Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clinical Embryologist's exam samples. > COH & Endocrinology > Flashcards

COH & Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

The Phase where the follicle develops is called

A

Follicular Phase

Characterized By:

Low FSH

Low LH

Elevated Estrogen (E2)

Low Progesterone (P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The Phase when follicle development is complete and the mature oocyte is shed is called

A

Ovulation

characterized by:

Elevated FSH

Elevated LH

Elevated Estrogen (E2)

Rising Progesterone (P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The phase when the embryo attaches is called

A

The Luteal Phase

characterized by:

Low FSH

Low LH

Elevated Estrogen (E2)

Elevated Progesterone (P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The Phase When the Uterine Tissue is Shed and Follicle Recruitment begins

A

Menses

Characterized by

Elevated FSH

Low LH

Low Estrogen (E2)

Low Progesterone (P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The uterine lining in the follicular phase is said to be:

A

Proliferative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The Uterine Lining In The Luteal Phase is:

A

Secretory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

GnRH is released from the hypothalamus;
low frequency pulses ►stimulate the pituitary to release→ FSH

and high frequency pulses ►to release ⇒LH.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

During the follicular phase, GNRH is released about every:

A

60-90 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

After Ovulation, GnRH is released about every:

A

120 Min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The target for GnRH is:

  1. The Hypothalamus
  2. The Anterior Pituitary
  3. The Posterior Pituitary
  4. The Ovary
  5. The Uterus
A

2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The primary aim of GNRH secretion is the release of:

  1. GnRH
  2. TSH
  3. FSH
  4. LH
  5. hCG
  6. Prolactin
  7. Oestradiol
  8. Progesterone
A

3 and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which group of compounds can inhibit GnRH Secretion

  1. Clomiphene
  2. Letrozole
  3. GnRH Antagonists
  4. GnRH Agonists
  5. Kisspeptin
A

3, 4 and 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which group of compounds can inhibit GNRH activity by disrupting the frequency of secretion:

  1. Clomiphene
  2. Letrozole
  3. GnRH Antagonists
  4. GnRH Agonists
  5. Kisspeptin
A

4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which group of compounds can inhibit GNRH activity by binding to the receptor for GNRH:

A

GnRH Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The Hypothalamus receives stimulation from:

A

The central nervous system (CNS)

Amygdala, visual cortex and the olfactory cortex

Endrocrine factors from the testis, ovary and other endocrine glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The trigger for ovulation, the LH surge is triggered by

A

rising estradiol

increasing frequency of GnRH secretion

Removal of GnRH Attenuation Factors

A mature follicle(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

FSH normal value?

A

<8 IU/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

LH normal value

A

<10 IU/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Estradiol: Early Follicular Is:

A

50-200 pmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Estradiol (Mid-Cycle) normal value….

A

50-1000pmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Progesterone (Mid-Luteal)

A

>40 nmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Testosterone NV:

A

0.5-3.0 nmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sex Binding Globulin (SHBG)

A

16-119 nmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Free Androgen Index (FAI) is:

A

< 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

TSH

A

0.5-5.5 nmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Prolactin

A

< 600 mIU/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

AMH may be used to:

  1. predict the ovarian response to hyperstimulation
  2. the timing of menopause
  3. to indicate iatrogenic damage to the ovarian follicle reserve
  4. a surrogate for antral follicle count (AFC)
  5. diagnosis polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
A

all correct

28
Q

AMH is Produced by

  1. Primoidial follicles
  2. Primary follicles
  3. Secondary PreAntral follicles
  4. Small antral follicles
  5. Large selected follicles
  6. Pre-ovulatory Graffian Follices
A

3.

29
Q

A high AMH implies:

  1. PCOS
  2. A good response to ovarian stimulation
A

all correct

30
Q

A Low AMH implies

  1. PCOS
  2. A good response to ovarian stimulation
  3. A normal response to ovarian stimulation
  4. A poor response to ovarian stimulation
  5. Little or no response to ovarian stimulation
  6. Menopause
A

4 and 5

31
Q

AMH may be useful in:

A

assessing the need for fertility preservation strategies

detecting post-chemotherapy or surgical damage to the ovarian reserve

the time to menopause

32
Q

Which protocol starts GNRH agonist/antagonist on day 21 of the previous cycle

  1. Long GnRH agonist protocol
  2. Follicular phase GnRH agonist protocol
  3. Short GnRH agonist protocol
  4. Ultra Short GnRH agonist protocol
  5. GnRH antagonist protocol
A

1.

33
Q

Which protocol starts GNRH agonist/antagonist on day 2 of the previous cycle

  1. Long GnRH agonist protocol
  2. Follicular phase GnRH agonist protocol
  3. Short GnRH agonist protocol
  4. Ultra Short GnRH agonist protocol
  5. GnRH antagonist protocol
A

2.

