Gastrointestinal Flashcards

1
Q

Organism associated with Whipple disease

A

Organism associated with Whipple disease: Tropheryma whippelii (+); “Foamy Whipped cream in a CAN”. Foamy (PAS-positive) macrophages; Cardiac symptoms; Arthralgias; Neurologic symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Process by which B12 is absorbed

A
  • (stomach) Pepsin releases B12
  • (stomach) B12 binds to R-binders
  • (duodenum) R-binder-B12 complex broken down in duodenum by pancreatic proteases
  • (duodenum) unbound B12 binds IF
  • IF-B12 complex binds to IF-specific receptors on cells of the Terminal Ileum
  • B12 transverses plasma membranes of mucosal cell
  • picked up by plasma protein transcobalamin II
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pleomorphic adenoma

A

1 most common overall is Pleomorphic adenoma - benign, epithelial and mesenchymal, about 50% of all salivary gland tumors are this type.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

2 most common benign tumor of salivary gland

A

2 most common benign tumor is Warthin’s tumor - heterotopic salivary gland tissue trapped in a lymph node, surrounded by lymphatic tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

2 most common tumor overall salivary gland tumor

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma -#1 malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

$ 3 Arteries off celiac

A

Main blood supply of the stomach: common hepatic, splenic, left gastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

$ Primary biliary cirrhosis

A

Autoimmune reaction with lymphocyte infiltrate and granulomas. 90% are middle aged females, Pruritis w/o Jaundice.

  • 90% ↑ serum mitochondrial antibodies, including IgM.
  • Tx: Ursodiol ↓ liver synthesis of cholesterol ↓ bile stone development. Definitive Tx: liver transplant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

$ Primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

Unknown cause of “onion skin” bile duct fibrosis with alternating strictures and dilation with “beading”

  • (1)Beads on a string appearance on ERCP.
  • (2) Men around 40.
  • (3) 60% have positive p-ANCA. Also an association with
  • (4) Ulcerative colitis, and
  • (5) Cholangiocarcinoma.
  • Definitive Tx: liver transplant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

2 nervous tissue bundles that run through the GIT

A

Submucosal Nerve Plexus (Meissner’s) running through the Submucosa (secretions).

Myenteric nerve plexus (Auerbach’s) running through outer layer of the muscularis externa (Motility and MMCs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

4 off common hepatic

A
  • Right Gastro-omental artery,
  • Anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries (supplies proximal duodenum),
  • Hepatic artery proper,
  • Right Gastric artery.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Achalasia is a results from

A

loss of myenteric or Auerbach’s plexus ® LES is unable to relax; Diagnosis - barium swallow (stricture of LES looks like bird’s beak), manometry - device that measures pressure in esophagus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Alcoholic hepatitis histologically

A

Mallory bodies - intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions; Hepatocytes - Necrotic and swollen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Antibodies to help make the diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis

A
  • ANA (+)
  • Anti-smooth muscle antibody (+)
  • Anti-liver-kidney microsomal antibody (+)
  • Anti-mitochondrial antibody (-)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Arterial branches off the common hepatic artery

A
  1. Gastroduodenal artery ® Right Gastro-omental artery + Superior pancreaticoduodenal artery;
  2. Right gastric artery;
  3. Hepatic artery proper ® Left hepatic and right hepatic.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Atropine will inhibit the release of gastrin b/

A

Atropine will inhibit the release of gastrin b/c: Vagus nerve stimulates G cells using gastrin-releasing peptide; Atropine - reduces vagal stimulation at parietal cells and ECL cells. Vagal stimulation of G cells is unaffected as GRP is used, not ACh.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Biliary obstruction Intrahepatic vs extrahepatic causes

A

Intrahepatic: Primary biliary cirrhosis; Sclerosing cholangitis; Drugs (Chlorpromazine and arsenic);

Extrahepatic: Pancreatic neoplasm; Choledocholithiasis (gallstone in common bile duct); pancreatitis; cholangiocarcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

Occlusion of the IVC or hepatic veins. Associated with Polycythemia vera; Pregnancy; Hepatocellular carcinoma. Hepatomegaly, ascites, abdominal pain, possible varices and visible abdominal and back veins, Absence of JVD. Eventual liver failure due to occlusion of IVC or hepatic veins with centrolobular congestion and necrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cholangitis

Cholecystitis

Choledocholithiasis

Cholelithiasis

A
  • Cholangitis - Inflammation/infection of biliary tree (Charcot’s/Reynolds)
  • Cholecystitis - Inflammation/infection of the gallbladder
  • Choledocholithiasis - Gallstones in the bile ducts (usually common bile duct)
  • Cholelithiasis - Gallstones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Classic symptoms of carcinoid syndrome

A

“BFDR” Bronchospasm (wheezing); Flushing; Diarrhea (less specific); Right sided valvular disease symptoms (edema or ascites).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Classic triad in hemochromatosis

