Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DIT Phase II Chapters > Foundations > Flashcards

Foundations Flashcards

1
Q

Fetal placental structure that secretes hCG

A

syncitiotrophoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Maternal component of the placenta

A

Decidua basalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Energy available to fuel endergonic reactions (anabolic)

A

glucose > pyruvate > Adenosine triphosphate > Adenosine monophosphate > Adenosine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Stages of an embryo between conception and an inner cell mass

A

Zygote -> Morula -> Blastocyst -> Inner Cell Mass + Trophoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Deficiency of this gene causes holoprosencephaly

A

Sonic hedgehog gene - Produced at base of limbs in zone of polarizing activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lack of this gene results in short limbs

A

FGF gene - fibroblast growth factor: produced at apical ectodermal ridge, stimulates mitosis of underlying mesoderm - lengthens limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Homeobox (HOX) Genes

A
  • BIueprt for skeletal morphology
  • Code for transcription regulators
  • Mutation in Homeobox HOXD-l3 synpolydactyly (extra fused digit between 3rd and 4th fuigers)
  • Retinoic acid alters HOX gene expression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Surface ectoderm

A
  • Adenohypophysis (from Rathke’s pouch) - Craniopharyngioma - benign Rathke’s puch tumor with cholesterol crystals, calcifications - it didn’t become induced by the notocord
  • lens of eye
  • epithelial linings of oral cavity, sensory
  • organs of ear, and olfactory epithelium
  • epidermis
  • anal canal below the pectinate line
  • salivary, sweat, and mammary glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Neuroectoderm

A
  • CNS and Brain
  • Brain (neurohypophysis, CNS neurons,
    oligod en drocy tes, astrocytes, ependymal cells,pineal gland)
  • retina
  • spinal cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Neural Crest

A

PNS and non-neural structures nearby (STAMPEDE to heart) “missionaries” of the neuroectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Endoderm

A
  • Gut tube epit helium (including anal canal above the pectinate line) and derivatives
  • lungs
  • liver
  • pancreas
  • thy mus
  • parathyroid
  • thyroid follicular cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mesoderm

A
  • Muscle
  • bone
  • connective tissue
  • seroas
  • linings of body cavities (e.g., peritoneum),
  • spleen (derived from foregut mesentery)
  • cardiovascular structures
  • lymphatics
  • blood
  • bladder
  • urethra
  • vagina
  • eustachian tube,
  • kidneys
  • adrenal cortex
  • skin dermis
  • testes, ovaries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mesodermal defects

A

Mesodermal defects = VACTERL

  • Vertebral defects
  • Anal atresia
  • Cardiac defects
  • **Tracheo - **Esophageal fistula
  • Renal defects
  • Limb defects (bone and muscle)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

1 cause of mental retardation in the US

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome - Even just 1 drink a day can have deleterious effects. NO ALCOHOL WHATSOEVER! Cleft lip, cleft palate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Relationship between notochord, neural plate, neural tube, and neural crest

A
  • Notochord forms the neural plate.
  • Neural plate - gives rise to the he neural tube and neural crest cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Drugs contraindicated in pregnancy

A
  • Antiseizures: Carbamazepine, Phenytoin, Valproate.
  • Antibiotics: Aminoglycosides, Tetracyclines, Fluoroquinolones (cartilage abnormalities), Sulfonamides, Clarithromycin, Chloramphenicol (gray baby).
  • Folate Antagonists: Pyrimethamine, methotrexate (kills ectopic pregnancies).
  • Miscellaneous: ACE inhibitors, Thalidomide, Diethylstilbestrol (DES) Warfarin (Coumadin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

NCC derivative deficiencies

A
  • Aganglionic colon,
  • Albinism (melanocytes),
  • Dental abnormalities(odontoblasts),
  • PNS abnormalities,
  • Abnormalities of bones and skull.
  • Thyroid abnormalities from parafollicular (C) cells,
  • Adrenal abnormalities from chromaffin cells,
  • Disruptions of the aorticopulmonary septum.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Nuclear Lamins

A

provide the structural framework for DNA and the nuclear envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Are responsible for fostering the progression through the cell cycle.

A

Cyclins and Cyclin-Dependent Kinases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cyclin-CDK complexes that assist in the progression from G1 phase to S phase

A

Cyclin D + CDK4 and Cyclin E + CDK2. “D-K4 and E-K2”

“Good 1 Sporting: Dave cycles up K4, Eric cycles up K2”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cyclins-CDK complexes that assist in the progression of G2 to M phase

A

Cyclin A + CDK2 and Cyclin B + CDK1

“Good SECOND Mountain (to climb) Alex cycles up K2, Bob cycles K1”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In I-cell disease, there is a deficiency of

A
  • Mannose Phosphorylation - no mannose-6-phosphate to target lysosomal proteins -> secretion out of cell instead of into lysosomes
  • Mannose-6-Phosphate is a molecule that targets proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum for lysosomes
  • Death by age 8
  • (+) corneal clouding, course facies, HSM, skeletal abnormalities, restricted joint movement, +/- MR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Nuclear localization signals contain these amino acids.

A

Lysine, Arginine, Proline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Granulomatous diseases

A
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Fungal infections (e.g., histoplasmosis)
  • Treponema pallidum (syphilis)
  • M. leprae (leprosy)
  • Bartonella henselae (cat scratch disease)
  • Sarcoidosis
  • Crohn’s disease
  • Berylliosis
  • Listeria
  • Foreign bodies
  • Wegner’s
  • Chronic granulomatous disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Leukocyte extravasation

A
  • Rolling (selectins)
  • Tight binding (integrins)
  • Diapedesis (PECAM-1
  • Migration (CILK)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

C-Reactive Protein

A
  • Acute-phase reactant synthesized by the liver
  • Part of the innate immune response: opsonizes bacteria and activates complement clears microbes
  • Can be secreted from cells within atherosclerotic plaques to activate local endothelial cells to induce a prothrombotic state and increase the adhesiveness of the endothelium to leukocytes
  • Elevations are a strong predictor of Ml, stroke, PAD, and sudden cardiac death
  • CRP can be lowered by smoking cessation, exercise, weight loss, and statins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Elevated ESR

A
  • Polymyalgia rheumatica
  • Temporal arteritis
  • Disease activity in RA and SLE
  • Infection, Inflammation (osteomyeliis)
  • Malignancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

**Epithelial Wound Healing **

A
  • 0-3 hours - Hemorrhage and clotting
  • 12-24 hours - Acute inflammation (PMN)
  • 2-4 days - Macrophage infiltration and epithelial cell migration
  • 3-5 days - Granulation tissue (especially at wound edges)
  • Months - Collagen production (type Ill then type I)
29
Q

Findings associated with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A
  • Hyperextensible skin,
  • tendency to bleed (easy bruising),
  • Hypermobile joints.
  • Aneurysms.
  • Type III collagen most frequently affected.
30
Q

Types of collagen

A
  • Type I: Tendon, bone, dentin, skin, fascia, cornea;
  • Type II: Cartilage, vitreous body;
  • Type III: Blood vessels, granulation tissue, uterus, fetal tissue;
  • Type IV: Basement membrane.
31
Q

Amino acids found in large concentrations in collagen

A
  • Glycine, Proline, hydroxyproline, hydroxylysine.
  • Elastin: Rich in proline and glycine, nonglycosylated forms.
32
Q

4 transcription factors essential in pluripotent stem cells

A
  • Oct3/4
  • myc-c
  • SOX2
  • KLf4
33
Q

Amino Acids modified in the Golgi apparatus

A

Serine, Threonine, Asparagine

34
Q

$$$ What structures are derived from the Endoderm?

A

Parenchyma of:

  • Liver
  • Thyroid
  • Pancreas
  • Parathyroids

Epithelial lining of:

  • Respiratory tract
  • tonsils
  • thymus
  • bladder, urethra
  • tympanic cavity
  • auditory tube
  • GI tract
35
Q

Fetal landmark within 1 week

A

hCG secretion begins after implantation of blastocyst

36
Q

Fetal landmarks within week 2

How does the primitive streak form? What does the primitive streak give rise to?

A
  • 2 germ layers Bilaminar disk (epiblast, hypoblast)
  • 2 cavities: amniotic cavity, yolk sac
  • 2 components to placenta: cytotrophoblast, syncytiotrophoblast

Epiblast (precursor to embryo) invaginates to form the primitive streak. Cells from the primitive streak give rise to both

  • **intraembryonic mesoderm **
  • endoderm (part of)
37
Q

Fetal landmarks within week 3

A
  • 3 germ layers (gastrula)Trilaminar disc
  • Gastrulation
  • Primitive streak, notochord, mesoderm and its organization
  • Neural plate begins to form
38
Q

Fetal landmarks weeks 3-8

(embryonic period)

A
  • Neural tube formed by neuroectoderm and closes by week 4
  • Organogenesis
  • Extremely susceptible to teratgens
39
Q

Fetal landmarks Week 4

A
  • Heart begins to beat
  • Upper and lower limb buds begin to form
40
Q

Fetal landmarks week 8

(Fetal period)

A
  • MOVEMENT!
  • Fetus looks like baby
41
Q

Fetal landmarks

Week 10

A

Genitalia have male/female characteristics

42
Q

When Rb protein comes unbound from this transcription factor, the cell can prepare to move from G-1 into S phase.

A

Transcription factor E2F

  • Cyclin D binds/activates CDK4 ->
  • Phosphorylation of RB protein ->
  • RB protein is released from transription factor E2F ->
  • with E2F unbound, the cell is free to transcribe/synthesize components needed for progression through the S phase (cyclin E, DNA polymerase, thymidine kinase, dihydrofolate reductase)
43
Q

When do endosomes become lysosomes?

A

Endosomes become lysosomes when hydrolytic enzymes enter.

44
Q

Organelle of critical importance for Neural tissue

A

Peroxisomes and Plasmalogens

Involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids

45
Q

What is a proteasome?

What are 3 ways proteins can be degraded?

A
  • Barrel-shaped protein complex
  • Degrades damaged or unnecessary proteins tagged for destruction with ubiquitin

3 ways to degrade protein:

  • Ubiquitin mechanism
  • Lysosome degradation
  • Calcium dependent enzyme - not in lysosome
46
Q

Rb protein and p53 regulate the cell cycle by

A

Preventing the Cell from Progressing From G1 Phase -> S Phase

47
Q

Staining of the following intermediate filament is useful to ID which cell type?

Vimentin

A
  • Connective tissue
  • Sarcomas
  • Some carcinomas
48
Q

Staining of the following intermediate filament is useful to ID which cell type?

Desmin

A
  • muscle
  • myosarcoma
49
Q

Staining of the following intermediate filament is useful to ID which cell type?

Cytokeratin

A
  • Epithelial cells
  • IDs Carcinomas
  • some sarcomas
50
Q

Staining of the following intermediate filament is useful to ID which cell type?

GFAP

A
  • NeuroGlia
  • Astocytomas
  • GBM
51
Q

Staining of the following intermediate filament is useful to ID which cell type?

Neurofilaments

A
  • Axons within Neurons
  • Adrenal neuroblastoma
  • Primitive neuroectodermal tumors (PNETs)

Note: Neurons can be IDed via peripherin

52
Q

Staining of the following intermediate filament is useful to ID which cell type?

Nuclear lamins (A,B,C)

Mutations in nuclar lamins result in what disease?

A

Nuclear envelope and DNA within

Example: Cyclin B and CDK1

Progeria - advanced cellular aging ( 5yo looks like an old man)

53
Q

Apoptosis cannot be initiated in the presence of severe DNA damage if this protein is mutated?

A

p53 - triggers apoptosis if DNA damage is present and the DNA repair process fails

54
Q

Bax

A

Pro-aptotic

55
Q

Bcl-2

A

Anti-apoptotic, if levels are reduced, intrinsic pathway of apoptosis occurs

56
Q

CD31

A

Prevents apoptosis (expressed on surface of healthy cells)

57
Q

Histologic features of apoptotic liver cells

A
  • Cell shrinkage
  • Pyknosis (basophilia)
  • Nuclear fragmentation(karyorrhexis)
  • Nuclear fading (karyolysis)
  • Membrane blebbing
  • Formation of apoptotic bodies
58
Q

Substances that can trigger apoptosis

A
  • Deprivation of growth factors,
  • Cell stress,
  • DNA is damaged and repair fails,
  • Cytokines (TNF) triggers apoptosis,
  • Cytotoxic T cells insert granzyme B
59
Q

Cellular particles responsible for handling oxygen free radicals are

A
  • catalase
  • Superoxide dismutase
  • Glutathion peroxidase
60
Q

What byproducts might e detected in the serum when the following cell type is injured:

Cardiac myocytes

A
  • CK
  • LDH
  • troponin
61
Q

What byproducts might e detected in the serum when the following cell type is injured:

Skeletal myocytes

A
  • CK
  • Aldolase
  • LDH
62
Q

What byproducts might e detected in the serum when the following cell type is injured:

Hepatocytes

A
  • AST
  • ALT
  • Alkaline phosphatase
  • GGT
63
Q

What byproducts might e detected in the serum when the following cell type is injured:

Salivary gland cells

A
  • Amylase
64
Q

What byproducts might e detected in the serum when the following cell type is injured:

Pancreatic exocrine cells

A
  • Amylase
  • Lipase (more specific)
65
Q

What byproducts might e detected in the serum when the following cell type is injured:

RBCs

A
  • LDH
  • Haptoglobin
  • bilirubin
66
Q

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome

A

abnormal LFA-1: Delayed separation of the umbilicus, recurrent bacterial infections

67
Q

Elevated ESR is especially seen in these diseases

A
  • Polymyalgia rheumatica
  • Temporal arteritis
  • Diseases activity in RA and SLE
  • Infection, Inflammation (osteomyelitis)
  • Malignancy

Reduced in

  • SCA
  • PCV
  • CHF
68
Q

Where can tissue stem cells be found in the Brain?

A

Neural precursor cells in the subventricular zone and dentate gyrus of the hippocampus

DIT Phase II Chapters (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions