Gait Flashcards

1
Q

As indicated in Figure 12-12, during the swing phase of walking the hip experiences (compression) forces of about 10–20% of body weight. What causes this force?

A

During the swing phase of walking, the forces from the contracting hip flexor muscles compress

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2
Q

Justify how bilateral tightness in the adductor longus and brevis could contribute to excessive lumbar lordosis while standing.

A

Because the adductor longus and adductor brevis are also hip flexors, their bilateral tightness may be expressed as an exaggerated anterior pelvic tilt, at least while standing. An increased anterior pelvic tilt is associated with an increased lumbar lordosis.

ad of the femur against the acetabulum.

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3
Q

Explain why the patellofemoral joint is least mechanically stable in the last 20 to 30 degrees of knee extension.

A

At the last 20–30 degrees of full knee extension, the patella is less stable and more susceptible to lateral dislocation because (a) it is less physically engaged within the trochlear groove of the femur, (b) the Q-angle is greatest owing to the external rotation component of the screw-home mechanism, and (c) the compression forces due to quadriceps contraction are relatively low at the patellofemoral joint.

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4
Q

. Why do most persons have slightly greater active knee flexion range of motion with the hip fully flexed as compared to fully extended?

A

First, performing active (or passive) knee flexion from a position of full hip extension creates increased passive tension in the elongated rectus femoris. This increased passive tension naturally opposes knee flexion. Second, performing active knee flexion with the hip in full extension requires that the hamstrings function at an overly shortened length. The shortened length reduces the muscle’s ability to actively flex the knee, especially against the increased passive tension generated by the stretched rectus femoris.

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5
Q

What is the primary mechanism by which the menisci reduce pressure across the articular surfaces of the knee?

A

The menisci reduce pressure across the articular surfaces of the knee by increasing the fit and contact area between the tibia and femur. This protective function requires that the menisci are securely attached to the intercondylar area of the tibia.

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6
Q

Which of the following activities create greater compression stress (pressure) on the articular surfaces of the patellofemoral joint: (a) maintain holding a partial squat with knees flexed to 10–20 degrees or (b) holding a deeper squat with knees flexed to 60–90 degrees? Why?

A

Holding a deeper squat creates greater joint compression stress on the patellofemoral joint because of the increased force demands placed on the quadriceps in conjunction with the reduced knee joint angle. As shown in Figure 13-28B, the greater knee flexion increases the sum of the quadriceps and patellar tendon forces that oppose the patellofemoral joint.

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7
Q

Which structures (joints and connective tissues) bind the fibula to the tibia?

A

The fibula and tibia are bounded by the interosseous membrane and ligament, the anterior tibiofibular ligament, and the posterior tibiofibular ligament.

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8
Q

Describe the roll-and-slide arthrokinematics of dorsiflexion at the talocrural joint with the foot free (Figure 14-18A) and with the foot fixed (Figure 14-2

A

With the foot free, dorsiflexion occurs by an anterior roll and posterior slide of the talus. (To help visualize the rolling of the talus, it may be helpful to follow the rotation of an imaginary point on the inferior aspect of the bone rather than on its superior [trochlear] surface.) With the foot fixed, dorsiflexion occurs by an anterior roll and anterior slide of the tibia and fibula (concave segment of the mortise) relative to the talus.

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9
Q

Which part of the gait cycle requires greater dorsiflexion at the talocrural joint: the stance phase or the swing phase?

A

Dorsiflexion of the ankle is greatest during the stance phase, at about 40% of the gait cycle (Figure 14-19). This maximal range of dorsiflexion occurs just before the initiation of the push off phase of the gait cycle.

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10
Q

Why do the medial collateral ligament and the medial meniscus often become traumatized by a similar mechanism of injury?

A

The deeper fibers of the medial collateral ligament attach partially to the medial meniscus. Excessive tension applied to this ligament during an excessive and combined valgus and axial rotation stress to the knee, for example, may be transferred to the medial meniscus, possibly creating injury.

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11
Q

. Describe how contraction of the quadriceps muscle could elongate (strain) the anterior cruciate ligament. How is the strain on the ligament affected by (a) the knee joint angle and (b) the magnitude of quadriceps and hamstring muscle coactivation?

A

An isolated contraction of the quadriceps can create an anterior force on the proximal tibia that elongates and therefore increases the tension and length in the ACL. In general, the tension in the ACL is proportional to the contractile force in the quadriceps. The magnitude of the muscular-based tension in the ACL increases as the knee moves closer to full extension because the quadriceps produces a greater anterior translation force on the tibia (based on the increased angle of insertion of the patellar tendon onto the tibia). Because of the unloading effect of hamstring activation on the ACL, coactivation of the quadriceps and hamstring muscles reduces the tension on the ACL, bringing it close to zero at knee angles greater than 30 degrees of flexion.

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12
Q

Describe the timing and type of muscular activity of the quadriceps muscle during the early part of the stance phase of gait.

A

During the early part of the stance phase of gait, the quadriceps are active eccentrically to control the slight flexion of the knee. This muscular action helps absorb the impact of the lower limb striking the ground.

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13
Q

Gait cycle:

Starts at _____ ______ (heel strike)

100% complete when same _____ starts again

A

heel contact

foot

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14
Q

_________ = events taking place between heel contacts of same foot (length is the distance)

A

stride

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15
Q

_______ = events taking place between heel contacts of opposite feet (length is the distance)

A

step

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16
Q

_______ _______ = lateral distance between heel centers of 2 successive heel contacts – avg 8-10 cm

A

step width

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17
Q

_______ _________ or “_____ ______ __________ ________” = line of progression and long axis of foot (5-7 degrees)

A

foot angle
toe out progression angle

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18
Q

__________ = # of steps per minute (step rate)

A

cadence

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19
Q

____ _______ = the time for a full gait cycle

A

stride time

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20
Q

______ ______ the time for completion of a step

A

step time

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21
Q

_________ ________ distance covered in a given time usually in meters per second m/s or mph. Speed may be one of the best functional measure of walking ability.

A

walking speed

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22
Q

A healthy adult gait cycle ( ____ steps) = ____ feet in > ____ sec or _____m/sec

A

2
4.5
1
1.37

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23
Q

Women have a slower ______ but shorter _____ _____ with faster cadence

A

speed
step length

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24
Q

_______ phase: R toe off until R heel contact 40%

A

Swing

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25
Q

______ phase: R heel contact/R heel off) 60%

A

Stance

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26
Q

2 times of ______ stance and 2 times of ______ ______ stance

A

double
single leg

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27
Q

As speed increases % with gait, _______ stance shortens

A

double

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28
Q

During running, ______ ______ support disappears- and there are periods where _____ are off the ground

(_____-______ m/sec goes walk to run)

A

double limb

both

2.1; 2.2

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29
Q

5 events during stance
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

A

Heel contact
Foot flat
Midstance
Heel off
Toe off

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30
Q

Heel contact- __%
Foot flat - ____%
Midstance - ______%
Heel off ____-______%
Toe off _____%

A

0
8
30
30; 40
60

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31
Q

Mid is at stance of ________ LE

A

contralateral

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32
Q
A
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33
Q
A
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34
Q

Pelvis- it rotates _______ with heel strike

____-_____ degrees of ant/post tilt (____- on- _______ F/E and ______-on-_______ F/E) *tight hip flexors

A

posterior
2; 4
pelvic; femoral
pelvic; lumbar

35
Q

Hip flexion is _____ degrees at heel strike/swing and needs for full ______ degree step with EXT

A

30
10

36
Q

Knee lands in knee flexion at _____ degrees and increases to ___-_____, almost knee ____ with stance and you need _____ degrees to clear

A

5
10; 15
EXT
60

37
Q

Ankle decelerates into PF and DF and is needed at the ____ to _____ stance (sagittal plane)

A

mid
late

38
Q

Hip:
30 degrees flexion at heel strike- 10 degrees of EXT before _____ ____; max just before heel contact

Related to ______ ______

Compensations in pelvis/spine… loss of EXT seen in _______ tilt/ L ________ and (opposite)

A

heel strike
walking speed
anterior
lordosis

39
Q

Knee: _______ plane
Heel contact at 5 degrees into 10-15 degrees with loading ( _________ quads for shock absorption); goes into EXT unto _____ ______; then flexes until toe off into _____ ______ (60 deg); extends towards heel contact

A

sagittal
eccentric
heel off
mid swing

40
Q

Knee flexion contracture leads to functionally ______ limb, ____ motion, and muscular demand on knee________

A

shorter
trunk
extensors

41
Q

Lack of knee flexion with swing- foot clearance willl result in hip ______ or ________ gait

A

hike
circumduction

42
Q

Ankle (TC joint): ______ plane

Heel contact slight PF of ___-_____ degrees, ________ PF ( ________ tib) to load; stance ____ degrees of DF; after heel off PF to max ___-______ degrees of PF and swing in neutral

A

0; 5
eccentric
anterior
10
15; 20

43
Q

Limited PF can lead to decreased _____ _____ /shorter ____ length

A

push off
step

44
Q

Limited DF can lead to ______ heel off (_________ or ___-______/pronation) ; genu ___________ swing and toes do not clear

A

early
bouncing (toe walker)
toe-ing out
recurvatum

45
Q

1st metarsophalangeal (MTP) joint: ______ plane

Between heel off to just toe off- _____ degrees of EXT needed

Without- less efficient ____ ______; toe-out gait (______ foot structures and ______ stressed)

A

45
push off
medial
hallux

46
Q

Pelvis: ______ plane

Total excursion ___-_____ degrees

______on _______

WB R LE; L side drops into ______

Initial downward (L) is gravity resisted by _______ (R) hip _______ and slight trunk leaning on the ____ side

A

horizontal
10; 15
pelvic; femoral
adduction
eccentric; abductors
right

47
Q

Hip: ______ plane
_____ on _____ due to pelvic motion

May have some _____ on ______ with ___/___ motion at knee

A

pelvic; femoral
femoral; pelvic
(valgus/varus)

48
Q

Foot and Subtalar joint:

Triplanar motion of pronation (__-____-____)/ supination (____/____/_____) is via subtalar and transverse tarsal joints

A

EV/ABD/DF
IV/ADD/PF

49
Q

Foot and subtalar joint:

__-_____ degrees of _____ at heel contact

Rapid _______ @ calcaneus through ______ at ___ degrees

Reversal toward ______ where neutral is reached at ____ _____

_____ degrees of _____ before toe off

A

2; 3
inversion
eversion
midstance
2
inversion
toe off
6
inversion

50
Q

Pelvis: Horizontal ______

Rotates around a ______ axis through the hip joint of the _____ leg

R heel contact- R ASIS is ______ compared to L ASIS (_______ or _________)

L _______ during the ______ of R LE stance and R _________ rotates (_________ ) where R ASIS is behind by ____ off

____-_____ degrees each direction, increases with ______ to increase ____ length

A

plane
vertical
stance
forward
internal; counterclockwise
advances; rest
externally; clockwise
toe
3; 4
speed; step

51
Q

Tibia: ________ plane
same as femur but ____-______ degrees

A

horizontal
8; 9

51
Q

Femur: _______ plane
_______ first 20% after heel strike (like pelvis) then _______ until after ___ ___; ___-___ degrees in each direction

A

horizontal
Internal
reverses; toe off; 6; 7

52
Q

Hip: ________ plane
Relative ______ rotation (to whole pelvis) at heel strike and then _______ rotation motion (opposite side pelvis moving forward) max at ____% of gait

A

horzizontal
externally
internal
50

53
Q

Trunk and Upper Extremities

Trunk/UEs
Balance and minimizing energy _______

Spinal motions dampens forces ( ____-_____% less at head than lower trunk)

Rotates around _______ axis ______ pelvis

Rotational ______ is ___-_____ degrees of shoulder girdle

___-_____ degrees in 3 planes; vertebrae allows pelvic girdle to move in 3 planes

A

Expenditure

10; 40

horizontal; opposite

excursion; 7; 9
3; 5

54
Q

Shoulder
_________ increases with speed

______/_______ deltoids

Hip into ______ /shoulder into flexion

A

Amplitude
ant/post
Hip
EXT

55
Q

Elbow

____ flexion @ heel contact up to _____ degree

A

20;
45

56
Q

Displacement of COM

COM ______ to _____

Track it by _____/_______ displacement

Vertical: oscillates up and down 2 full sine waves per ______; min at double support max/ single; total of ____ cm

Side-to-side: total ____ cm; changes with base of support

_______ _______- forward/toward foot/up

A

anterior; S2

head; torso

2; 5

4

heel strike

57
Q

Erector Spinae:

lumbar region before heel contact- ____% and opposite _______ contact (braking force)

