Frontier Master Question File Flashcards
How is BURN fuel on the flight plan calculated?
The amount of fuel burn in pounds and time based on forecast winds, the flight plan route, and includes one instrument approach and landing.
Do all cabin seats need to be assigned if a flight deck or flight attendant jumpseat is to be utilized?
No. the flight deck and flight attendant jumpseats may be assigned on a discretionary basis regardless of whether all cabin seats are occupied or not.
Must a Frontier employee have the letters ACM on his/her Frontier ID badge to occupy the flight deck jumpseat?
Yes, unless the Frontier employee has a signed Letter of Authorization from Frontier Flight Ops management.
The ACM Jumpseat Briefing Card may be used to satisfy the ACM briefing requirement?
True
Employees with knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which they performed a safety-sensitive or security-related function at or near the time of the accident may not use alcohol for ____ hours after the accident unless he or she has been given a post accident test for drugs and alcohol, or if Frontier Airlines has demonstrated that their performance could not have contributed to the accident.
8
Which of the following qualifies the flight crew to fly into “Special Airports”?
(Select ALL answers that apply)
Within the preceding 12 calendar months, the captain or first officer has made an entry to that airport, including takeoff and landing, while serving as a flight crewmember.
Within the preceding 12 calendar months, the captain has qualified by using pictorial means for that airport.
When the first officer has less than 100 hours of flight time as SIC in type airplane being flown at Frontier, the captain (unless a check airman) must make all takeoff and landings in what conditions?
(Select ALL answers that apply)
When the crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots.
When the braking action on the runway to be used is less than “good”.
Which of the following describes emergency authority?
(Select ALL answers that apply)
In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, the pilot in command may take any action deemed necessary under the circumstances.
Who has operational control to refuse a passenger?
The CRO
Who has the authority to cancel a flight?
Only Systems Operations Control (SOC).
Which of the following requires an alternate airport?
(Select ALL answers that apply)
Any flight released under supplemental operations.
If severe icing conditions are forecast at the destination within one hour of the ETA, a suitable alternate must be listed on the release.
When dispatched Method 2.
Which of the following is NOT required before a revenue flight may block out?
The Final Flight Information List.
If the planned route is changed by ATC prior to takeoff, and the resulting stage length increases by more than ____ NM, the captain must obtain an ARTR.
100NM
Which of the following best describes Method 1?
If an engine failure occurs anywhere from V1 to the destination, the aircraft will clear all obstructions 5 SM on either side of the intended route by 1,000 feet until reaching the destination.
How is CONTINGENCY fuel on the flight plan calculated?
Fuel in time as well as in pounds based on holding at 15,000 MSL at Green Dot .
Which of the following best describes method 2?
If an engine failure occurs, the aircraft will be able to divert to at least one suitable airport (driftdown alternate) from flight planned cruise altitude and clear all obstacles 5 SM on either side of the route of flight by 2,000 feet until reaching the diversion airport.
Which of the following would require an ARTR?
(Select ALL answers that apply)
An alternate is added or changed.
An MEL is added.
What does ALTN fuel on the flight plan consist of?
Climb to cruise flight altitude, cruise flight to the most distant alternate, one (1) approach and landing, planned at a cost index of 0.
Are Simple Special Procedures mandatory to follow in both IMC and VMC? If so, to what altitude?
They are mandatory in IMC until 3,000’ AFE (if radar vectors are not available) and VMC until reaching 1,000ft AFE unless otherwise specified.
Which of the following are ways to determine Actual Landing Performance?
(Select ALL answers that apply)
The AWP solution.
The QRH landing distance Performance section.
What are some strategies for dealing with weight restricted flights?
Remove COMAT (not AOG).
Obtain child counts.
Increase the PMtOW or reducing tanker fuel (if any).
Which of the following are approved methods to get Weight and Balance Information for departure?
AWP Solution (Primary Method).
Computer-Generated W&B Manifest from Centralized Load Planning.
Manual W&B Read Back Form located in the diversion kit.
Which of the following fuel considerations are required prior to departure?
When dispatched under Ops Spec B043 (As noted on the dispatch release), the aircraft must have enough contingency fuel to fly for a period of 10 percent of that portion of the enroute time where the aircraft’s position cannot be “reliably fixed” at least once each hour.
The aircraft must have enough fuel to fly to the airport to which it is dispatched; thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (when required) for the airport to which it is dispatched; and thereafter, to fly for 45minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
The aircraft must have enough fuel to consider one instrument approach and possible missed approach at the destination, wind and other weather conditions forecast, anticipated traffic delays, and any other known conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft.
Frontier is authorized to conduct the following approaches EXCEPT
(SA) CAT I Approaches
How can the flight crew determine if an airport is “Terrain Sensitive”?
Via a mountain symbol at the top of the first page of the AIP.
Via contours published on any SID, STAR, or approach procedure.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
When a discrepancy has been entered into the aircraft logbook, ONLY MCC must be notified.
Who must be notified after entering a discrepancy in the Logbook?
MCC through the responsible dispatcher.
Which of the following is a correct way(s) to make a correction to a logbook entry?
To correct a single word or phrase error, draw a line through the entry and add the corrected information adjacent to the lined-out item.
To correct an entire entry block, draw a diagonal line through the entry and write “Entered in Error” (or “EIE”) on the diagonal line.
How is RESERVE fuel on the flight plan calculated?
Reserve fuel of 45 minutes flight time is based on last cruise altitude in the flight plan.
Which of the following logbook entries requires the captain’s signature?
Computer Reset
Flight Crew Placard
Follow-up Required
Which of the following best describes the CDL (Configuration Deferral List) Program?
The CDL Program allows for continued operations with missing secondary airframe and engine parts.
Which of the following best describes the MEL (Minimum Equipment List)?
The MEL Program allows for a temporary change in type design to address missing or inoperative equipment in order to maintain the validity of the airworthiness certificate.
Which of the following best describes the NEF (Nonessential Furnishing) program?
The NEF Program allows the deferral of inoperative, damaged or missing items that will have no effect on the safe operation of the aircraft, and which are not required by certification standards or operating rules.
Which of the following best describes an ODM (Other Deferred Maintenance) item?
ODM Items include deferrals that are “crew visibility” in nature and utilize an INFO-ONLY placard to notify air crewmembers that the item on the placard has been documented and is being tracked by the maintenance department.
Is Frontier permitted to depart an airport VFR and then pickup an IFR clearance?
Yes, under certain weather conditions and provided an IFR clearance is obtained ASAP, but no further than 50 NM from departure airport.
What is Class II (two) navigation?
Any navigation conducted outside of Class I navigation.
When is the autopilot required to be used (coupled) to conduct an approach?
When the weather is less than 4000 RVR (3/4 SM) and the autopilot is available for use.
Which of the following is Frontier authorized to conduct in international airspace?
A “VMC Approach”
Prior to crossing a FIR boundary for international flights, the flight crew should obtain the latest weather (METAR and TAF) for the destination and alternate (if applicable).
True
Where is Frontier authorized to conduct SLOPs?
Gulf of Mexico
How does the flight crew determine snowfall intensity when determining what holdover times to use?
If another form of obscuration is being reported along with snow (e.g., fog/haze/smoke), then use the Tower reported snowfall intensity.
If no obscuration is present on the Tower reported snow intensity, then use the “Snowfall Intensities As A Function Of Prevailing Visibility” Table located on the DeIce Card to determine snowfall intensity.
Anti-icing with the flaps/slats extended is permitted.
False
Deicing with the flaps/slats extended is permitted.
True
A flight can takeoff if the holdover time expires if the flight crew performs a pre-takeoff contamination check (exit row check, and that check is satisfactory) within 5 minutes of advancing the thrust levers for takeoff.
True
When does the Tarmac Delay clock start for DEPARTURES?
Five (5) minutes after the last passenger is boarded.
An ARTR is required if a flight diverts to an alternate that is different from that published on the dispatch release.
True
When are security searches required?
International flights (not including Alaska).
First flight of the day.
A flight to Puerto Rico is Not considered an international flight for security search purposes?
True
The captain must be informed of all individuals on board carrying firearms.
True
What are the 4 levels of threat?
Level 1: Verbal
Level 2: Physical
Level 3: Imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury
Level 4: Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck
Where can the flight crew find a list of Ops Specs C070 approved airports?
Airport Information Pages
Where can the flight crew find coded departure routes and instructions on how to uplink these routes into the MCDU?
Airport Information Pages
If an International flight diverts and does not clear customs what does the flight need to continue to its destination?
A permit to proceed.
What does the TEST acronym consist of when giving the Emergency Preparation?
T – Type of Emergency
E – Evacuation anticipated (yes/no)
S – Signals to brace, evacuate or remain seated (review as appropriate)
T – Time remaining until landing
What is the purpose of the flight attendant emergency whistle (EW)?
To indicate a Threat Level 2, 3, or 4 situation.
When are manual engine starts recommended?
After aborting a start because of an engine stall, EGT overlimt, or low starter air pressure.
In flight, BOTH flight directors should be either ON or OFF.
True
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the announcement of FMA changes?
Workload permitting and unless specified otherwise e.g. (CAT II/III task sharing), all FMA changes (as indicated by a white box) will be announced by the PF below FL 180. At or above FL 180, the Vertical and Lateral Mode Changes (i.e., second and third columns of the FMA) will be announced by the PF.
During preflight and prior to the application of electrical power, you notice the battery voltage is below 25.5 volts, how should you recharge the batteries?
Ensure external power is supplied to the aircraft and select the BAT 1 and 2 pbs to the AUTO position.
On the preflight check, if engine oil quantity is not displayed on the ENG SD page, how should you check the oil quantity on NEO aircraft?
Set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw on the overhead maintenance panel to ON in order to display the oil quantity on the ENG SD page. After the check of the engine oil quantity, set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw to OFF.
When is a full ADIRU alignment required?
Before the first flight of the day, when there is a crew change, prior to all international flights (including Alaska) or prior to flights in Class 2 airspace.
When is a fast ADIRU alignment required?
Any time the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position exceeds 5 NM.
During refueling, what might happen if the FUEL MODE SEL pb-sw is left in the MAN position on the ground and the CTR TK L XFR pb-sw and CTR TK R XFR pb-sw are not in the off position?
The center tank fuel transfer will not stop when the wing tanks become full and a fuel spillage may occur.
Just prior to pushback, if the NW STRG DISC is not displayed on the ECAM, but the ground crew confirms that the steering selector bypass pin is in the towing position, what must the flight crew do?
Make a logbook entry. Contact MCC through the responsible dispatcher.
If a heading is assigned by ATC prior to takeoff, what HDG should be preset on the FCU to disarm NAV mode?
Runway HDG
No turns in HDG mode will be commenced below ____ ft AFE (VMC) or ____ ft AFE (IMC); unless otherwise required by the departure procedure?
400’ VMC
1,000 ’ IMC
How could you quickly determine if you can take shortcuts off your filed route if you are dispatched via method 2?
Reference the “Terrain Analysis Common Aircraft Weights” on the back of the Normal Checklist.
What altitude should be set on the FCU for a “Visual Approach” utilizing a published procedure as backup reference?
The published missed approach altitude for the approach being used.
What altitude should be set on the FCU for a “Visual Approach” with no procedure backup as a reference?
1,500 feet AFE
Why is entering 0.3 on the PROG page of the MCDU for RNAV approaches required?
To ensure that the FMS stays in 0.3 for the missed approach rather than defaulting back to RNP 1.0.
Why is deselecting navaids in the MCDU for a RNAV RNP approach required?
In the event of GPS loss, IRS only navigation may be more accurate than DME/DME position updating in the short term.
Which of the following statements are TRUE if speedbrakes are used above 315 knots/M .75 with the AP engaged?
Rate of retraction of the speedbrakes are slow, the total time for retraction from full extension is approximately 25 seconds.
During the flare on landing, the PM will monitor the pitch attitude on the PFD and call “Pitch” whenever approaching/or reaching what pitch attitudes?
A321: 7.5° pitch attitude
A319 or A320: 10° pitch attitude
When should the after landing checklist be called for?
After clearing the runway and the aircraft is safely established on a taxiway, but not before taxi/runway crossing restrictions are clearly understood by both crewmembers.
After landing, how long should we wait before starting the APU?
2 minutes after stowing the Thrust Reversers.
After taxi-in and during parking, you attempt to shut down an engine (you move the ENG MASTER 1 or 2 to OFF). However, the engine does not shut down. What should you do?
Switch the affected master lever ON, then OFF. If the engine still fails to shut down, press the affected ENG FIRE pushbuton.
After parking the aircraft, you notice a maintenance status message (Class 2 message). A few seconds later, the Class 2 message disappears. A logbook write-up is required for the class 2 message that disappeared.
True
Which of the following statements should be followed when performing the Securing Checklist?
After having switched off the ADIRS, wait at least 10 seconds before switching off the electrical supply to ensure that the ADIRS memorize the last data.
Wait at least 5 minutes after BLOCK IN to accomplish the securing procedure to allow the FMGC/AOC to complete the DONE PHASE and enter the PREFLIGHT PHASE.
In flight prior to manipulation, both the Pilot Flying (PF) and Pilot Monitoring (PF) must confirm.
Engine master switches, IR selector, All guarded controls.
Thrust Levers (During an ECAM or QRH procedure)
In most situations, the following sequence is the basic one that should be followed by the flight crew during an abnormal/emergency situation. 1. Memory Items, 2. OEBs, 3. ECAM, 4. QRH Procedures, then 5. Abnormal & Emergency Procedures (time permitting). However, this sequence may not cover all operational situations. Therefore, the flight crew should exercise their judgement and adapt the sequence of actions to the real conditions.
True
For an abnormal procedure during approach, perform the normal checklist first, then the ECAM/ABNormal procedure or checklist.
False
