from 2022 ESHRE Flashcards

1
Q

semen analysis revealed >40 mill/ml motile sperms. this semen is suitable for.

  • a) IVF Only
  • b) ICSI only
  • c) IVF and ICSI never for IUI
  • d) IVF and IUI
A

d.

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2
Q

osteogenesis in the theca cells induced by

a) LH
b) FSH
c) GnRH
d) HCG

A

LH

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3
Q

females with Kartagener’s syndrome lead to

a) hormonal disruption

d) dysfunction of the ovaries
c) Impact on Fallopian tubes
d) Impact folliculogenesis

A

c.
Kartagener’s syndrome impacts on cilia in the fallopian tubes

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4
Q

gene promotor is

a) stretch of DNA at which RNA polymerase and other factors will bind
b) stretch of RNA
c) specific DNA sequences initiate the process of transcription

A

c.

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5
Q

(10) oocytes were collected 9 were MII and 1 MI since the mature oocytes include 1 with sER , 1 Large PB and 1 vacuolated oocyte.. ICSI will performed for:

  • a) All MII and MI oocytes
  • b) All MII and MI if matured
  • c) All MII except large PB and vaculated
  • d) For MII except sER and large PB and MI if matured_
A

d)

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6
Q

Z female and her husband were both carrier for heterozygous mutation on chromosome 20, what’s the probability of her down syndrome girl might affected by the mutation.

a) 25%
b) 75%
c) 50%
d) 0%

A

a)

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7
Q

43 years old woman had previous 6 ICSI trial with 1 frozen for her own embryos had 2 pregnancy and 2 miscarriage her husband semen analysis was Oligoathenoteratozoospermia what is your recommendation for her best option to get live birth

a) ICSI
b) IMSI
c) ICSI but with donor sperm and her own oocytes
d) ICSI with donor oocytes and husband own sperm

A

d)
But i will never recommend this, as it is not allowed in Islam.

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8
Q

Azoospermia

a) anti-sperm antibodies may reveal +ve diagnosis?/

A

true
for azospermic male due Immune factor

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9
Q

Standard operation procedures review

a) Monthly
b) upon your QMS in your lab
b) annually
c) upon EUD

A

b)

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10
Q

performance indicator for MII % calculation.

a) first 10 cases first attending the clinic
b) first 50 patient whenever attend
c) all cycles per one year
d) all cycles per month

A

d)

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11
Q

artificial oocyte activation

applied for

a) glolbozospermia
b) severe male factor
c) previous failed IVF
d) necrospermia

A

a) is true

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12
Q

” M” had previous failed fertilization after IVF, what’s your plane for next cylcle

a) Artificial oocyte activation
b) ICSI
c) IMSI
d) donor oocytes

A

b)

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13
Q

your lab received frozen embryos from another center, the media from a company A used for vitrification was not available in your lab, you order the media but will arrive after 2 weeks so.

  • a) you put the patient on progesterone until media arrive
  • b) thawing with your home made media since thawing is universal protocol
  • c) use Glycerol since for thawing
A

b) is true
Recent studies have shown that thawing is a universal protocol whether embryo was frozen with ethylene glycol as the cryoprotectant or DMSO. Thawing is basically rehydration with decreasing levels of sucrose not regarding the commercial media company.

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14
Q

the cell occupies in base of the seminiferous tubules

  • a) Lydig cells
  • b) Oogonia
  • c) Sertoli cells
  • d) spermatogonia
A

d) is correct

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15
Q

slow freeze involved control cooling -7 till -30 to….

a) make homogenous temperature within the straw
b) prevent ice crystal within the straw
c) confirm complete dehydration
d) prevent cryoprotectants toxicity

A

b) is correct

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16
Q

vitrified embryo..

a) not contain ice crystals
b) safe at -80 ºc
c) can not vitrified in vapor nitrogen
d) may contain ice crystal

A

a)

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17
Q

passive vacuum LN2

a) effective in converting to Vapor Nitrogen
b) help in super cooling less than -200 c
c) ……………
d) ……………

A

b.is correct

from ESHRE 2021, i didn’t remember the other 2 choices. Please share if you know.
dr.sedeek@gmail.com

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18
Q

ICM communicates by

a) ion channel gate
b) gap junction
c) plasmids
d) tight junction

A

b)

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19
Q

amino acids transport between cells by

a) gap junction
b) tight junction
c) aquapores

A

c)

20
Q

glycosides on the cell membrane

a) receptors for hormone ligand
b) plasmodesmata

A

a)

21
Q

after TE biopsy for PGT-A revealed abnormal embryo.

a) mosaicism in TE and ICM highly expected.
b) ICM may be euploidy-different than TE
c) PGT-A is a good diagnostic test
d) PGT-A misdiagnosis not expected

A

b)

22
Q

FSH and LH

a) both resemble the subunit composition of HCG
b) the only indeed at ovulation
c) they shared same (α) but different (β) subunites

A

c)

23
Q

question about if liquid nitrogen split in your skin what’s yoru action

a) remove you clothes immediately
b) use 37 worm water
c) use -10 cold water
d) no action let evaporate

A

a)

24
Q
  • if you are the first in the lab and notice the media in the incubator seems Pink, the incubator reading gases is ok so what’s your first decision.
  • a) tranfer embryos to another incubator
  • b) transfere embryos to HEPEs media
  • c) wait for the other person
  • d) check CO2 gas
A

a)

25
Q

if the PH in an incubaor is 6.8 so you should.

a) decrease O2
b) increase CO2
c) Decrease CO2
d) change media and check contamination

A

c) is correct

26
Q

question about 2 cell stage assay and sperm survival assay to determine toxicity

A

sperm survival assay
brief method
-use free protien media
-asses the semen count and motility
-aliquote the semen sample into 4 tubes a, b, c and d.
add tested material in tube a and b
- c and d are considered control
- put 1 test and 1 controle in incubator 37 and put the other tubes in room temprature
- asses the sperm motility after 24 and 48 hrs.
- to validate the new material, test should be equal control

27
Q

mitochondria in GV oocyte present in

a) cortical granules
b) nucleus
c) endoplasmic reticulum
e) free in the cytoplasm

A

e)

28
Q

Vacuum passive nitrogen

A

cost-effective
Safe and reliable
Long-term stability

29
Q

CBAVD patient go to testicular biopsy

a) can found sperm in testes but never in epididymis
b) sperm may found in caudal epidydimis
c) 20 % of CF aways CAVD

A

b)
Sperm may found in epididymis. however, In CAVD patients, the absence or malformation of the vas deferens is often accompanied by other reproductive tract anomalies, such as agenesis or obstruction of the epididymis.

30
Q

Meta-analysis is

a) analysis of embryo morphology meta- parameter
b) collect small studies to get large sample size of data
c) single small study
d) sperm morplology

A

b) is correct

31
Q

primordial germ cell stop after migration to genital ridge or ……..

A

Didn’t remember choices.
Primordial germ cells do not stop after migration to genital ridge, they undergo a period of rapid proliferation, increasing their numbers significantly to establish a sufficient pool for future gamete production.

32
Q

shortened Telomers in translocation

A

Telomeres: are specialized DNA sequences at the ends of chromosomes that protect them from damage and ensure proper replication. Their length naturally shortens with each cell division.
Chromosomal translocations: occur when parts of chromosomes exchange positions or even fuse together. Some translocations have no impact, while others can disrupt gene expression and lead to genetic disorders.

33
Q

sickle cell anemia

A

Inherited blood disorder caused by a single point mutation in the beta-globin gene, which leads to the production of abnormal hemoglobin molecules. These sickle hemoglobin (HbS) molecules deform red blood cells into their characteristic sickle shape, causing various complications like pain, anemia, and organ damage.

34
Q

Barr body in paternal chromosome of the girl or all chromosomes.?

A

A girl can have a Barr body on either the maternal or the paternal X chromosome,
But not on both or any other chromosome.

35
Q

Acrosome reaction

A) performed in oviduct
b) enhanced by removal of seminal plasma
c) started outside the cell

A

b)

36
Q

polarization in Blastomeres;

a) first two cleavage with blastomeres are same polarizing
b) the second cleavage reveal 2 same polarized blastomeres and 2 differ
c) the first 3 with same polarization and the 4th one is differ

A

b)

37
Q

Day 2 cleavage embryo have even 3 blastomeres without any fragmentation

a) The next division will be 4 blastomeres without fragmentation?
b) The embryo will arrest and will not develop more.
c) the embryo considered poor quality due to non stage specific division

A

c)
3 equal balastomers = non-stage specific division

38
Q

Gap junction and Tight junction

A

Gap junction in ICM
Tight J in Trophectoderm

39
Q

metabolism in blastocyst stage

A

During the preimplantation stages, embryos primarily rely on oxidative phosphorylation and aerobic glycolysis for ATP production.
Around the blastocyst stage, a significant metabolic switch occurs:
Glucose becomes the main energy source: The trophectoderm cells express glucose transporters, enabling efficient uptake of glucose from the maternal environment.
Aerobic glycolysis intensifies: Even with sufficient oxygen, blastocysts predominantly use glycolysis for ATP production. This phenomenon, known as the Warburg effect, is thought to prioritize rapid ATP generation and biosynthetic processes for growth and development

40
Q

polarization in divided blastomeres (same or different)

A

Different,
because some will adhere to the periphery to form TE Later on and other polarized form ICM

41
Q

embryo development depends on sperm DNA

A)after fertilization onward
b) after genomic activation
c) D3
d) D5

A

b) is correct
after genomic activation

42
Q

DNA combination during meiosis occure in

a) leptotene
b) metaphase
c) zygotene
d) pachytene

A

zygotene is the definitive stage for DNA combination through crossing over during meiosis.
Leptotene: This is the first stage of prophase I in meiosis, where chromosomes condense and become visible. No recombination or DNA exchange happens at this stage.
Zygotene: This is the second stage of prophase I, where homologous chromosomes pair up (synapsis) and exchange genetic material (crossing over). This process involves recombination, where segments of DNA are physically swapped between homologous chromosomes, creating new combinations of genetic material.
Metaphase I: This is the third stage of prophase I, where paired chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell. While chromosomes are positioned for potential separation, the actual DNA combination (crossing over) already happened in a previous stage.
Pachytene: This is the fourth stage of prophase I, following zygotene. While both stages involve synapsis, crossing over primarily occurs in zygotene. Pachytene focuses on continued thickening and pairing of chromosomes.

43
Q

rHSA differ from purified HSA

a) involved Bach to Batch variation
b) embryo will developed more globulin
c) embryo will developed more protein
d) rHSA has low potential risks and more stable than HSA

A

d)

44
Q

question about Treponema pallidum

a) chlamydia
b) syphilis

………..

A

b) syphilis,

45
Q

In general no much question in developmental embryology

Book
(Human Embryology & development)..just browsing not in details

Focus on Kay Elder

PGCs migration

primary, and secondary follicles and oocytes

vitrification & slow freezing in details

meiosis and mitosis

cell cycle

G1 G2 S M phases

check points

meiosis and mitosis

DNA replication

transcription

RNA

endoplasmic reticulum (sER, rER)

golOgi

Mitochondira

Acrosome Reaction

Capacitation

serological disease is

HIV, HCV, HB

Siphalys

chlaymida

A

*From the ESHRE Exam 2021

46
Q

reading list respectively

invitro fertilization Kay Elder

Essential of Genetics

Istanbul consensus

Viena consensus

A

I wish you the best of luck.
Best regards
please don’t hesitate to contact me for any comments.
Dr.sedeek@gmail.com

(لا تنساني من دعواتك ….عماد صديق)