34
Q

Which protocol starts GNRH agonist/antagonist on day 2 of the treatment cycle

  1. Long GnRH agonist protocol
  2. Follicular phase GnRH agonist protocol
  3. Short GnRH agonist protocol
  4. Ultra Short GnRH agonist protocol
  5. GnRH antagonist protocol
A

3 and 4

35
Q

Which protocol starts GNRH agonist/antagonist on or after day 6 of the treatment cycle

  1. Long GnRH agonist protocol
  2. Follicular phase GnRH agonist protocol
  3. Short GnRH agonist protocol
  4. Ultra Short GnRH agonist protocol
  5. GnRH antagonist protocol
A

5.

36
Q

Which protocol continues GNRH agonist/antagonist until the HCG ovulation trigger

  1. Long GnRH agonist protocol
  2. Follicular phase GnRH agonist protocol
  3. Short GnRH agonist protocol
  4. Ultra Short GnRH agonist protocol
  5. GnRH antagonist protocol
A

1, 2, 3, 5

37
Q

which protocol continues GNRH agonist/antagonist for 3 days

  1. Long GnRH agonist protocol
  2. Follicular phase GnRH agonist protocol
  3. Short GnRH agonist protocol
  4. Ultra Short GnRH agonist protocol
  5. GnRH antagonist protocol
A

4

38
Q

Which protocol controls pituitary FSH secretion by disrupting the normal cyclic secretions of GNRH by the Hypothalamus

  1. Long GnRH agonist protocol
  2. Follicular phase GnRH agonist protocol
  3. Short GnRH agonist protocol
  4. Ultra Short GnRH agonist protocol
  5. GnRH antagonist protocol
A

1, 2, 3 and 4

39
Q

Which protocol controls causes a surge or flare in pituitary FSH secretion before slowly fading to low levels

  1. Long GnRH agonist protocol
  2. Follicular phase GnRH agonist protocol
  3. Short GnRH agonist protocol
  4. Ultra Short GnRH agonist protocol
  5. GnRH antagonist protocol
A

1, 2, 3 and 4

40
Q

Which protocol controls results in a long delay in resumption pituitary FSH/LH secretions

  1. Long GnRH agonist protocol
  2. Follicular phase GnRH agonist protocol
  3. Short GnRH agonist protocol
  4. Ultra Short GnRH agonist protocol
  5. GnRH antagonist protocol
A

1, 2, and 3

41
Q

Which protocol controls pituitary FSH secretion by competing with the pituitary receptor for GNRH

A

GnRH antagonist protocol

42
Q

Which protocol may NOT suppress ovulation

A

Ultra Short GnRH agonist protocol

43
Q

Which protocol significantly depletes LH secretions as well as FSH in a manner that may not support follicle development

A

GnRH antagonist protocol

44
Q

Clomiphene acts on

  1. FSH Receptors in the hypothalamus
  2. FSH Receptors in the pituitary
  3. FSH receptors in the uterus
A

all correct

Clomiphene was the first form of COH employed in IVF in early 1980’s

45
Q

Clomiphene’s main action is to

  1. Stop GnRH secretions
  2. Stop FSH secretions by the pituitary
  3. Stop the feedback suppression of FSH secretions caused by rising follicle derived oestradiol
  4. Desensitise the pituitary to rising follicle dereived oestradiol
  5. Trick the pituitary into thinking there are no growing follicles and continue to release FSH
A

3 and 5

46
Q

Clomiphene is usually given between

  1. Days 1-3 of the cycle
  2. Days 1-5 of the cycle
  3. Days 2-5 of the cycle
  4. Days 2-6 of the cycle
  5. Days 3-6 of the cycle
A

3.

47
Q

Clomiphene May delay uterine development during administration

A

true

48
Q

Clomiphene may mask any Estrogen dependent actions during administration

A

true

49
Q

Clomiphene► When used in ART as a cheaper or mild stimulation tool, the HCG trigger may need to be given earlier to avoid precocious ovulation

A

true

Clomiphene in Ovulation induction►

There is a risk of multiple pregnancy when used in IUI or Ovulation Induction

50
Q

Clomiphene may be used in ART for patients who do not fully suppress with GnRH Agonists/Antagonists

