenocorticism, lupus myositis, polymyopathies, polyneuropathies, dysautonomia, lead poisoning, severe oesophagitis

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24
Q

Diarrhoea ddx

A

Ettinger pg 1517

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25
Q

What hormone stimulates migrating myo-electric complexes?

A

Motilin

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26
Q

What is the function of TLR2?

A

Recognise gram-ve lipoprotein

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27
Q

What is the function of TLR4?

A

Recognise gram -ve lipopolysacharide

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28
Q

What is the function of TLR5?

A

Recognise bacterial flagellae

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29
Q

What is the function of NOD2?

A

Recognises bacterial lipopolysaccharide

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30
Q

What is the function of Th-1 cells? What cytokines do they produce?

A

IL-2/IFN-gamma
Activation of CD8 cytotoxic T cells

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31
Q

What is the function of Th-2 cells? What cytokines do they produce?

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-6 and IL-13
B-cell activation

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32
Q

What is the function of Th-17 cells? What cytokines do they produce?

A

IL-17
Inflammatory response

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33
Q

What is the function of Th-3 cells? What cytokines do they produce?

A

TGF-beta
Effectors of oral tolerance

34
Q

What is the function of CD25+ Foxp3+ T cells? What cytokines do they produce?

A

IL-10
Suppressor - regulatory cells

35
Q

What is the receptor for salmonella invasion?

A

Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator

36
Q

Where do ETECs cause damage?

37
Q

Where do EHECs cause damage?

A

Large intestine

38
Q

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis. a) Species affected, b) route of infection, c) tissue affected, d) treatment, e) prognosis

A

a) Cats
b) Eating infected rodents/birds
c) Large intestine
d) Oxytet / TMPS
e) Poor

39
Q

What is the treatment for salmon poisoning?

A

Oxytetracycline
Praziquantel (trematode vector)

40
Q

What is the mechanism of blue green algae toxicity?

A

Syntehsise anti cholinesterase
Induces vomiting, diarrhoea, ataxia and death

41
Q

What are the a) clinical and b) histo features of Basenji enteropathy? c) What is the prognosis?

A

a) PLE with hyperglobulinaemia and hypergastrinaemia
b) LP gastritis, mucosal hyperplasia. Intestinal lesions characterised by increased CD4 and CD8 T cells
c) Poor

42
Q

What breed is affected by familial PLE and PLN?

A

Soft-coated Wheaten Terriers

43
Q

What test can be predictive of familial PLE in SCWT?

44
Q

What are the causes of secondary lymphangiectasia?

A

Infiltration of lymphatics by inflammation, fibrosis or neoplasia
Obstruction of thoracic duct
r-CHF

45
Q

What non GI condition has been described in association with lymphangiectasia?

A

Granulomatous hepatopathy

46
Q

What 2 GI conditions has been described in association with lymphangiectasia in Lundehunds?

A

Chronic gastritis and gastric carcinoma

47
Q

What test can diagnose PLE in Lundehunds before signs develop?

A

Faecal alpha1-PI

48
Q

What are the most common GI neoplasms in a) cats and b) dogs?

A

a) Lymphoma, adenocarcinoma, MCT
b) Adenocarcinoma, lymphoma, smooth muscle/stromal tumours

49
Q

How do a) intermediate to high grade, b) low grade and c) granular GI lymphoma present in cats? What lineage are the neoplastic cells and what is the prognosis?

A

a) Focal mass. T or B. 7-10 months
b) Diffuse thickening. T. 19-29 months
c) Focal mass (sometimes with extra intestinal involvement). T cell. 17 days

50
Q

Where are adenoma/adenocarcinoma of the GIT found most commonly in a) dogs and b) cats

A

a) LI > SI
b) SI > LI

51
Q

Where is the predilection site for SI carcinoma in a) dogs and b) cats?

A

a) Duodenum
b) Jejunum and ileum

52
Q

Is COX-2 expressed in GI epithelial tumours?

A

In dogs but not cats

53
Q

Where are GI smooth muscle tumours found in dogs/cats?

A

Dogs - jejunum/caecum
Cats - SI

54
Q

How are smooth muscle tumours and GISTs distinguished?

A

GIST - c-kit expression
SM - SMA

55
Q

In what breeds are granulomatous colitis recognised?

A

Boxers, French Bulldogs, Mastiffs, Malamutes, English Bulldogs

56
Q

How is a diagnosis of granulomatous colitis confirmed?

A

PAS-staining and FISH

57
Q

What is an algal cause of large intestinal diarrhoea? How is it diagnosed?

A

Prototheca
Cytology of rectal scrapings +/- histo

58
Q

How is prototheca treated? What is the prognosis?

A

Amphotericin B and itraconazole
Poor - invariably fatal

59
Q

What protozoa is associated with LI diarrhoea and access to pigs?

A

Balantidium coli

60
Q

How is tritrichomonas foetus treated? What is a side effect of treatment?

A

Ronidazole
Neurological signs

61
Q

What are the reservoir and intermediate hosts of heterobilharzia Americana?

A

Racoons and snails

62
Q

What are typical biochemical findings in schistosomiasis?

A

Decreased albumin, increased globulins, LE elevation, +/- hypercalcaemia (granulomatous)

63
Q

How is schistosomiasis treated?

A

Fenbendazole and praziquantel

64
Q

How are feline colonic adenocarcinoma treated? What is the prognosis?

A

Subtotal colectomy and carboplatin

65
Q

What breed are predisposed to adenomatous cold-rectal polyps?

A

Miniature dachshunds

66
Q

What is a reported medical treatment for colonic vascular ectasia?

A

Oestrogens

67
Q

How does sympathetic stimulation affect glandular secretion?

A

Slight to moderate increase in secretion
However, constricts blood vessels, reducing secretion

68
Q

What is the structure of an oxyntic gland?

A

Mucous neck cells superficially
Oxyntic cells in middle
Enterochromaffin cells
Peptic cells deep

69
Q

Describe gastric acid secretion

70
Q

What stimulates gastric acid release? What cells do they also stimulate?

A

ACh - parietal, peptic and mucous
Gastrin - parietal
Histamine - parietal

71
Q

What is the function of the ECL cells?
What are they stimulated by?

A

Produce histamine - stimulates acid secretion
Gastrin

72
Q

Where is gastrin secreted? What stimulates it’s release?

A

G cells - pylorus
Protein in antrum

73
Q

What stimulates pepsinogen secretion?

A

ACh
H+ in stomach

74
Q

What activates trypsinogen?

A

Enterokinase - SI mucosa
Trypsin

75
Q

What stimulates pancreatic secretion? Which component of the secretion to each stimulate

A

ACh - digestive enzymes
CCK - digestive enzymes
Secretin - water and HCO3

76
Q

Where is secretin released? What stimulates its release?

A

S cells of duodenum
HCl

77
Q

Where is CCK released? What stimulates its release?

A

I cells duodenum and upper jejunum
Presence of products of protein digestion and LCFAs

78
Q

How does secretin alter biliary secretion?

A

Adds water and HCO3

79
Q

What 4 types of atresia ani are described?

A

Type I - anal stenosis
Type II - imperforate anus
Type III - imperforate anus and cranially terminating rectum
Type IV - discontinuity of the proximal rectum with normal terminal rectal development

Ettinger (13 decks)

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