Differential diagnosis Flashcards

1
Q

Generalised alopecia

A

HAC
Hypothyroidism
Hyperoestrogenism
Pituitary dwarfism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hypotrichosis with scales/crusts

A

Feline thymoma
Cutaneous t-cell lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Facial/dorsal alopecia, erythema, scaling, crusting

A

Leishmaniosis
Lupus erythematous
Exfoliative cutaneous lupus erythematous (GSHP))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Alopecia, erythema, scaling, crusts - affecting face, legs, tail

A

Dermatomyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Alopecia with shiny skin - periocular, ventral neck, ventrum, legs (cat)

A

Paraneoplastic alopecia (pancreatic adenocarcinoma, biliary cholangiocarcinoma, hepatic carcinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cutaneous erythema, alopecia, scales, crusts - mucocutaneous junction

A

Zinc-responsive dermatosis
Lethal acrodermatitis (Bull Terrier)
CDV
SND
Erythema multiforme
Paraneoplastic pemphigus
Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cutaneous plaques

A

Calcinosis cutis - HAC, renal disease, granulomatous disease (blastomycosis)
Xanthoma - hyperlipidaemia
Hyperpigmented - pappilomavirus associated
Eosinophilic
Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cutaneous nodules

A

Collagenous - nodular dermatofibrosis
Sterile nodular panniculitis (pancreatic panniculitis)
Infectious - blastomycosis, coccidioidomycosis, cryptococcosis, histoplasmosis, aspergillosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Skin fragility

A

Cutaneous asthenia (abnormal collagen formation)
Feline acquired skin fragility - HAC, FIP, hepatic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Thick skin

A

Hypothyroidism
Acromegaly
Chinese Star Pei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does dermatomyositis present? What breeds are affected?

A

Skin lesions affected face, lower extremities and tail
Muscle involvement - gait, dysphagia +/- megaoesophagus
Collies and Shetland Sheepdog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Weight gain

A

Increased appetite - medication, HAC, acromegaly, insulinoma, hypothalamic disorder
Normal appetite - hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism, hypogonadism, hyperlipidaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Abdominal effusion - pure transudate

A

Reduced oncotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Abdominal effusion - modified transudate

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure
Pre-hepatic portal hypertension - congenital portal vein atresia, extraluminal obstruction (neoplasia), intraluminal obstruction (thrombosis)
Hepatic portal hypertension - chronic cholangitis, lobar-dissecting hepatitis, veno-occlusive disease)
Post hepatic portal hypertension - R-CHF, Budd-Chiari

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Eosinophilic abdominal effusion

A

Lymphoma, systemic MCT, aberrant larval migrants, fungal disease, disseminated eosinophilic granulomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Peripheral oedema

A

pg84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Weight loss

A

pg87

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Failure to grow

A

pg90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Weakness

A

pg92-93

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Restlessness

A

pg96

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Anorexia

A

pg98

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Polyphagia

A

pg101

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Coughing

A

pg108

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Sneezing

A

pg112

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Nasal discharge

A

pg112

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dyspnoea

A

pg117

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Epistaxis

A

pg120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Syncope

A

pg124

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tremor

A

pg131

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Ataxia

A

pg 136

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Stupor/coma

A

pg141

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Seizures

A

pg144

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Gagging

A

pg 152

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Dysphagia

A

pg157

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Regurgitation

A

pg158

36
Q

Vomiting

A

pg162

37
Q

Melena

A

pg168

38
Q

Dyschezia

A

pg173

39
Q

PUPD

A

pg182

40
Q

USG <1.006

A

PP
CDI
Primary NDI
HAC
Atypical lepto
Hypercalcaemia

41
Q

Pollakiuria

A

pg186

42
Q

Stranguria

A

pg186

43
Q

Incontinence

A

pg186

44
Q

Pallor

A

pd207

45
Q

Parodoxical pulse

A

Cardiac tamponade

46
Q

Hyperaemia

A

pg209

47
Q

Cyanosis

A

pg 212

48
Q

Jaundice

A

pg215

49
Q

Petechiae/ecchymoses

A

pg218

50
Q

Split S1

A

Healthy large breed dog
Ectopic beat, BBB
Tricuspid/mitral stenosis

51
Q

Split S2

A

Healthy large breed dog (inspiration)
Heartworm, PHT, R>L PDA
ASD, PS, RBBB, mitral insufficiency/stenosis

52
Q

Audible S3

A

Diastolic volume overload (DCM, PDA, mitral insufficiency)

53
Q

Audible S4

A

Ventricular hypertrophy/stiffness
3rd degree AV block

54
Q

Blood smear features of IMHA

A

Spherocytosis, agglutination, ghost cells

55
Q

Blood smear features of oxidant injury

A

Heinz bodies, eccentrocytes, pyknocytes

56
Q

Blood smear features of fragmentation injury

A

Accanthocytes, keratocytes, schistocytes

57
Q

Blood smear features of snake envenomation

A

Echinocytes, ghost cells

58
Q

Anaemia

A

pg230

59
Q

Erythrocytosis

A

pg234

60
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

pg239

61
Q

Thrombocytosis

A

pg241

62
Q

Hypoproteinaemia

A

pg245

63
Q

Hyperproteinaemia

A

pg244-245

64
Q

Hypoglycaemia

A

pg 246

65
Q

Hyperglycaemia

A

pg248

66
Q

Hyperlipidaemia (HCH or HTG?)

A

Pg 253

67
Q

Hypocholesterolaemia

A

PLE
Hepatic insufficiency
Selected malignancies

68
Q

CK elevation

A

Pg264

69
Q

Hypernatraemia

A

pg266
*ebox67-1

70
Q

Hyponataemia

A

pg268
*ebox67-2

71
Q

SIADH diagnostic criteria

A

Hyponatraemia with hypotonic plasma
Urine Osm > plasma Osm
Increased renal Na excretion
Absence of oedema or volume depletion
Normal renal/adrenal function

72
Q

Conditions causing SIADH

A

Dirofilariasis
Hypothalamic neoplasia
Rathke’s cleft cyst
Acanthamoebe meningitis
Traumatic brain injury
Ischaemic stroke
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Hydrocephalus
Liver disease
Vinblastine OD
Neoplastic production of ADH
Pulmonary disease

73
Q

Hypochloraemia

A

Ebox 67-3

74
Q

Hyperchloraemia

A

Ebox 67-3

75
Q

Hypokalaemia

A

pg 271

76
Q

Hyperkalaemia

A

pg272

77
Q

Hypomagnesemia

A

pg273

78
Q

Hypermagnesemia

A

pg274

79
Q

Hypercalcaemia

A

pg276

80
Q

Hypocalcaemia

A

pg278

81
Q

Hypophosphataemia

A

pg279

81
Q

Hyperphosphataemia

A

p279

82
Q

Lactic acidosis

A

pg280

83
Q

Hyperammonaemia

A

pg283

84
Q

Cavitary effusion

A

pg 294

85
Q
A