Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AY Gastrointestinal > Gastric Disease & microbiology > Flashcards

Gastric Disease & microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

3 types of gastric cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma (H. pylori)
Lymphoma
GISTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Clinical presentation of gastric cancer

A 
Dyspepsia 
Abdominal pain 
Vomiting 
Dysplasia 
Early satiety 
Weight loss
Abdominal mass
Jaundice 
Paraneoplastic syndromes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Physical examination findings of gastric cancer

A

Weight loss
Lymph nodes
Abdominal mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Investigation for.suspected gastric cancer

A

Endoscopy & biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Imagin studies for gastric cancer

A

Barium meal

CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Alarm features for gastric/oesophageal cancer

A 
> 55 years of age 
Dysphasia 
Evidence of GI blood loss 
Persistent vomiting 
Unexplained weight loss 
Upper abdominal mass 
Anaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

First line treatment for gastric cancer

A

Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment of inoperable gastric cancer

A

Radiotherapy

Chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Contraindications for surgery in gastric cancer patients

A

Widely metastatic disease
Malignant ascites
Brief life expectancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

5 year survival rate for gastric cancer

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is dyspepsia?

A

Disordered digestion usually associate with pain or discomfort in the lower chest abdomen after eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Causes of dyspepsia

A 
Non-ulcer and dyspepsia 
Oesophagitis/GORD 
Duodenal/gastric ulcer 
Gastric malignancy 
Duodenitis 
Gastritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Risk factors for gastric ulcers

A 
Smoking 
Alcohol 
Age 
NSAIDs 
GORD
Stress
Delayed gastric emptying
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Symptoms of gastric ulcers

A

Epigastric pain related to meals
Relieved by antacids
Weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Investigation for peptic ulcer

A

Endoscopy & biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you check healing of peptic ulcer?

A

Further endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How long after treating the cause of a peptic ulcer do you review the patient?

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If after 4 weeks the peptic ulcer is still there what do you do next?

A

Test for H. pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the treatment to eradicate H. pylori?

A

PPI
Amoxicillin (metronidazole if allergic)
Clarythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If a peptic ulcer shows no improvement but the H. pylori test is negative what is the next step of treatment?

A

PPIs (omeprazole) or H2 blockers (ranitidine) for 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is gastroparesis?

A

Delayed gastric emptying not caused by obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Symptoms of gastroparesis

A 
Bloating 
Feeling of fullness 
Vomiting 
Weight loss 
Abdominal pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In surgery for gastric cancer when is a partial and total gastrectomy performed?

A

Total gastrectomy for proximal lesions

Partial gastrectomy for distal lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are causes of acute gastritis?

A

Trauma
Chemicals
Burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 3 main causes of chronic gastritis?

A

Chemical
Bacterial
Autoimmune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens in autoimmune gastritis?

A

Antibodies attack parietal cells and intrinsic factor and can lead to pernicious anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most common bacteria that causes gastritis?

A

H. Pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where does H. pylori like to reside?

A

Between the epithelial cell surface and mucosal barrier here it can cause inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which chemicals are the most common cause of chemical gastritis?

A

NSAIDs
Bile reflux
Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does chemical insult affect the stomach?

A

Destroys the lipid bilayer causing inflammation, hyperplasia and ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is food poisoning?

A

Illness caused by eating food contaminated with micro-organisms, toxins, poisons etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the important questions in the history when thinking of food poisoning?

A 
Diarrhoea (blood? Colour? Quantity?) 
Travels?
Suspect food? 
Anyone else I'll? 
Time from ingestion of suspect food? 
Age of patient? 
Underlying medical problems?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How long is a short incubation period?

A

1-6 hours

34
Q

What bacteria have a short incubation time?

A

Staph aureus

Bacillus cereus

35
Q

What is the more common presentation of short incubation food poisoning?

A

Abdominal pain
Vomiting
(acts on vomiting centre in brain)

36
Q

How long is a medium intubation period for bacteria in food poisoning?

A

12-48 hours

37
Q

What bacteria have a medium intubation period?

A

Salmonella

Cl perfrigens

38
Q

What is a common presentation of medium/long intubation food poisoning?

A

Diarrhoea - often bloody

Toxin in gut

39
Q

How long is a long intubation period for bacteria in food poisoning?

A

2-14 days

40
Q

What bacteria have long intubation periods?

A

Campylobacter

E. coli 0157

41
Q

How is bacteria identified in food poisoning?

A

Stool culture

42
Q

Clinical presentation of campylobacter?

A

Pain
PR blood
Fever

43
Q

Treatment of campylobacter

A

Ciprofloxacin/erythromycin

44
Q

What is the intubation period of campylobacter?

A

16-48 hours

45
Q

What is the intubation period of salmonella?

A

12-48 hours

46
Q

Clinical presentation of salmonella

A

Diarrhoea and vomiting
Blood
Fever

47
Q

Treatment of salmonella

A

Ciprofloxacin

48
Q

What is the most common presenting complaint with E. coli 0157?

A

Bloody diarrhoea

49
Q

Which 2 patient groups are most at risk of complications of E. coli 0157?

A

Children & the elderly

50
Q

E. coli can be transmitted from person to person. True/False.

A

True.

E. coli can be transmitted through direct or indirect contact.

51
Q

What is the incubation period of E. coli 0157?

A

1-14 days

52
Q

What dangerous toxin do some strains of E. coli produce?

A

Verotoxin

53
Q

What does verotoxin do?

A

Binds to receptors on renal cells, RBC & others inhibiting protein synthesis and causes cell death

54
Q

What is haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

A condition in which sudden rapid destruction of red blood cells causes acute renal failure due partly to obstruction of small arteries in the kidneys. Causes a reduction in the number of platelets lead to haemorrhage.

55
Q

Clinical presentation of HUS

A 
Abdominal pain 
Fever 
Pallor 
Petechaie 
Oliguria 
Bloody diarrhoea (may develop after diarrhoea has stopped)
56
Q

Blood results of HUS

A

High white cells
Low platelets
Low Hb
Red cell fragments

57
Q

Investigations for HUS

A 
Stool culture 
FBC
Urine 
U+E's 
Lactate dehydrogenase
58
Q

What do you not give to patients with HUS?

A

NO antibiotics
NO anti-motility agents
NO NSAIDs

59
Q

What virus is most common in kids

A

Rotavirus

60
Q

Clinical presentation of rotavirus

A

Moderate fever
First vomiting then diarrhoea
Not bloody

61
Q

Treatment for rotavirus

A

Self limiting

Lasts a week

62
Q

How to diagnose rotavirus?

A

PCR of faeces

63
Q

Can norovirus be transmitted from person to person?

A

Yes

64
Q

Symptoms of norovirus

A

D&V - explosive and sudden

Stomach cramps

65
Q

How long is the incubation period for norovirus?

A
66
Q

Investigations to diagnose norovirus

A

PCR of stool

PCR of vomit

67
Q

Treatment of norovirus

A

Usually self limiting

Hydration is key

68
Q

What can C. diff be a side effect of?

A

Antibiotic treatment

69
Q

Antibiotics that cause C. diff

A

Cephlaosporins
Clindamycin
PeniCillins

70
Q

Investigation of C. diff

A

Stool culture
FBC
CRP

71
Q

Treatment of non severe C. diff

A

Metronidazole 400mg (10 days)

72
Q

Treatment of severe C. diff

A

Vancomycin +/- metronidazole

73
Q

Contact precautions of infection

A 
Single room 
Hand washing 
Single use items 
Apron 
Gloves
74
Q

3 types of travel related diarrhoea

A

Amoebiasis
Giardiasis
Cryptosporidosis

75
Q

Treatment of travellers diarrhoea

A

Fluids up to 93 hours

Single dose of ciprofloxacjn and short term anti-diarroheals
azithromycin if resistant to ciprofloxacin

76
Q

How to diagnose amoebiasis?

A

Examination of hot stool for ova & cysts

77
Q

Treatment of amoebiasis

A

Metronidazole

78
Q

Where can amoebiasis cause abscesses?

A

Liver

79
Q

How to diagnose giardiasis?

A

Examination of stools for ova & cysts but more accurately by duodenum aspiration

80
Q

Treatment of giardiasis

A

Metronidazole

81
Q

How to diagnose Cryptosporidosis?

A

Duodenal aspirate

Stool

82
Q

Treatment of Cryptosporidosis?

A

Supportive

Antimicrobials virtually ineffective

AY Gastrointestinal (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions