Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the sites of absorption in the intestine for iron,

A

IRON = proximal duodenum
-> needs acidic environment

FOLIC acid = first 1/3 small intestine (duodenum/jejunum)

VITAMIN B12 = ileum
-> needs intrinsic factor

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2
Q

Which part of the small intestine has maximal absorption of zinc?

A

Proximal jejunum

All three segments (duodenum, jejunum and ileum) have the ability to absorb zinc

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3
Q

What is the MoA of cholera in producing diarrhoea?

A

(1) Cholera enterotoxin -> activation of ADENYLATE CYCLASE -> increase cAMP in intestinal epithelial cells
(2) cAMP on intestinal epithelial transport -> stimulation of active Cl secretion (crypts) and inhibition of Na-Cl absorption (villi)

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4
Q

Why is ORS important in treating cholera?

A

Cholera enterotoxin (cAMP) does NOT inhibit glucose-stimulated Na (and thus fluid) absorption

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5
Q

What is the MoA of ORS?

A

Glucose to stimulate Na and fluid absorption in the small intestine via cyclic AMP-independent process

Glucose absorption requires luminal Na -> absorption markedly enhanced by the presence of luminal glucose

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6
Q

Which part of the small intestine (microscopic) does electrolyte absorption vs secretion take place?

A

Electrolyte ABSORPTION = villi (peaks)

SECRETION = crypts

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7
Q

What is the major site of the intestine for absorption?

A

Jejunum

Majority of nutrient absorption takes place in jejunum, EXCEPT:

Iron = duodenum 
Folate = duodenum and jejunum 
Calcium = duodenum and upper jejunum (transcellular active transport process); throughout length of intestine (paracellular, passive process) 
Vitamin B12 = terminal ileum 
Bile salts = terminal ileum
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8
Q

Name the disaccharides and their components (monosaccharides)

A

Maltose = glucose + glucose

Lactose = glucose + galactose

Sucrose = glucose + fructose

*Remember, glucose in all; two of the three monosaccharides start with ‘G’

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9
Q

What syndromes are associated with Hirschsprung disease?

A
Mowat Wilson syndrome
Down syndrome (T21) 
Bardet-Biedl syndrome 
Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome 
Waardenburg syndrome
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10
Q

What are the symptoms caused by deficiency in the fat-soluble vitamins?

A

A = night blindness (late), scaly skin, infection susceptibility of epithelia (lung, GI, GU)
-> vitamin A involved in maintenance of epithelial functions

D = rickets, craniotabes (softening skull), rachitic rosary, growth plate widening

E = haemolysis (usually 2nd month life), neurologic manifestations (cerebellar disease, posterior column dysfunction, retinal disease)
-> vitamin E functions as in antioxidant

K = bleeding (GI, mucosal, cutaneous)
-> required for clotting factors

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11
Q

What is the initial finding (usually) in vitamin E deficiency?

A

Loss of deep tendon reflexes

-> limb ataxia, truncal ataxia, dysarthria, opthalmoplegia (limited UPward gaze), decreased proprioception

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12
Q

What is an example of diarrhoea getting worse with ORS instead of IVT?

A

Glucose-galactose malabsorption

Autosomal RECESSIVE disorder = inheritance of two defective copies of the SGLT1 gene (chromosome 22)

MoA = lack of transportation (the protein product of SGLT1) of the broken down lactose (into glucose and galactose by lactase) from the lumen into intestinal cells -> osmotic diarrhoea

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13
Q

What syndromes is coeliac disease associated with?

A

Down (T21)
Turner
William

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14
Q

What are the types of autoantibodies seen in autoimmune hepatitis type 1 vs. 2?

A

Type I

  1. Antinuclear (ANA) antibodies
  2. Anti-smooth muscle (anti-SMA) antibodies

Type II

  1. Antiliver-kidney microsomal-1 antibodies (anti-LKM-1)
  2. Antiliver cytosol-1 antibodies (anti-LC-1)

Both typically have hyPERGAMMAglobulinaemia (IgG levels >16g/L)

Type II > I in severity 
Type II (almost exclusively) female
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15
Q

What are the 3 Rome criteria functional disorders for abdominal pain?

A
FUNCTIONAL ABDOMINAL PAIN 
(school age) 
1. Periumbilical pain 
2. Normal growth 
3. Appetite not usually affected 
4. Symptoms better on weekend/vacation
5. Social stressors exacerbate
FUNCTIONAL DYSPEPSIA 
(school age/adolescent) 
1. Midepigastric 
2. Correlation to meals 
3. Normal growth 

IRRITABLE BOWEL

(adolescent)
1. Lower abdomen
2. Female
3. Pain improves with defacation
4. Frequent changes in stool caliber/frequency
5. Normal growth and appetite

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16
Q

What disease is abdominal pain that wakes from sleep typically seen in?

A

H. pylori infection

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17
Q

What are the major differences between omphalocele vs. gastroschisis?

A

OMPHALOCELE

  1. Central defect (umbilical ring)
  2. Covering membrane (peritoneal membrane internal, amniotic membrane external)
  3. Congenital anomalies (thoracoabdominal syndorme, BWS, lower midline syndrome, trisomies)
  4. Staged surgery
  5. +/- midgut volvulus
  6. Lower survival rate (affected by congenital)

GASTROSCHISIS

  1. Lateral (right) - accident involving right umbilical vein or omphalomesenteric artery
  2. No membrane
  3. Midgut volvulus
  4. Immediate surgery
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18
Q

Where are the two vomiting centers of the brain located?

A

Vomiting center (neural) = in the nucleus solitarius in MEDULLA

Chemoreceptor trigger zone (chemical) = floor of 4th ventricle

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19
Q

What is the best test for chronic vomiting?

A

Endoscopy

Main causes = oesophagitis, gastritis
Less common = duodenitis, giardiasis

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20
Q

What other disease is cyclic vomiting associated with?

A

Migraines

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21
Q

What is the treatment for cyclic vomiting?

A

Cyproheptadine (1st choice < 5 years)
Propanolol
Amitriptyline

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22
Q

Which grains contain gluten?

A

BRWS

B - barley
R - rye
W - wheat
S - spelt (a species of wheat)

Oats previously thought to be harmful - but appears to be from contamination with wheat flour
-> still included in gluten-free diet

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23
Q

Which patients are at high-risk for coeliacs?

A
  1. First and second-degree relatives with coeliacs
  2. Down syndrome (T21)
  3. T1DM
  4. Selective IgA deficiency
  5. Autoimmune thyroiditis
  6. Turner syndrome
  7. William syndrome
  8. Juvenile chronic arthritis
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24
Q

What is the best serologic test for diagnosis of coeliac disease?

A

IgA antibodies against tissue transglutaminase (tTG-IgA)

= highly specific, sensitive and cost-effective

OTHER
= IgA antibodies to endomysium (EMA)
-> as accurate as tTG-IgA, but more expensive and operator interpretation-dependent

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25
What does gluten react with in coeliac disease?
Intestinal damage due to immunological cross-reaction = reaction to human transglutaminase (hence serology test)
26
What lesion is pathognomonic for coeliac disease?
Dermatitis herpetiformis = itchy, vesicular rash -> erupts symmetrically on extensor surface of arms, legs and buttocks
27
What are the 2 mandatory requirements for diagnosis of coeliac disease?
1. Characteristic histology on small-intestine biopsy a) increased epithelial lymphocytes b) crypt hyperplasia c) villous atrophy 2. Complete clinical remission with a gluten-free diet
28
What is the enzyme that conjugated bilirubin in the liver (from unconjugated to conjugated)?
Glucuronyltransferase
29
Does Dubin-Johnson syndrome cause conjugated or unconjugated bilirubinaemia?
Conjugated = ABCC2 gene affected -> provides instructions for making a protein that transports bilirubin out of hepatocytes into bile -> accumulation in body
30
What is the most common genetic cause of liver disease in children?
Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency
31
What is giant cell hepatitis seen in?
Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency
32
What is periodic acid-Schiff positive staining of the liver seen in?
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
33
Are ceruloplasmin levels low or high in Wilson disease?
Low Failure of copper to be incorporated into ceruloplasmin leads to a plasma protein with shorter half life, and therefore reduced steady-state concentration of ceruloplasmin in the circulation Wilson = absence/malfunction of ATP7B -> decreased biliary copper excretion -> accumulation of copper in cytosol of hepatocytes
34
What is the difference between progressive familial intrahepatic cholestasis (PFIC) 1 and 2 vs. 3?
PFIC3 has elevated GGT, 1 and 2 do not PFIC = inherited disorders where bile is not properly formed
35
What is used for hepatitis A prophylaxis?
Hepatitis A vaccine OR immunoglobulin Given within 2 weeks of exposure HepA vaccine = preferred >/= 12 months IG = preferred < 12 months HepA vaccine given universally at 1 year of age -> protection for 20 years
36
Which hepatitis virus is DNA?
Hepatitis B
37
How do you interpret hepatitis B serology?
HepB SURFACE antigen = either carrier or early hepatitis B -> IgG antibodies to surface antigen means (1) past exposure; (2) immunity HepB CORE antigen = free core antigen does not circulate in serum -> antibodies (first IgM, then IgG) appears early in disease; persist for life = most reliable marker for previous exposure HepB e antigen = marker of actively replicating virus -> infectivity/inflammation -> found in serum
38
What is the first hepatitis B marker detectable in serum when infected?
HepB surface antigen 1. HBsAg (WINDOW PERIOD) 2. HBcAb Best test during window period = anti-HBc IgM
39
What autoimmune disease in hepatitis B associated with?
Polyarteritis nodosa
40
Which of the 2 hepatitis viruses cause chronic infection that potentially leads to cirrhosis and carcinoma?
Hepatitis B and C
41
What hepatitis virus requires a concomitant or previously existing HBV infection to become pathogenic?
Hepatitis D
42
What are the tests for each of the hepatitis viruses in an ACUTE infection?
Hepatitis A = IgM HAV Hepatitis B = HBsAg & IgM HBc (window period) Hepatitis C = anti-HCV antibody
43
What are the two types of exocrine secretory cells in the stomach?
PARIETAL = secrete HCl and intrinsic factor CHIEF = secrete pepsinogen and chymosin
44
Is celiac disease B cell or T cell mediated?
T-cell mediated chronic inflammatory disorder
45
What skin manifestation is pathognomonic for coeliac disease?
Dermatitis herpetiformis
46
What is the most common extraintestinal manifestation of coeliac disease?
Iron deficiency anaemia
47
What are examples of extraintestinal manifestations of coeliac disease?
``` THIAMINE/B12 DEFICIENCY Peripheral neuropathy Epilepsy Cerebral calcifications Cerebellar ataxia ``` AUTOIMMUNITY Dermatitis herpetiformis Alopecia Erythema nodosum (rare) CALCIUM/VIT D MALABSORPTION Short stature Secondary hyperparathyroidism OTHER Arthritis/arthralgia Cardiomegaly Aphthous stomatitis
48
What is the main cause of death in coeliac disease patients?
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
49
What histologic changes are seen on biopsy of intestine in coeliac disease?
Small bowel mucosal inflammation = short, often flattened, villi + crypt hyperplasia
50
What are the radiological findings of intussusception?
USS 1. 'Target' sign XR 1. Crescent sign = soft tissue density projecting into gas of large bowel 2. Obscured liver margin 3. Meniscus-shaped mass outlined by air in the colon
51
What anatomic structure marks the formal division between the first and second parts of the small intestine (i.e. duodenum and jejunum)?
Ligament of Trietz = normally to LEFT of spine (at level of gastric antrum) a.k.a. suspensory muscle of duodenum ***In malrotation, ligament is on right of spine + inferior to duodenal bulb -> thus contrast fills the jejunal loops on RIGHT side of abdomen
52
What is the 'rule of 2's' for Meckel diverticulum?
Present in 2% of population Located within 2 feet of ileocoecal valve Measures 2 inches in length Measures 2 cm in diameter 2:1 = M:F Usually symptomatic before 2 years of age
53
What is the main symptom of Meckel divertucula?
PAINLESS GI bleeding (bright red or maroon) = from ectopic gastric mucosa +/- colicky abdominal pain
54
How do you diagnose a Meckel diverticula?
Technetium-99m pertechnetate scan (a.k.a. Meckel scan) = technetium-99m pertechnetate concentrates in parietal cells of gastric mucosa and bladder -> +ve if uptake outside stomach and bladder
55
Is a Meckel diverticulum associated with other congenital abnormalities?
Yes ``` Oesophageal atresia (6x) Imperforate anus (5x) Neurologic anomalies (3x) Cardiovascular anomalies (2x) ```
56
Which of the following is associated with congenital anomalies - duodenal or jejunal atresia?
Duodenal (D)uodenum -> (D)own syndrome Also: cardiac, GU, anorectal, oesophageal
57
What disease has periodic acid -Schiff positive granules in the lamina propria (of intestine)?
Whipple disease = Tropheryma whipplei
58
Where is lactase found in the intestine?
On the brush border near the tips of the intestinal villa
59
What is the most common reliable diagnostic test for lactase deficiency?
Breath hydrogen test When carbs malabsorbed, bacteria in colon produce hydrogen gas -> absorbed across colon into blood and expired in lungs Abx give false -ve Too early rise in H+ = bacterial gut overgrowth
60
What are the different types of jejunoileal atresia?
4 types. Not associated with T21 Type 1 = mycosal obstruction cased by intraluminal membrane Type 2 (35%) = a solid, fibrous cord connects blind ends of the proximal and distal bowel Type 3 = blind ends of distal and proximal bowel separated by small (type IIIa) and extensive (type IIIb) mesenteric defects Type 4 = multiple segments of bowel atresia