A

true

51
Q

Which of the following are GnRH Agonists

  1. Clomiphene
  2. Decapeptyl
  3. Zoladex
  4. Buserelin
  5. Nafarelin
  6. Syneral
  7. Cetrorelix
  8. Ganirelix
A

2, 3, 4, 5. and 6

GnRH Agonists

  • Decapeptyl
  • Zoladex
  • Buserelin
  • Nafarelin
  • Syneral
52
Q

Which of the following are GnRH Antagonists

  1. Clomiphene
  2. Decapeptyl
  3. Zoladex
  4. Buserelin
  5. Nafarelin
  6. Syneral
  7. Cetrorelix
  8. Ganirelix
A

7 and 8

GnRH Antagonists

  • Cetrorelix
  • Ganirelix
53
Q

Which of the following are administered as a daily injection

  1. Clomiphene
  2. Decapeptyl
  3. Zoladex
  4. Buserelin
  5. Nafarelin
  6. Syneral
  7. Cetrorelix
  8. Ganirelix
A

4, 7 and 8

54
Q

Which of the following are administered as a depot injection

  1. Clomiphene
  2. Decapeptyl
  3. Zoladex
  4. Buserelin
  5. Nafarelin
  6. Syneral
  7. Cetrorelix
  8. Ganirelix
A

2 and 3

depot injection

a sustained-action drug formulation that allows slow release and gradual absorption

55
Q

Which of the following are administered as a daily intranasal sniff

  1. Clomiphene
  2. Decapeptyl
  3. Zoladex
  4. Buserelin
  5. Nafarelin
  6. Syneral
  7. Cetrorelix
  8. Ganirelix
A

3, 6 and 8

56
Q

Which of the following are TRUE

  1. Agonist cause a transient rise in FSH as the pituitary starts to desensitize to GnRH
  2. After this flare in FSH secretions, the pituitary secretions of FSH slowly decline over several days
  3. Long Agonist protocols cause the flare to occur before FSH treatment starts
  4. Some residual serum FSH and LH pituitary activity is always present during stimulation
  5. Sufficient pituitary LH is present after long down regulation to maintain follicle health
A

All TRE

57
Q

Which of the following are TRUE

  1. Pituitary FSH secretion ceases shortly after antagonists are administered
  2. Antagonists are mainly used to suppress a LH Surge
  3. Pituitary FSH and LH secretions resume shortly after the antagonist is withdrawn
  4. A similar number of injections are needed in agonist and antagonist regimens
  5. The pregnancy rate is double using Antagonists protocols
  6. 95% of all IVF cycles use an antagonist regimen
  7. Starting the antagonist may cause a severe decline in LH secretion effecting E2 output
  8. Many think the antagonist is a more natural regimen
A

1,2, 3, 7 and 8

58
Q

Prior to starting FSH Stimulation, many protocols call for an ultrasound assessment to confirm there are no physical limitations. which of the following need to be checked?

A

The size and position of each ovary

The accessibility and suit of both ovaries for follicle aspiration

The presence of residual corpus luteum

Endometrial or other cycts

The location of the uterus and the appearance of the endometrium

Evidence of PCO

The presence of Fibroids

The presence of hydrosalpinges or uterine fluid

Congenital or other abnormalities

59
Q

Poor Responder:

  1. imply an intrinsic inability of a woman’s ovaries to react accordingly to the stimulation chosen
  2. imply an intrinsic inability of a woman’s ovaries to react regardless to the stimulation chosen
  3. implies that pregnancy will never happen
A

1

60
Q

which may be true:

  1. POR (poor ovarian response) may be an early sign of reduced ovarian reserve
  2. POR may be an early sign of ovarian ageing
  3. ovarian stimulation can be viewed as a dynamic test for the resting ovarian follicular pool.
  4. the size of the cohort of recruitable follicles may be a reflection of the resting follicle pool
A

all true

61
Q

For a cycle or attempt to be considered to have been a poor response, what criteria need to be met?

A

Advanced maternal age (+40 years) or any other risk factor for POR

A previous POR (<4 oocytes with a conventional stimulation protocol)

An abnormal ovarian reserve test

  • AFC ,5–7 follicles
  • AMH 0.5 –1.1 ng/ml).
62
Q

For a woman to be considered a poor responder (PORs), she should had one stimulated cycle with maximal stimulation.

A

true

63
Q

** However, if a women was over 40 years of age and had an abnormal ovarian reserve test (AMH or AFC), then this may act as a surrogate stimulation cycle, for the purposes of defining a woman as a poor responder.**

A

true

64
Q

AMH Levels in women who are Carriers of the BRAC1 Mutation are:

A
  • 25% lower than non carriers
65
Q

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
Abnormal AFP levels can be indicative of certain conditions during pregnancy:
a- AFP is an old screening method not widely available.
b- normal value of AFP ranges between 110-120 ng/mL
c- AFP can be measured for adults only to detect liver cancer markers
d-Increased or decreasd AFP levels in maternal blood can be indicative of certain conditions during pregnancy

A
  1. is correct
    Elevated AFP levels in maternal blood can be associated with conditions such as neural tube defects (NTDs) and abdominal wall defects in the fetus.
    On the other hand,
    low AFP levels may be associated with chromosomal abnormalities (DS)

Clinical Embryologist's exam samples. (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions