Gastro Flashcards
Complications of Crohn’s?
small bowel cancer
colorectal cancer
osteoporosis
Indications for surgery in Crohn’s?
around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease will eventually have surgery
stricturing terminal ileal disease → ileocaecal resection
segmental small bowel resections
stricturoplasty
perianal fistulae
perianal abscess
acute GI bleed
what is the M rule for PBC?
IgM
anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, M2 subtype
Middle aged females
Clinical features of PBC?
early: may be asymptomatic (e.g. raised ALP on routine LFTs) or fatigue, pruritus
cholestatic jaundice
hyperpigmentation, especially over pressure points
around 10% of patients have right upper quadrant pain
xanthelasmas, xanthomata
also: clubbing, hepatosplenomegaly
late: may progress to liver failure
Mx of PBC?
- first-line: ursodeoxycholic acid
slows disease progression and improves symptoms - pruritus: cholestyramine
- fat-soluble vitamin supplementation
- add prednisolone if associated autoimmune disease
- liver transplantation
e.g. if bilirubin > 100 (PBC is a major indication)
recurrence in graft can occur but is not usually a problem
Complications of PBC?
cirrhosis → portal hypertension → ascites, variceal haemorrhage
osteomalacia and osteoporosis
significantly increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma (20-fold increased risk)
Ix/ diagnosis of PBC?
Bloods:
cholestatic liver biochemistry (raised GGT/ALP, normal transaminases)
immunology:
anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype are present in 98% of patients and are highly specific
Anti-SMA in 30% of patients
raised serum IgM
imaging:
required before diagnosis to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction (typically a right upper quadrant ultrasound or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)
What is PBC?
Bile ducts damaged by a chronic inflammatory process causing progressive cholestasis
which conditions are associated with PBC?
Sjogren’s syndrome (seen in up to 80% of patients)
rheumatoid arthritis
systemic sclerosis
thyroid disease
Alcoholic ketoacidosis biochemistry?
Metabolic ketoacidosis with normal or low glucose: Metabolic acidosis Elevated anion gap Elevated serum ketone levels Normal or low glucose concentration
Mx alcoholic ketoacidosis?
infusion of saline and thiamine
What is the most common cause of hepatocellular carcinoma?
Chronic hepatitis B is the most common cause of HCC worldwide
chronic hepatitis C is the most common cause in Europe.
What are the main risk factors for HCC?
liver cirrhosis, for example secondary to: hepatitis B & C alcohol haemochromatosis primary biliary cirrhosis
Management HCC?
early disease: surgical resection liver transplantation radiofrequency ablation transarterial chemoembolisation sorafenib: a multikinase inhibitor
Who is screened for HCC?
patients liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis B & C or haemochromatosis
men with liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol
+ AFP screening as raised in HCC
What is the management of a variceal bleed?
ABC: patients should ideally be resuscitated prior to endoscopy
correct clotting: FFP, vitamin K
vasoactive agents: terlipressin
prophylactic IV antibiotics: quinolone
both terlipressin and antibiotics should be given before endoscopy in patients with suspected variceal haemorrhage
endoscopy: endoscopic variceal band ligation
Sengstaken-Blakemore tube if uncontrolled haemorrhage
Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) if above measures fail
Variceal bleed prophylaxis?
propranolol: reduced rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo
endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) - should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated
Proton pump inhibitor cover
what is seen on barium enema of UC?
loss of haustrations
superficial ulceration, ‘pseudopolyps’
long standing disease: colon is narrow and short -‘drainpipe colon’
what is the most most common organism found on ascitic fluid culture in SBP?
E.coli
What are the features of SBP?
Ascites
abdominal pain
fever
How do you diagnose SBP?
USS to confirm ascites
paracentesis: neutrophil count > 250 cells/ul
MCS: the most common organism found on ascitic fluid culture is E. coli
what is the management of SBP?
Piptazobactam or cefotaxime
prophylaxis: ciprofloxacin + propanolol
when should antibiotic prophylaxis be given to patients with ascites?