A

micronodular cirrhosis, DM, skin pigmentation. Labs - ↑ ferritin, ↑ serum iron, ↓ TIBC -> ↑ transferrin saturation. Tx: Phlebotomy; Deferoxamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cocktail of medications commonly taken by patients suffering from severe cirrhosis

A

Lactulose (encephalopathy); Vitamin K (maximize clotting potential); Diuretics (prevent ascites and edema); β-blockers (bleeding esophageal varices) “LV DB” needs meds for liver cirrhosis”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Colon Polyps

A

Tubular adenomas (adenomatous polyps); Tubular villous adenomas; Villous adenomas. All are precancerous, but villous is most villainous! All 3 of these NEED to be removed 100% of the time! Need to be analyzed for carcinoma in-situ.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Common causes of SBO

A

1 - Adhesions, Bulge/hernia, Cancer/tumor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Difference between primary biliary cirrhosis and primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis: Positive AMA; Middle-aged females; Autoimmune disease - CREST scleroderma.

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis: Unknown etiology; Positive pANCA; Males over 40; UC and cholangiocarcinoma; ERCP: beading and stricturing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Disorders w/ excess gastrin

A

Zollinger Ellison syndrome; Tx is PPIs +/- octreotide (if tumor has octreotide receptors).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Drugs that inhibit acetylcholinesterase

A

Echothiophate - glaucoma;

Edrophonium - diagnose MG;

Neostigmine - ileus, urine retention, MG;

Physostigmine - glaucoma;

Pyridostigmine (longer acting) - MG.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Enzyme responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin

Fate of bilirubin after it is conjugated and secreted into GI tract

A

UDP-Glucuronyl Transferase. (upregulated by phenobarbital)

(1) Converted to urobilinogen (acted on by gut bacteria) (2) Some is excreted and (3) some is reabsorbed.

28
Q

GI pathology with Down Syndrome

A

Celiac disease; Hirschprung disease; Annular pancreas; Duodenal atresia. (CHAD)

29
Q

Hexokinase and glucokinase differ in Location, Kinetics, Insulin

A

Hexokinase is everywhere ↓Vmax ↓Km and Glucokinase is in liver and Pancreas (β cells) with ↑Vmax ↑Km. Insulin does NOT induce hexokinase, Does induce glucokinase.

30
Q

HIV meds pancreatitis

A

Ritonavir and NRTIs like Didanosine, Stavudine, Zalcitabine;

Rash - NNRTIs like Nevirapine, Delavirdine, Efavirenz and Abacavir causes a hypersensitivity.

Peripheral neuropathy - Didanosine, Stavudine, Zalcitabine.

31
Q

In a patient with elevated alkaline phosphatase, what other enzymes would indicate liver disease?

A

an elevation in AST, ALT, GGT would direct me to a diagnosis of liver disease.

32
Q

Mechanism by which aspirin can cause Reye syndrome

A

↓ β-oxidation occurs because metabolites of aspirin inhibit mitochondrial enzyme.

33
Q

Medications for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B and C are

A

interferon alpha (Chronic hepatitis B and C); Ribavirin (chronic hepatitis C)

34
Q

Names of diverticula found in esophagus based on location are

A

Zenker - immediately above the UES;

Traction - Near the midpoint of esophagus;

Epiphrenic - immediately above LES.

35
Q

One of the most common causes of GI bleeding in the elderly (other than colon cancer)

A

One of the most common causes of GI bleeding in the elderly (other than colon cancer) is Angiodysplasia (volvulus, ischemic colitis also common in elderly)

36
Q

Pleomorphic adenoma histology

A

(#1 benign). Histology: Epithelial and mesenchymal differentiation. 50% of salivary gland tumors are pleomorphic.

37
Q

PPI MOA

A

** H+/K+ ATPase** in stomach parietal cells: Omeprazole, lansoprazole, pantoprazole, esomeprazole.

38
Q

Progastric Hormones

Inhibitory Gastric Acid Hormones

Drugs that regulate Gastric Acid Secretion

A

Progastric Hormones: Histamine; Acetylcholine; Gastrin.

Inhibitory Gastric Acid Hormones: Prostaglandins; Somatostatin; Secretin; GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide).

Drugs that regulate Gastric Acid Secretion: PPIs; H2 blockers; Antimuscarinic drugs (Atropine).

39
Q

Receptors on gastric parietal cells regulate acid secretion

A

H2 Histamine receptor is most important; CCKB receptors (responds to gastrin); M3 (responds to Ach); Prostaglandin receptors; Somatostatin receptors.

40
Q

Risk factors for development of hepatocellular carcinoma

A

HBV, HCV, Wilson’s disease, hemochromatosis, α1-antitrypsin deficiency, alcoholic cirrhosis, carcinogens (aflatoxin from Aspergillus), Hepatic adenoma.

41
Q

Reynold’s pentad

A

cholangitis is: Jaundice, Fever, RUQ pain, Hypotension (shock) and altered mental status.

42
Q

Risk factors for the development of cholesterol gallstones

A

FFFF: Female, Fat, Fertile (pregnant), Forty.

43
Q

Warthin’s tumor

A

Second most common benign cystic tumor with a double layer of columnar epithelium around the cyst. Stroma of the tumor is lymphoid. Like a lymph node and can even form germinal centers

44
Q

Serum antibodies associated with celiac sprue

A

Autoantibodies to gluten (gliadin) and tissue transglutaminase

45
Q

Organisms most responsible for Sialodenitis

A

S. Aureus and S. Viridans, S. Mutans.

46
Q

Signs of portal hypertension

A

Esophageal varices ® Hematemesis, Melena. Peptic ulcer ® Melena; Splenomegaly; Caput medusae, ascites; Portal hypertensive gastropathy; Hemorrhoids.

47
Q

The most common #1 malignant salivary gland tumor (and #2 most common overall behind pleomorphic adenoma)

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

48
Q

Treatment for celiac sprue

A

Gluten free diet; Avoid rye, wheat, and barley

49
Q

Underlying problem in Wilson disease

A

Impaired copper excretion, Body does not put copper into bile-> failure of copper to enter circulation as ceruloplasmin.

Characteristics -> Asterixis; Basal ganglia degeneration (Parkinsonian symptoms); ↓ ceruloplasm; Cirrhosis; Kayser-Fleischer rings; Copper accumulation; Hepatocellular carcinoma; Dementia; Dyskinesia; Dysarthria Tx: Penicillamine

50
Q

Classic presentation of diverticulosis

A

Usually asymptomatic; ± Painless rectal bleeding; ± Vague LLQ discomfort

51
Q

After loss of his job, a 35-year-old man has diarrhea and hematochezia. Intestinal biopsy shows transmural inflammation. Diagnosis ® 35yo male + diarrhea + hematochezia + Stress (loss job) + TRANSMURAL INFLAMMATION

A

Crohn’s Disease

52
Q

Adult Anatomy of the liver

A

Zone 1 - Hepatic artery(↑O2), hepatic vein, bile ductules affected most by viral hepatitis;

Zone 3 - Central vein (affected most by ischemia) Contain cytochrome p450 (most affected by alcoholic hepatitis).

53
Q

Diverticulitis Tx

A

Metronidazole (for anaerobes) + TMP-SMX, or M + levofloxacin, or M + ciprofloxacin.

54
Q

Dysbiosis

A

imbalance of the enterobacteriaceae species

55
Q

Enterobacteriaceae

A

All are Gram (-); facultative anaerobe; ferment sugar into lactic acid (if too much, can cause lactic acidosis). Normal gut flora. #1 Bacteroides fragilis - Most abundant organism in the large intestine. #2 E. coli - second most abundant organism in the large intestine. Family also includes: Proteus mirabilis; Proteus vulgaris; Salmonella; Shigella; Klebsiella pneumoniae.

56
Q

Etiologies of acute pancreatitis

A

GET SMASHHED - Gallstones, Ethanol, Trauma (NFL), Steroids, Mumps, Autoimmune diseases, Scorpion sting, Hypercalcemia/Hypertriglyceridemia >1000 (milk/tricycle at HH), ERCP (Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram), Drugs (sulfa + HIV drugs) (NRTI’s didanosine, zalcitabine, stavudine, Ritonavir (PI).

57
Q

Fundamental problem in Hirschprung disease

A

failure of neural crest cell migration to colon ® missing enteric ganglia/enteric nervous plexus.

58
Q

H. pylori treatment

A

PPI; Clarithromycin; Amoxicillin or (if allergic to amoxicillin) metronidazole.

59
Q

HBcAg

A

Hepatitis B core antigen = New disease

60
Q

HBeAg

A

Hepatitis B envelope antigen - **very High degree of contagiousness **

61
Q

HBsAg

A

hepatitis B surface antigen = Active disease!

62
Q

Intestinal disorder common in NICU to premature babies that receive oral feds too soon

A

Necrotizing Enterocolitis

63
Q

Lab abnormalities with cirrhosis

A

↑AST/ALT but may not if damaged all of liver cells. ↑GTT ↓platelets ↑PT; ↓lipids (LDL, HDL); ↑ammonia

64
Q

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

A

antagonist at the D2-receptor and agonist at 5-HT4 receptors. Used for diabetic and post-surgical gastroparesis (slight degree of gastroparalysis).

65
Q

Ondansetron and Granisetron

A

(-setron) are the 5-HT3 antagonists used for anti-emetic purposes. 5-HT1 agonists cause vasoconstriction used to treat headaches. Serotonin antagonists cause vasodilation which create headaches. Too much serotonin (carcinoid syndrome) - diarrhea; Too little serotonin - constipation.

66
Q

Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome

A

AD disorder; Telangiectasias can cause Aneurysms, AVMs - high output heart failure; Nose bleeds, GI bleeds, Iron deficiency anemia, Visceral bleeds (lung, liver).

67
Q

most common location of salivary gland tumors

A

Parotid gland