A

20
heel

58
Q

Rectus. Abdominis

______ activity and variable, when firing corresponds to _____ ______ activity

A

low
hip flexor

59
Q

Hip Extensors:

Glutes Max: ______ swing as hip extensor and acceptance of weight into _____ stance

A

late
mid

60
Q

Hip Flexors (iliopsoas, rectus, and sartorius)
________ as hip extending and then _______ for hip swing (50% only)

________(muscle) for swing

A

Eccentric
concentric
Sartorius

61
Q

Hip Abductors (medius, minimus, TFL)

  • stabilize pelvic ______ plane
  • end of swing in prep for _____ _______
  • Single _____ stance, control of lowering of _______ contralateral (cane in opposite hand unloads it)
  • Also control femur (add) may cause _____ torque

_____/______ rotation, ______/ext

A

frontal
heel contact
leg
pelvis
IR/ER/FLX

62
Q

Hip Adductors and ROT

Heel _______ (coactivation add and ext)

Just after toe off (hip ______)

_______ rotators active in _______ stance- control pelvis on femur; _______ for control of internal rotation

A

contact

flexion

external; early

eccentric

63
Q

Knee Extensors:

Quads- late stage swing into heel contact- _______; mid stance- _______-

A

eccentric
concentric

64
Q

Knee Flexors:

Before and after heel contact ( __________ _____ ______) swing phase, with hip extension

A

decelerate knee EXT

65
Q

Tibialis Anterior:
Heel contact _________ (foot slap) may help decelerate _______, swing phase
(____ _____ can cause… vault, circumduction, hike)

A

eccentric
pronation
foot drop

66
Q

EDL and EHL
heel _______ decelerate, swing

A

heel contact

67
Q

Peroneals:

_____% until just before toe off, works vs. _______ tib and holds ____ _____ down for foot rigidity

A

5
posterior
1st ray

68
Q

Foot Intrinsics:

_____ stance to _____ ______, stabilize foot lift _____, help with rigidity of foot

A

mid; toe off; arch

69
Q

Ankle Plantar Flexors (triceps surae):
Most of ______ phase, ______ to control DF, near heel off ________ into push off

A

stance
eccentric
concentric

70
Q

Tibialis Posterior
_________ throughout stance phase, _________ after heel strike and _________ supinates mid stance to toe off

Overuse with ___________

A

Supinator
decelerates
concentric
overpronator

71
Q
A
72
Q
A
73
Q

_______ forces:
applied to ground by foot

A

foot

74
Q

______ ________ forces:
forces applies to the foot

A

ground reaction

75
Q

Newton’s ____ law = and opposite forces

A

3rd

76
Q

This picture represents the path of pressure on the planatar surface of the foot (GRF)

From _____ _______ to ______ ______ (phases)

A

heel contact; toe off

77
Q

Individuals with an ankle plantar flexion contracture will make initial contact with the ground with the _______ region

At midstance, bringing the heel to the ground will result in knee ___________

Forward lean of the trunk occurs in _______ stance as a strategy to maitain forward progression of center of mass

A

forefoot
hyperextension
terminal

78
Q

Weak ankle dorsiflexors may result in a _____ ______ during _______ phase, requiring excessive _____ and _____ flexion for the toes to clear the ground as the limb is advanced forward during _______

A

foot drop
swing
hip; knee
swing

79
Q

Vaulting through excessive ankle _______ ______ of the unaffected _______ limb is used to compensate for limited functional ________ of the affected ______ limb

A

plantar flexion
stance
shortening
swing

80
Q

Weak quadriceps leading to ______ _____ lean to move on the COM of the body anterior to the AOR of the ______

A

anterior trunk
knee

81
Q

Knee flexion contracture resulting in a ________ gait of the stance limb. To clear the toes during swing, the unaffected contralateral side must compensate with. exaggerated _____ and ______ flexion

A

crouched
hip; knee

82
Q

Hip circumduction during swing is used to compensate for the inability to _______ the ______ limb because of inadequate _____ flexion or ankle ________

A

shorten
swing
knee
dorsiflexion

83
Q

The lines indicate the transition between _____ and _____ phases

A

stance
swing