FTO quiz Flashcards
1
Q
What is the dosage of Atropine in resuscitation of a neonate with a HR of 60BPM
A
DO NOT use Atropine in neonatal resuscitation
2
Q
What is the dose for Fentanyl for an isolated extremity fracture?
A
25-100 micrograms IV/IO/IN may repeat 3-5 minutes to max of 400mcg. Or 25-100 IM every 15 minutes to a max of 400mcg
3
Q
What is the dose of Zofran?
A
8mg orally dissolving tablets (ODT) or 8mg slow IVP over 2 minutes or IM
4
Q
PTS with eye injuries should be transported sitting at least a ___degree angle in order to decrease intraocular pressure
A
30
5
Q
It is not recommended to use paralytics in hypothermic PTS
A
True
6
Q
If PT has a severe crush injury /compartment syndrome, how much is your initial fluid bolus and how much is the maintenance
A
1000-2000ML fluid bolus then maintain at 500ml per hour
7
Q
A paramedic should have a high index of suspicion of a musculoskeletal injury for someone over the age of
A
65
8
Q
A pt with heat stroke must be cooled with water and or ice prior to transport (T/F)
A
False. Do not let cooling in the field delay your transport. cool pt if possible while en route
9
Q
Heat stroke is a medical emergency (T/F)
A
True
10
Q
How long should you suction a neonate with meconium in the amniotic fluid?
A
3-5 seconds
11
Q
What is the max dose for Atropine in adult bradycardia?
A
3 mg (1mg every 3-5 minutes with max of 3mg)
12
Q
When pacing, if mechanical capture is achieved, consider versed at
A
2.5-5mg IV/IO or 5mg IM/IN
13
Q
You are called to 66 yo male pt with CP. Pt has taken of his own nitro tabs, SAO2 93%, lungs clear. He is still complaining of CP. What would be your first drug of choice?
A
O2
14
Q
What is the 1st dose of Amiodarone in VF/pulseless VT
A
300 mg
15
Q
A pt presents with PEA. You have initiated ABC’s and ALS treatment. You consider the causes and believe it might be a PE. What should your treatment be?
A
immediate transport
16
Q
How many Joules are your 1st,2nd, and 3rd shocks in a PEDS code?
A
4j/kgx3
17
Q
What is the adult dose of narcan?
A
2mg IM/IN and may be repeated every 3-5 minutes up to 8mg
18
Q
If pt meets indications for administration of TXA but is pregnant, can TXA still be given? T/F
A
True
19
Q
Vec begins to work within __ minutes and persists for about __ minutes
A
2-3 minutes, 30-45 minutes
20
Q
When Succinylcholine is administered, complete paralysis is obtained within___minute and persists for ___ minutes
A
1 minute, 4-6 minutes
21
Q
You may give a category B drug as indicated by protocol even if you are unable to contact OLMC T/F
A
True
22
Q
What are three category B meds and procedures and not category A
A
AICD, Glucagon (beta blocker OD), Mag Sulfate (OB/GYN)
23
Q
Norepinephrine may be administered by IV volutrol or soluset if an infusion pump is not available T/F
A
False
24
Q
Nasal cannulas work well for mouth and nose breathers T/F
A
True
25
Sodium thiosulfate is administered as
Slow push over ten minutes
26
What type of shock is a concern when you have a PT with pulmonary edema and a BP less than 100 systolic?
Cardiogenic shock
27
What is the initial dose of Lasix in a pt not currently taking it?
20mg
28
Dont administer pain meds if the following is present: Respiratory distress or O2 saturation of ___, systolic BP of ____
Less than 90SAO2, Less than 100 systolic BP
29
APGAR scoring should be done at birth and ____
5 minutes after
30
A pt who has a CO less than 15ppm, no burns, no trauma and mild CO symptoms would be transported to___
nearest hospital
31
At 1 to 3 minutes after delivery, clamp and cut the umbilical cord about ____inches from infant
6 inches
32
Notify the receiving hospital with sepsis alert if all items below are present. 1.Suspected infection 2. EtCO2 <25mmHg and ____ qsofa criteria of
two or greater
33
qSOFA consists of...
Hypotension 1 MAP<65mmHg(SBP<90mmHg)
34
Cstat positive score is defined as score of
Greater than or equal to two
35
For isolated penetrating head, neck, or torso trauma, when is the cervical spine immobilized
When there is overt neurological deficits or when an adequate physical examination cannot be performed,
36
If peds pt is still seizing 2-3 minutes after the first dose of versed, what is max second dose
10mg
37
Transport of a seizure PT may be unnexessary if the pt is taking prescribed medications, has a physician, and is experiencing no symptoms with _____after arrival of ems responders
20 minutes
38
What is the initial adult IV dose of Midazolam for seizures?
2.5-5mg IV/IO
39
What is initial fluid bolus for PEDS pt in hypovolemic shock
20ml?kg
40
What is the MAP that you want to aim for when giving a fluid challenge for hypovolemic shock?
MAP>65
41
You may initiate resuscitation of a submerged pt recovered within 60 minutes if they meet this criteria
Child less than 6 and water temp less than 40F at recovery depth, PT may have been trapped in an underwater air pocket, water <40 at recovery depth and PT may have been swimming on the surface for 15 minutes before
42
Adenosine has a half life of less than ___ seconds
Ten
43
Amiodarone is similar to lidocaine-they both are classified as
ANtiarrhythmics
44
ASA can be given even if the PT has taken ASA that day? T/F
True
45
Atropine dilates a PTS pupils T/F
True
46
Atropine is a muscarinic-cholinergic blocking agent. Which of the following is an effect of Atropine?
Urinary retention
47
Skeletal muscle tremors can be a side effect of albuterol administration? T/F
True
48
The dose for ASA for a pt with angina and acute MI is __mg PO
324
49
The effects of Adenosine are antagonized by the methylxanthines such as caffeine or theophyline. This means....
A larger dose of Adenosine may be required
50
The minimum flow of oxygen to administer nebulized albuterol is?
8lpm
51
The adult dose for Dex 50 is
25-50Ml slow IV
52
What are three indication for giving benedryl?
2nd line drug in anaphylaxis and severe allergic reactions (after EPI), to counteract acute dystonic reactions to anti-psychotic drugs, allergic reactions
53
Dexamethasone can be administered orally? T/F
True
54
Benadryl is the drug of choice for severe allergic reactions? T/F
False
55
Calcium gluconate should not be mixed with>
BIcarbonate
56
Dexamethasone may cause
HTN
57
Three indications for Dexamethasone are
Moderate to severe asthma/COPD, severe allergic reaction, croup
58
What is a potential side effect of Benadryl when given IV?
HTN
59
You can give calcium gluconate by IM? T/F
False
60
You can give D50 orally? T/F
True
61
What are three responses expected from Epi
Increased HR, Increased arterial BP, Increased myocardial contractile force
62
Oral glucose may complicate or worsen medical conditions such as MI or stroke T/F
True
63
The dose of Esmolol in refractory VF/Pulseless VT
500mcg/kg (.5mg/kg)
64
Do PTS with suspected digitalis toxicity need higher or lower dose of Lasix?
Lower
65
Etomidate produces hypnosis characterized by a rapid onset of action, usually within ___. Duration of hypnosis is dose dependent but relatively brief, usually ___
1 minute, 3-5minutes
66
Glucagon may be useful in treating life-threatening beta-blocker OD pts? T/F
True
67
If a PT is found to have acute pulmonary edema. Lasix cannot be administered for these two reasons
PT is hypovolemic and or PT is pregnant
68
Ketamine should be administered___ in adults to prevent/treat negative emergence reaction
Midazolam 2.5mg IV/IO/IM
69
What are three indications for push dose EPI
Severe shock (MAP <50mmHg or SBP<60mmHg) not responsive to fluids, a bridge to drip pressors while they are being mixed, short live hypotension e.g. post intubation or during sedation
70
What are three indications for Magnesium?
Cardiac arrest (torsades de Pointes), seizures in women with pre-eclampsia, severe asthma in the setting of a long transport time
71
What are the two contraindications of Nitro?
SBP less than 100, and taken Viagra within last 24 hour-contact OLMC
72
Norepinephrine may be administered by IV volutrol or soluset if an infusion pump is not available? T/F
False-infusion pump only
73
Sodium Thiosulfate is administered over what length of time?
A slow push over ten minutes
74
What are five indications for Midazolam?
Seizures, To relieve anxiety and produce amnesia, chemical restraint, shivering during induced hypothermia process, after Ketamine administration to prevent emergence reaction
75
PEEP valve should be considered when ventilating a PT with ___ or ____
COPD or emphysema
76
Consider offering ___for severe agitation or anxiety
Olanazapine ODT 10mg
77
An adult medical PT with COPD and complaining of moderate to severe respiratory distress must be awake, oriented, and able to maintain an open airway plus have a BP of greater than 90 before application of CPAP- T/F
True
78
All adult PTS who received ketamine should receive one dose of midazolam T/F
True
79
For verified frequent and recurrent inappropriate AICD discharges, a ___ may be utilized to deactivate "runaway" devices
Magnet
80
How often should the placement of an ET tube be rechecked?
After every major or change in vital signs
81
What size ET tube is used for surgical cricothyrotomy?
5.5-6.0 ETT
82
With a scalpel in the dominant hand, make 3-4cm ___incision through the skin exposing the cricothyroid membrane
vertical (head to toe)
83
When using end title, maintain at ___ for normal ventilation
35-40 mmHg
84
Pacing should not be used in these three situations
1. Asystole 2.Pts meeting death in the field criteria 3. Pts with signs of penetrating or blunt trauma
85
T/F NPAs are not recommended for PEDS
True
86
PICC lines may be accessed when there is a need for a drug or fluid administration and traditional means of venous access are unsuccessful T/F
True
87
With full spinal immobilization, the head should be secured....
After the body
88
T/F The pelvic wrap is not indicated for suspected isolated hip fractures (ground level falls)
True
89
What is the rate for rescue breathing for an infant or child?
8-10 breaths
90
When performing a tension pneumothorax decompression, you should: on affected side, locate the mi-clavicular line and insert a large gauge over-the-needle catheter with syringe attached along the superior margin of the ___rib
Third
91
How many PTS would automatically initiate an MCI?
There is no set #
92
The _____ is used to manage all MCI's
National Incident Management System (NIMS)
93
When staging for a high risk response, what are three things to consider.
Stage approximately two blocks from the address and out of the line of sight, Announce arrival in staging and location by radio, turn off headlights and all warning devices
94
___ reports to medical branch and coordinates with Triage and transportation
Treatment
95
T/F The Trauma System is used when you have declared an MCI?
False
96
Who coordinates all EMS activity and reports to command?
Medical
97
What phrase is used when talking to dispatch at the time the crew actually makes phyical pt contact?
At PT
98
A radio message is not received at BOEC unless the unit is acknowledged by__
a dispatcher
99
For OLMC, MRH shall be contacted if the PTS destination is in Multnomah or Clackamas county if MRH physician cannot be reached, who should be contacted?
Receiving hospital
100
After AMR has transported the PT to the hospital from a crime scene, what should you do with the medical waste?
Leave all medical debris at the scene, except sharps
101
T/F An air ambulance can cancel EMS response when they are circling the scene and it looks like they can handle the situation?
False
102
An ALS emergency medical responder may not cancel or slow down ALS ambulances because an air ambulance has been activated (T/F)
True
103
T/F If you have a pt who has an uncontrolled airway and the nearest hospital is in the red status, you will still transport the PT to that hospital
True
104
What are the two situations when a law enforcement officer may cancel all EMS responders?
Nothing found and no PTS or victims at the scene
105
The backplate of the Lucas should be placed...
Centered on the nipple line and the top of the backplate should be located below the PTS armpits
106
The size of the I Gel should be determined by the actual body weight? T/F
False-ideal body weight
107
When inserting the needle for IO direct the needle caudally (towards the feet) T/F
108
If pt begins to shiver or demonstrate non-purposeful movements after induced hypothermia, administer
5mg midazolam IV/IO
109
If RASS score is greater than or equal to 3 PT is an immediate threat to responders, bystanders, or PT, administer midazolam ___Iv/IO or ____IM or haloperidol _____IV/IO/IM
2.5-5mg IV/IO, 5-10mg IM, 5-10 mg IV/IO/IM
110
Lactated Ringers is the preferred replacement fluid for volume loss in trauma system and burn center PTS T/F
True
111
What is the appropriate weight range for the size 1.0 Igel?
1.5-6.9Kg (3-14.9lbs)
112
What is the Epi 1:1,000 dose for a 47" child, and what route is it given
.24CC IM
113
What is the positive pressure ventilation rate to a full-term newborn?
I breath every 3 seconds
114
An 8 year old skateboarder was struck by a car and suffered multi-system trauma with no obvious facial injuries. He is obtunded with agonal respirations. Pt weighs 58lbs. You are going to intubate, what size ET tube and bougie will you use?
5-5.5 cuffed, peds bougie
115
If a child weighs 45lbs, how much energy would you use for the 1st shock if defibrillation were needed?
100J
116
The adult dose of Sodium Thiosulfate for hydrogen cyanide poisoning is...
50ML of 25%. 10-20 minutes
117
T/F The odor of cyanide will provide adequate warning of hazardous concentration
False
118
In severe organophosphate poisoning, administer ___ Mark 1 or Duodotes injectors
3
119
Initial CNS symptoms of cyanide poisoning include these....
Excitement, headache, N/V, dizziness
120
T/F Organophosphates are rapidly absorbed through intact skin?
True
121
Mild organophosphate poisoning can cause...
Headache, N/V, abdominal cramps, diarrhea
122
T/F A pt with systemic organophosphate poisoning will typically present with pinpoint pupils, blurred vision, and aching pain in the eye
True
123
T/F clothing contaminated with organophosphates can be washed thoroughly and then returned to service?
False-must be disposed of
124
T/F CNS effects are often the earliest manifestation of organophosphate poisoning in adults
True
125
For decontamination of the PT exposed to hydrogen fluoride, ____-________ ______, solutions, and medications are used to neutralize the effects
Calcium-containing gels