Antibiotic prophylaxis should be given to patients with ascites if:
patients who have had an episode of SBP
patients with fluid protein <15 g/l and either Child-Pugh score of at least 9 or hepatorenal syndrome
NICE recommend: ‘Offer prophylactic oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin for people with cirrhosis and ascites with an ascitic protein of 15 g/litre or less until the ascites has resolved’
What vaccine should those with coeliac disease get annually?
pneumococcal due to hyposplenism
Coeliac UK recommends that everyone with coeliac disease is vaccinated against pneumococcal infection and has a booster every 5 years
Currrent guidelines suggest giving the influenza vaccine on an individual basis
what are the risk factors for Barrett’s oesophagus?
gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is the single strongest risk factor
male gender (7:1 ratio)
smoking
central obesity
What is Barrett’s oesophagus?
Barrett’s refers to the metaplasia of the lower oesophageal mucosa, with the usual squamous epithelium being replaced by columnar epithelium.
What are the three conditions causing ischemia to the lower GI tract?
acute mesenteric ischaemia
chronic mesenteric ischaemia
ischaemic colitis
What are the risk factors for bowel ischaemia?
increasing age
atrial fibrillation - particularly for mesenteric ischaemia
other causes of emboli: endocarditis, malignancy
cardiovascular disease risk factors: smoking, hypertension, diabetes
cocaine: ischaemic colitis is sometimes seen in young patients following cocaine use
What are the features of ischaemic bowel?
abdominal pain physical exam findings rectal bleeding diarrhoea fever bloods typically show an elevated white blood cell count associated with a lactic acidosis
What is the management of acute mesenteric ischaemia?
urgent surgery is usually required
poor prognosis, especially if surgery delayed
What causes acute mesenteric ischaemia?
embolism resulting in occlusion of an artery which supplies the small bowel
classically history of af
What is chronic mesenteric ischaemia?
Colickly, intermittent abdominal pain occurs
‘intestinal angina’
non specific
What is the management of ischaemic colitis?
- usually supportive
- surgery may be required in a minority of cases if conservative measures fail. Indications would include generalised peritonitis, perforation or ongoing haemorrhage
What investigations are done for ischaemic colitis?
Investigations
‘thumbprinting’ may be seen on abdominal x-ray due to mucosal oedema/haemorrhage
Where is ischaemic colitis most likely to occur?
‘watershed’ areas such as the splenic flexure that are located at the borders of the territory supplied by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries.
What is ischaemic colitis?
Ischaemic colitis describes an acute but transient compromise in the blood flow to the large bowel. This may lead to inflammation, ulceration and haemorrhage.
What are some adverse effects of metoclopramide?
extrapyramidal effects: oculogyric crisis. This is particularly a problem in children and young adults
hyperprolactinaemia
tardive dyskinesia
parkinsonism
should also be avoided in bowel obstruction due to prokinesis
what are the complications of coeliac disease?
anaemia: iron, folate and vitamin B12 deficiency (folate deficiency is more common than vitamin B12 deficiency in coeliac disease)
hyposplenism
osteoporosis, osteomalacia
lactose intolerance
enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of small intestine
subfertility, unfavourable pregnancy outcomes
rare: oesophageal cancer, other malignancies
what is seen on duodenal biopsy in coeliac?
complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa
marked crypt hyperplasia
Intraepithelial lymphocytosis
Dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria.
coeliac associated conditions?
Autoimmune thyroid disease Dermatitis herpetiformis Irritable bowel syndrome Type 1 diabetes First-degree relatives (parents, siblings or children) with coeliac disease
S/S coeliac?
Chronic or intermittent diarrhoea
Failure to thrive or faltering growth (in children)
Persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms including nausea and vomiting
Prolonged fatigue (‘tired all the time’)
Recurrent abdominal pain, cramping or distension
Sudden or unexpected weight loss
Unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia, or other unspecified anaemia
What does a high SAAG indicate?
A high SAAG (>11g/L)
portal hypertension and the ascitic fluid is a transudate. liver cirrhosis/failure/mets -> most common
right heart failure, pericarditis
hepatic failure
venous occlusion (e.g. Budd Chiari syndrome)
alcoholic hepatitis
myxoedema
What does a low SAAG indicate?
A low SAAG (<11g/L) ascitic fluid is an exudate. malignancy infection pancreatitis nephrotic syndrome bowel obstruction
what is the management of ascites?
reduce dietary sodium fluid restriction if sodium <125 spironolactone drainage if tense ascites paracentesis prophylactic ciprofloxacin TIPS
What is the Child pugh score for?
Child–Pugh score is used to assess the prognosis of chronic liver disease, mainly cirrhosis
What is the triad of liver failure?
encephalopathy, jaundice and coagulopathy
What are some causes of acute liver failure?
paracetamol overdose
alcohol
viral hepatitis (usually A or B)
acute fatty liver of pregnancy
what are some features of acute liver failure?
jaundice coagulopathy: raised prothrombin time hypoalbuminaemia hepatic encephalopathy renal failure is common ('hepatorenal syndrome')
What is the best way to assess ‘synthetic liver function’?
PT
albumin level
What is type 1 hepatorenal syndrome?
Type 1 is a rapid onset hepatorenal syndrome (less than two weeks). This typically occurs following an acute event such as an upper GI bleed
What is type 2 hepatorenal syndrome?
Type 2 is a more gradual decline in renal function and is generally associated with refractory ascites
What is the pathophysiology behind hepatorenal syndrome?
vasoactive mediators cause splanchnic vasodilation which in turn reduces the systemic vascular resistance. This results in ‘underfilling’ of the kidneys.
What are the features of type 1 hepatorenal syndrome?
Rapidly progressive
Doubling of serum creatinine to > 221 µmol/L or a halving of the creatinine clearance to less than 20 ml/min over a period of less than 2 weeks
Very poor prognosis
What are the features of type 2 hepatorenal syndrome?
Slowly progressive
Prognosis poor, but patients may live for longer
What is the management of hepatorenal syndrome?
vasopressin analogues, for example terlipressin, have a growing evidence base supporting their use. They work by causing vasoconstriction of the splanchnic circulation
volume expansion with 20% albumin
transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt
What is the most common type of pancreatic cancer?
adenocarcinoma at the head of the pancreas (80%)
What are the associations with pancreatitis?
increasing age smoking diabetes chronic pancreatitis (alcohol does not appear an independent risk factor though) hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma multiple endocrine neoplasia BRCA2 gene KRAS gene mutation
What are the investigations for pancreatic cancer?
ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90%
high-resolution CT scanning is the investigation of choice
imaging may demonstrate the ‘double duct’ sign - the presence of simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts
What is courvoisiers law?
in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice, a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones
What is the management of pancreatic cancer?
less than 20% are suitable for surgery at diagnosis
a Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) is performed for resectable lesions in the head of pancreas. Side-effects of a Whipple’s include dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease
adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery
ERCP with stenting is often used for palliation
How do you calculate units in a drink?
multiply the number of millilitres by the ABV and divide by 1,000. For example:
what are some features of hepatic encephalopathy?
confusion, altered GCS
asterix: ‘liver flap’, arrhythmic negative myoclonus with a frequency of 3-5 Hz
constructional apraxia: inability to draw a 5-pointed star
triphasic slow waves on EEG
raised ammonia level
what is the grading of hepatic encephalopathy?
Grade I: Irritability
Grade II: Confusion, inappropriate behaviour
Grade III: Incoherent, restless
Grade IV: Coma
What may precipitate hepatic encephalopathy?
infection e.g. spontaneous bacterial peritonitis GI bleed post transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt constipation drugs: sedatives, diuretics hypokalaemia renal failure increased dietary protein (uncommon)
What is the management of hepatic encephalopathy?
treat any underlying precipitating cause
NICE recommend lactulose first-line + rifaximin for the secondary prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy
embolisation of portosystemic shunts
liver transplantation in selected patients
How is the severity of flares in UC assessed?
Mild: <4 stools/day little blood
Moderate: 4-6 s/d, varying blood
Severe: >6 bloody stools, systemic upset
Which criteria may be used to assess severity of IBD
True-Love and Witt’s
what are the investigations for IBD?
bloods: FBC, U&E, CRP, LFTs, pANCA stool cultures, scope, colonoscopy faecal calprotectin barium or gastrograffin enema acute - CTAP
C-reactive protein correlates well with disease activity IN Crohn’s
Extra-intestinal manifestations of IBD?
A PIE SAC aphthous ulcer [CD>UC] pyoderma gangrenosum eye - iritis, uveitis, episcleritis [CD>CD] erythema nodosum sclerosis cholangitis [UC] arthritis clubbing [CD>UC]
What are the symptoms of Crohn’s?
non bloody diarrhoea RIF mass gallstones anal fissures perianal skin tags
what is the pattern of inflammation in Crohn’s
skip lesions
rose thorn ulcers
cobblestoning
string sign of Kantor (narrow ileum stricture)
What are the symptoms of UC?
bloody diarrhoea + mucous diarrhoea
LIF pain
nocturnal incontinence
tenesmus
what is the pattern of inflammation in UC?
Continuous lead pipe pseudo polyps thumb printing PSC CRC risk higher in UC
How does Crohn’s affect the gut layer?
transmural (goblet,granulomas)
How does UC affect the gut later?
mucosa and submucosa (goblet cells, crypt abscess)
How do you induce remission in Crohn’s
Pharmacological:
mild: oral prednisolone 300 mg
severe: IV hydrocortisone - no improvement after 5 days -> IV infliximab.
Distal ileal, ileo-caecal, R sided colonic -> oral budesonide
Nutritional:
Whole protein modular diet for 6-8w
How do you maintain remission in Crohn’s?
STOP SMOKING
1: DMARDs (azathioprine, mercaptopurine)
2: vaccines (no live - pneumococcal, influenza)
alternative: aminosalicylates, anti-TNF abs in infliximab
What needs to be checked before starting a patient on azathioprine/6MP?
TPMT levels
use methotrexate instead if low
what is the management of UC?
1: distal colitis: topical aminosalicylates (4w) -> oral +/- topical
extensive colitis past splenic flexure: topical + oral aminosalicylates
2: topical -> oral beclomethasone
3: oral tacrolimus
4: biologics (infliximab, adalimumab)
5: surgery
what is the management of severe UC?
Fulminant: IV steroids +/- ciclosporin/infliximab (if not improvement in 72h then colectomy)
Non fulminant: topical aminosalicylates + oral + oral corticosteroid
after severe or >=2 exacerbations in past year -> oral azathioprine or 6MP
what surgery is used in UC?
- emergency: Hartmann’s proctosigmoidectomy + end ileostomy + later ileal pouch anal anastomosis (IPAA)
- proctocolectomy + IPAA
- panproctocolectomy + end ileostomy
What surgery is used in Crohn’s?
proctectomy (not that useful)
What is the classic presentation of IBS?
young female, anxious, stressed and may have depression, pain , bloating, diarrhoea/constipation
How is IBS diagnosed?
Diagnosis of exclusion based on ROME III criteria
- improvement with defecation
- change in stool frequency
- change in stool form/appearance/consistency
What is the management of IBS?
1: Diet and lifestyle
2nd: meds
What causes haemorrhoids?
displacement of anal cushions via gravity, straining and increased anal tone
What are the types of haemorrhoids?
1: in rectum after defecation
2: prolapse through anus at defecation, spontaneous reduction
3: prolapse through anus at defecation, manual reduction
4: persistently prolapsed
What are the investigations for haemorrhoids?
abdo exam
DRE
proctoscopy, sigmoidoscopy
what is the management of haemorrhoids?
1: increased fluids/fibre, stool softener, topical analgesics, steroids
2: rubber band ligation, sclerotherapy, electrotherapy, infraredcoagulation
3: haemorrhoidectomy, haemorrhoidopexy, HALF
What is the treatment for botulinum gastroenteritis?
anti-toxin
What is the treatment for c.diff
metronidazole
vancomycin
what is the treatment for listeria ?
amoxicillin
ampicillin
What is the treatment for salmonella typhi/paratyphi?
ceftriaxone initially
switch to cipro if sensitive
What is the treatment for vibrio parahaemolyticus?
doxycycline
What is the treatment for vibrio vulnificus?
doxycycline
What is the treatment for severe campylobacter jejune?
SL
treat if severe-> clarithromycin or cipro
What is the treatment for entamoeba histolytic?
metronidazole
paromomycin
What is the treatment for giardiasis lamblia?
metronidazole
What is the treatment for cryptosporidium parvum?
paromomycin
What is coeliac?
autoimmunity to gliadin (in gluten, wheat, barley and rye) -> shorter villi and flat mucosa
what genetic associations does coeliac have?
HLA DQ2 and DQ8
S/S of coeliac?
pathogneumonic = dermatitis herpetiformis (pruritic papulovesicular elbow/knee rash)
watery, grey, frothy stool
IDA >folate def >B12 def
where is iron absorbed?
duodenum
where is folate absorbed?
jejunum
where is b12 absorbed?
ileum
what are the investigations for coeliac?
IgA TTG
If IgA deficient - do IgGDGP
IgA EMA is helpful but less sensitive
FBC, BLOOD SMEAR (iron def, vit b12/folate def, vit D def,)
What is seen on blood smear in coeliac?
target cells
howell Jolly bodies
How is diagnosis of coeliac confirmed?
OGD + duodenal biopsy
very young children: EMA and HLA DQ2/DQ8 testing
What is seen on duodenal biopsy in coeliac?
villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increased IELs
What is the management of coeliac?
MDT
remove all wheat, rye and barley for life
dietician referral - annual 6-12m review
education
warn of non adherence: micronutrient deficiency, osteoporosis, EATL, hyposplenism.
what is the gold standard investigation for oesophageal cancer?
endoscopy + biopsy
What is the most common type of oesophageal cancer?
adenocarcinoma
what are the features of oesophageal cancer?
dysphagia: the most common presenting symptom
anorexia and weight loss
vomiting
other possible features include: odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, cough
RF: Barrett’s oesophagus, GORD, excessive smoking or alcohol use
how is oesophageal cancer diagnosed?
Upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is used for diagnosis
Endoscopic ultrasound is the preferred method for locoregional staging
CT scanning of the chest, abdomen and pelvis is used for initial staging
FDG-PET CT may be used for detecting occult metastases if metastases are not seen on the initial staging CT scans.
Laparoscopy is sometimes performed to detect occult peritoneal disease
what is the management of oesophageal cancer?
Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection - the most common procedure is an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy
The biggest surgical challenge is that of anastomotic leak, with an intrathoracic anastomosis resulting in mediastinitis
In addition to surgical resection many patients will be treated with adjuvant chemotherapy
what investigations can be used for appendicitis?
Mostly diagnosed clinically CT abdo/USS Urinalysis: mildly elevated leukocytes DRE: right sided pain bloods: increased inflammatory markers, increased WCC
what score can be used to grade appendicitis?
Alvarado score
What are the S/S of appendicitis?
Rovsings sign
Cope’s sign
Psoas sign - retrocaecael appendix
Rebound tenderness
N&V
loose stools
anorexia
mild pyrexia
What is the management of acute appendicitis?
IV abx alone are successful in majority but expect recurrence within 12m
laparoscopic appendicectomy
perforation -> abdominal lavage
appendix mass -> broad spectrum abx and interval appendicectomy
What is Admirands triangle?
conditions for crystallised cholesterol and gallstones
- low lecithin
- low bile salts
- high cholesterol
What is acute cholecystitis?
inflammation of gallbladder often due to stone impaction in hartmann’s pouch
What is the sequelae of acute cholecystitis?
- resolution and recurrence
- gangrene and rarely perforation
- chronic cholecystitis
- empyema
what is the presentation of acute cholecystitis?
RUQ pain - may radiate to scapula and epigastrium
fever
vomiting
what blood results are seen in acute cholecystitis?
ALT/AST normal
BR normal
amylase slightly high
ALP slightly high