Exam Questions 2022 Flashcards

from ESRE 2022

1
Q

Which bond links amino acids in the sequence of a protein?

a) Hydrogen
b) Ester
c) Glycosidic
d) Peptide
e) Carbon

A

d.

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2
Q

Ethylene oxide is commonly used to disinfect:

a) Plastic syringes
b) Incubators
c) Benches
d) Hands
e) Air

A

b.

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3
Q

.Trophectoderm–derived cells contribute to the:

  • a) Fetus
  • b) Chorionic villi
  • c) Amniotic sac
  • d) Uterus
  • e) Vitelline sac
A

b.

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4
Q

Intracellular ice crystal formation is:

  • a) Induced by storing embryos at temperatures
  • b) Prevented by an increased permeability of the cell membrane
  • c) Decreased by removing most of the water from the embryo
  • d) Avoided by vitrification
  • e) Increased by raising intra‐cellular solute concentration
A

C.

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5
Q

In PGD for X‐linked recessive disease:

where the female is a heterozygous carrier, and the male is normal, what proportion of the female embryos will be affected?

  • a) None
  • b) 75%
  • c) 50%
  • d) 25%
  • e) 100%
A

a.

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6
Q

According to the European Directive 2012/39/EU and as far as partner donatio

the permitted time interval until repeat blood testing is:

  • a) Up to 24 months
  • b) Every 6 months
  • c) Every time the samples are produced
  • d) Up to 12 months
  • e) Every time the samples are used
A

a.

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7
Q

The biggest challenge to cells during freezing is:

  • a) Their ability to endure storage at very 0 temperatures
  • b) Their ability to endure storage at very low temperatures
  • c) The lethality of an intermediate zone of temperature (-15 to ‐60ºC) that they must pass during cooling
  • d) Tolerance to cryoprotectant agents
  • e) The ability to form ice crystals
A

c.

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8
Q

Vitrified embryos:

  • a) Do not contain any ice crystals
  • b) Are completely dehydrated
  • c) Can be safely stored at ‐80ºC
  • d) Can contain ice crystals
  • e) Can only be stored in liquid nitrogen
A

a.

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9
Q

The genes implicated in premature ovarian failure include:

  • a) SRY and SOX‐9
  • b) AZF and ZFX
  • c) ZFX and FMR1
  • d) FMR1 and AMH
  • e) FSH and LH
A

c.

FMR1: involve premature ovarian failure

ZFX:

Zinc finger protein X-linked : a sex determination factor and plays a critical role in spermatogenesis.

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10
Q

During female meiosis:

  • a) Meiosis I is completed during fetal development
  • b) Meiosis II starts during fetal growth
  • c) Meiosis I is arrested in diplotene during fetal development
  • d) Meiosis II is arrested in diplotene during fetal development
  • e) Meiosis I starts after puberty
A

c.

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11
Q

1. Ultrasound examination of an anovulatory patient with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) reveals that her ovaries contain multiple enlarged but immature follicles. The oocytes within these follicles have advanced to which of the following stages of meiosis?

A. First meiotic prophase

B. First meiotic metaphase

C. Second meiotic prophase

D. Second meiotic metaphase

E. Pronuclear stage

A

A.

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12
Q

An undescended testis of a prepubertal male is removed since it is at higher risk to develop testicular cancer. Histologic analysis reveals that cells of the germ line in this testis have advanced as far as which of the following stages of development?

A. Primordial germ cell

B. Spermatogonium

C. Primary spermatocyte

D. Secondary spermatocyte

E. Definitive spermatocyte

A

B.

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13
Q

A female patient with unexplained infertility is treated with menopausal gonadotropin and pure follicle stimulating hormone to induce follicular development. Several oocytes are aspirated from enlarged follicles and cultured in nutrient medium until they reach the normal second stage of meiotic arrest before they are fertilized. Fertilization is therefore carried out at which of the following stages of oocyte development?

A. Prophase of the primary oocyte

B. Metaphase of the primary oocyte

C. Prophase of the Secondary oocyte

D. Metaphase of the Secondary oocyte

E. Prophase of the definitive oocyte

F. Metaphase of the definitive oocyte

A

D.

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14
Q

A 22 year old male with respiratory difficulties is diagnosed with a mediastinal germ cell tumor. The primordial germ cell that gave rise to this tumor inappropriately migrated to this site from which of the following tissues?

  • A. Liver
  • B. Testis
  • C. Yolk sac
  • D. Allantois
  • E. Spleen
A

D.

Misdirected primordial germ cells that lodge in extragonadal sites usually die, but if such cells survive, they may develop into teratomas.

Teratomas are bizarre غير طبيعي growths that contain scrambled mixtures of highly differentiated tissues, such as skin, hair, cartilage, and even teeth .

They are found in the mediastinum, the sacrococcygeal region, and the oral region.

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15
Q

Chromosome analysis is carried out on the polar bodies of a woman for screening prior to in vitro fertilization. Polar bodies removed from some oocytes contain two copies of chromosome 21 while others contain no copies of chromosome 21. The woman displays none of the characteristics of Down syndrome and so the nondisjunction that resulted in this condition must have occurred in which of the following cells?

A. Primary oocyte in her mother’s germline

B. Secondary oocyte in her mother’s germline germline

C. Blastomere in her mother’s germline

D. Primary oocyte in her own germ line

E. Secondary oocyte in her own germline

F. Blastomere in her own germ line

A

D.

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16
Q

Normally, chromosomes are visible only during mitosis and meiosis.

When cells are not undergoing division, ⇒ the genetic material making up chromosomes unfolds and uncoils into a diffuse network within the nucleus, generally referred to as chromatin.

A

true

(essential repro book)

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17
Q

Various receptor molecules are also found on the surfaces of cells. These molecules act as……………………

A

recognition sites that transfer specific chemical signals across the cell membrane into the cell

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18
Q

nucleolus organizer region, or the NOR?

A

nucleolus present in the nucleus , where ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is synthesized and where the initial stages of ribosomal assembly occur►. The portions of DNA that encode rRNA

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19
Q

nucleoid

A

In eubacteria, such as Escherichia coli,

the genetic material is present as a long,

circular DNA molecule that is compacted into an unenclosed region called

the nucleoid.

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20
Q

endoplasmic reticulum (ER) appears of two Regions??

A

The ER appears smooth ER in places where it serves as the site for synthesizing fatty acids and phospholipids;

in other places, it appears

rough ER because it is studded with ribosomes. Ribosomes serve as sites where genetic information contained in messenger RNA (mRNA) is translated into proteins.

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21
Q

Mitochondria

A

Mitochondria

are found in most eukaryotes, including both animal and plant cells, and are the sites of the oxidative phases of cell respiration.

These chemical reactions generate large amounts of the energy-rich molecule Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP).

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22
Q

Chloroplasts

A

Chloroplasts,

found in plants, algae, and some protozoans, are associated with photosynthesis,

the major energy-trapping process on Earth.

Both mitochondria and chloroplasts contain DNA in a form distinct from that found in the nucleus.

They are able to duplicate themselves and transcribe and translate their own genetic information.

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23
Q

Centrioles & Centrosome

A

Animal cells and some plant cells also contain

a pair of complex structures called centrioles.

These cytoplasmic bodies, each located in a specialized region called

the centrosome, are associated with the organization of

spindle fibers that function in mitosis and meiosis

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24
Q

spindle fibers

A

spindle fibers organized by the centrioles ►occurs during the early phases of mitosis and meiosis.

These fibers play an important role in the movement of chromosomes as they separate during cell division.

They are composed of arrays of microtubules consisting of ≈≈►

polymers of the protein tubulin.

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25
Q

Centromere

A

the site connect homologous chromosome, location establishes the general appearance of each chromosome.

Extending from either side of the centromere are the arms of the chromosome.

double structure consisting of two parallel sister chromatids connected by a common centromere.

Had these chromosomes been allowed to continue dividing, the sister chromatids, which are replicas of one another, would have separated into the two new cells as division continued. The haploid number (n) of chromosomes is equal to one-half the diploid number.

Depending on the position of the centromere, different arm ratios are produced.

figure**Centromere locations and the chromosome designations that are based on them. Note that the shape of the chromosome during anaphase is determined by the position of the centromere during metaphase.

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26
Q

chromosomes are classified as ……..,………,……,… according the centromere position?

A

chromosomes are classified as metacentric, submetacentric, acrocentric, or telocentric on the basis of the centromere location.

The shorter arm, by convention, is shown above the centromere and is called the p arm (p, for “petite”).

The longer arm is shown below the centromere and is called the q arm

(q because it is the next letter in the alphabet).

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27
Q

Homologous Chromosomes

A

somatic chromosomes (44), exist in pairs (22), each pair are called homologous chromosomes.

With the exception of sex chromosomes

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28
Q

locus

A

Homologous chromosomes have important genetic similarities.

They contain identical gene sites along their lengths ►;

each site is called

a locus (pl. loci).

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29
Q

alleles

A

An allele is a variant form of a gene.

Some genes have a variety of different forms, which are located at the same position, or genetic locus, on a chromosome.

Humans are called diploid organisms because they have two alleles at each genetic locus,

one allele inherited from each parent.

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30
Q

True or False

Following cell division, the initial size of each new daughter cell is the same size of the parent cell.

However, the nucleus of each new cell is smaller than the nucleus of the original cell.

A

False

Following cell division (cytokinesis), the initial size of each new daughter cell is approximately one-half the size of the parent cell حوالي نصف الخلية الاصل .

However, after (Karyokinesis) the nucleus of each new cell is not appreciably smaller ليست اصغر بشكل ملحوظ than the nucleus of the original cell

31
Q

During interphase: the replication of the DNA of each chromosome. this period of DNA synthesis before the cell entering mitosis is called…………………

A

S phase. (s: from synthesis), period of interphase where DNA synthesis before the cell enter mitosis.

Before and after S phas e⇒ there are two (Gaps) periods of interphase where No DNA syntheses called : G1 & G2

During both of these intervals (G1 & G2), as well as during S, intensive metabolic activity, cell growth, and cell differentiation .

By the end of G2, the volume of the cell has roughly doubled,⇒ DNA has been replicated, and mitosis (M) is initiated.

Following mitosis, continuously dividing cells then repeat this cycle

(G1, S, G2, M) over and over, as shown in Figure

32
Q

The cell stay most time in the interphase …………

A

true

33
Q

stages of Mitosis

prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

A

see the fig

34
Q

over half of mitosis is spent in prophase

A

prophase stage characterized by:

migration of two pairs of centrioles to opposite ends of the cell.

After migration,► the centrosomes, in which the centrioles are localized, are responsible for organizing cytoplasmic microtubules into the spindle fibers that run between these poles, creating an axis along which chromosomal separation occurs.

► nuclear envelope begins to break down.

►diffuse chromatin fibers have begun to condense.

► Near the end of prophase⇒each chromosome is actually a double structure split longitudinally.►►sister chromatids

Sister chromatids are held together by a multi-subunit protein complex called cohesin.

35
Q

Prometaphase & Metaphase

term prometaphase refers to the period of chromosome movement

Migration is made by the binding of spindle fibers to the chromosome’s kinetochore Once properly attached to the spindle fibers, ……… is degraded by an enzyme, appropriately named …………..

A

Migration of chromosomes is made by the binding of spindle fibers to the chromosome’s kinetochore

Once properly attached to the spindle fibers ► Cohesin is degraded by an enzyme, appropriately named Separase

Ccohesin is degraded Except at the centromere region.​?

due to the presence of shugoshin protein ► protects cohesin from being degraded by separase at the centromeric regions

36
Q

spindle fibers. ⇒ consist of microtubules⇒ which themselves consist of molecular subunits of the protein………….

A

Tubulin

kinetochore microtubules:

The microtubules most directly responsible for chromosome migration make contact with, and adhere to, kinetochores as they grow from the centrosome region. They are referred to as kinetochore microtubules

37
Q

Anaphase

the shorter stage of mitosis at which sister chromatids disjoin (separate)

For complete Disjunction several events should be occur???

A

For complete disjunction to occur:

(1) shugoshin protein must be degraded, reversing its protective role.
(2) the cohesin complex holding the centromere region of each sister chromosome is then cleaved by separase;
(3) sister chromatids of each chromosome are pulled toward the opposite poles of the cell

As these events proceed, each migrating chromatid is now referred to as a daughter chromosome.

38
Q

Telophase is the final stage of mitosis

the most important event in Telophase is …………………

A

cytokinesis

39
Q

a) If an organism has a diploid number of 16, how many chromatids are visible at the end of mitotic prophase?
(b) How many chromosomes are moving to each pole during anaphase of mitosis?

A

.32 chromatids,

16 chromosomes moving to each pole

40
Q

Gene expression consists …………

A

Gene expression consists of transcription of DNA into mRNA ⇒ and the translation (⇒) of mRNA (with the help of a ribosome) into a protein

41
Q

chiasma

A

chiasma (pl., chiasmata),

point where nonsister chromatids (one paternal and one maternal chromatid) have undergone genetic exchange through the process of crossing over.

42
Q

nondisjunction

describes such an error. At the completion of a normal anaphase I,

A

At anaphase I, one-half of each tetrad (the dyad) is pulled toward each pole of the dividing cell.

This separation process is the physical basis of disjunction,

the separation of chromosomes from one another. Occasionally, errors in meiosis occur and separation is not achieved.

The term nondisjunction describes such an error ►at anaphase I

43
Q

An organism has a diploid number of 16 in a primary oocyte.

(a) How many tetrads are present in prophase I?
(b) How many dyads are present in prophase II?
(c) How many monads migrate to each pole during anaphase II?

A

a) 8
b) 8
c) 8

44
Q

Spermatogenesis and oogenesis

A

There is a major difference between meiosis in males and in females.

spermatogenesis partitions the cytoplasmic volume equally and produces four haploid sperm cells.

Oogenesis, on the other hand, collects the bulk of cytoplasm in one egg cell and reduces the other haploid products to polar bodies.

45
Q

In an organism with a diploid number of 2n = 6, how many individual chromosomal structures will align on the metaphase plate during

  • (a) mitosis
  • (b) meiosis I
  • (c) meiosis II? Describe each configuration.
A

(a) Remember that in mitosis, homologous chromosomes do not synapse, so there will be six double structures, each consisting of a pair of sister chromatids. In other words, the number of structures is equivalent to the diploid number.
(b) In meiosis I, the homologs have synapsed, reducing the number of structures to three. Each is called a tetrad and consists of two pairs of sister chromatids.
(c) In meiosis II, the same number of structures exist (three), but in this case they are called dyads. Each dyad is a pair of sister chromatids. When crossing over has occurred, each chromatid may contain parts of one of its nonsister chromatids, obtained during exchange in prophase I

46
Q

For the chromosomes in the previous problem, assume that each of the larger chromosomes has a different allele for a given gene, A OR a, as shown. Also assume that each of the smaller chromosomes has a different allele for a second gene, B OR b. Calculate the probability of generating each possible combination of these alleles (AB, Ab, aB, ab) following meiosis I

A

(a) As shown in the accompanying diagram:

Case I AB and ab

Case II Ab and aB

Case III aB and Ab

Case IV ab and AB

  • Total: AB = 2 (p = 1>4)
  • Ab = 2 (p = 1>4)
  • aB = 2 (p = 1>4)
  • ab = 2 (p = 1>4)
47
Q

arrest meiosis in oocyte

A

Meiosis is initiated in all the eggs of a human female when she is still a fetus, until the point where the homologs synapse and recombination has begun. Then oocyte development is

arrested in meiosis I in diplotene stage of prophase 1.

Thus, all primary oocytes have been formed by birth.

When ovulation begins at puberty, meiosis is reinitiated in one egg during each ovulatory cycle and continues into meiosis II.

The process is once again arrested after ovulation and is not completed unless fertilization occurs.

48
Q

Cleft lip & cleft palate

A

*Cleft lip is a multifactorial genetic disorder that involves neural crest cells. Cleft lip results from the following:

  • The maxillary prominence fails to fuse with the medial nasal prominence.
  • The underlying mesoderm and neural crest fail to expand, resulting in a persistent labial groove. .

*Cleft palate is a multifactorial genetic disorder that involves neural crest cells. Cleft palate is classified as anterior or posterior. The anatomic landmark that distinguishes an anterior cleft palate from posterior cleft palate is the incisive foramen.

  • a. Anterior cleft palate • Occurs when the palatine shelves fail to fuse with the primary palate.
  • b. Posterior cleft palate • Occurs when the palatine shelves fail to fuse with each other and with the nasal septum.
  • c. Anteroposterior cleft palate • Occurs when there is a combination of both defects.
49
Q

The neural crest cells

A

The neural crest cells differentiate from ⇒neuroectoderm of the neural tube and form ►a column of cells along both sides of the neural tube.

Neural crest cells undergo a prolific migration throughout the embryo (both the cranial region and the trunk region) and ultimately differentiate into a wide array of adult cells and structures. as in the figure

50
Q

HUMAN PLACENTAL LACTOGEN (hPL)

A
  • hPL is a protein hormone produced by the placenta;
  • it induces lipolysis, thereby elevating free fatty acid levels in the mother.
    1. hPL is considered the “growth hormone” of the latter half of pregnancy.
    1. HPL can be assayed in maternal blood at week 6.
    1. hPL levels vary with placental mass (i.e., may indicate a multiple pregnancy) and rapidly disappear from maternal blood after delivery.
51
Q

PROLACTIN (PRL)

A
  • PRL is a protein hormone produced by the maternal adenohypophysis, fetal adenohypophysis, and decidual tissue of the uterus; it prepares the mammary glands for lactation.
  • PRL can be assayed in maternal blood throughout pregnancy or later in amniotic fluid.
  • Near term, PRL levels rise to a maximum of about 100 ng/mL

(normal nonpregnant PRL levels range between 8–25 ng/mL).

52
Q

AMNIOCENTESIS

A
  • Amniocentesis is a transabdominal sampling of amniotic fluid and fetal cells.
  • Amniocentesis is performed at weeks 14–18 and is indicated in the following situations:
  1. the woman is older than 35 years of age,
  2. a previous child has a chromosomal anomaly,
  3. one parent is a known carrier of a translocation or inversion,
  4. one or both parents are known carriers of an X-linked recessive or autosomal recessive trait
  5. there is a history of neural tube defects.
  • The sample obtained is used in the following studies:
  • a. α-Fetoprotein assay is used to diagnose neural tube defects.
  • b. Spectrophotometric assay of bilirubin is used to diagnose hemolytic disease of the newborn (i.e., erythroblastosis fetalis) due to Rh-incompatibility.
  • c. Lecithin-sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio and phosphatidylglycerol assay are used to determine lung maturity of the fetus.
  • d. DNA analysis: A wide variety of DNA methodologies is available [e.g., karyotype analysis, Southern blotting, or RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism) analysis] to diagnose chromosomal abnormalities and single-gene defects.
53
Q

Chorionic villus biopsy

A

Chorionic villus biopsy is a transabdominal or transcervical sampling of the chorionic villi to obtain a large amount of fetal cells for DNA analysis.

  • Chorionic villus biopsy is performed at weeks 6–11 (i.e., much earlier than amniocentesis), thereby providing an early source of fetal cells for DNA analysis.
54
Q

Percutaneous Umbilical Blood Sampling (PUBS)

A

Percutaneous Umbilical Blood Sampling (PUBS)

is a sampling of fetal blood from the umbilical cord.

55
Q

The APGAR score assesses five characteristics

A

The APGAR score assesses five characteristics (appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiratory effort) in the newborn infant to determine which infants need resuscitation. (grimace: response to stimulation)

  • The APGAR score is calculated at 1 minute and again at 5 minutes after birth.
  • To obtain an APGAR score, one scores 0, 1, or 2 for the five characteristics and adds them together.
  • 1. APGAR score of 0–3 indicates a life-threatening situation.
  • 2. APGAR score of 4–6 indicates temperature and ventilation support is needed.
  • 3. APGAR score of 7–10 indicates a normal situation.
56
Q

true or fulse?

Johnson score for detection of testicular spermatogenesis affected by testicular size?

A

not affected

57
Q

A General Area of Pre-Processing Data That Precedes The Clinic/Laboratory Activity is Called:

  • a) Reference Indicator
  • b) Performance Indicator
  • c) Key Performance Indicator
A

c)

58
Q

A KPI That is related to Data That is routinely Collected And Stored But Rarely used in Quality Management is Called:

  • a) Reference Indicator
  • b) Performance Indicator
  • c) Key Performance Indicator
A

b)

59
Q

KPI That Is Related To The Core Business Of An ART Laboratory And Clinic is Called:

  • a) Reference Indicator
  • b) Performance Indicator
  • c) Key Performance Indicator
A

c)

60
Q

splicosome

A

The spliceosome is a large RNA-protein complex that catalyses the removal of introns from nuclear pre-mRNA

61
Q

Statistics when data self-control dependent

A

Data self-control dependentmean:
Repeated measures over timel
Method is: Repeated Measures ANOVA: Compares means across multiple time points or conditions within the same subjects.

62
Q

Broken straw of semen sample in liquid nitrogen tank?

Report all patients to exclude all samples in this tank??🤔

A

The embryologist’s decision when faced with a broken straw of semen sample:
-Assess the extent of the damage
-Consider the importance of the sample
-Follow established protocols in the clinic
-Consult with colleagues and seniors

63
Q

Mosaicism

A

Mosaicism refers to the presence of two or more genetically distinct cell populations within same embryo.

64
Q

Congenital Bilateral Absence Vas Difference (CBAVD)

A

CBAVD
Genetic cause of male infertility led to (Obstruction azo-spermia) caused by CFTR gene mutation on chromosome 7
-sperm production is normal in seminiferous tubules but no delivery to ejaculatory ducts.

65
Q

Potential measurement of gland secretion:
-Prostatic ??
-Seminal Vesicles fructose?
Epididymis l-Carintin??

A

Markers that can be used to assess the functional status and health of various glands, including the prostate, seminal vesicles, and epididymis:
-Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
-commonly used as a marker for prostate health and can be measured through a blood test. Elevated levels of PSA may indicate conditions such as prostate inflammation, infection, or prostate cancer.
-Seminal Vesicles:Fructose:
-Fructose: Seminal vesicles produce fructose, a sugar that provides energy for sperm cells. The measurement of fructose levels in semen can be used as an indirect marker of seminal vesicle function. Low levels of fructose may indicate an issue with seminal vesicle function or obstruction in the seminal vesicle ducts.
Epididymis-l-Carnitine:-
l-Carnitine is an amino acid derivative that plays a role in energy metabolism in sperm cells. It is synthesized and secreted by the epididymis. The measurement of l-carnitine levels in semen can provide insights into epididymal function and sperm health. Abnormal levels of l-carnitine may be associated with impaired sperm quality and fertility issues.

66
Q

PNB
Exclusively paternal origin
??

A

Several hypotheses have been proposed regarding the origin of NPBs:

Paternal Origin Hypothesis: According to this hypothesis, NPBs are derived from the paternal pronucleus. It is suggested that during fertilization, the paternal chromatin undergoes remodeling and condensation, leading to the formation of NPBs. These NPBs are then thought to participate in the reorganization of the paternal chromatin in preparation for subsequent embryonic development.

67
Q

semen PH controls

A

PH of the semen is a resulinf from the effect of seminal vesicle (Alkaline) and Prostate (Acidic)
Seminal Vesicles: The seminal vesicles contribute the majority of the volume to semen. They secrete a fluid rich in fructose, prostaglandins, and other substances. The fructose provides energy for sperm, while prostaglandins help with sperm motility and function.
-The fluid from the seminal vesicles is alkaline, which helps to neutralize the acidic environment of the vagina, protecting sperm from damage and enhancing their lifespan.

Prostate Gland: The prostate gland secretes a milky fluid that makes up a significant portion of semen volume. This fluid contains enzymes, citric acid, calcium, zinc, and other substances.
The prostatic fluid is slightly acidic, which plays a role in maintaining the overall pH balance of semen. The acidic pH helps to counteract the alkaline nature of seminal vesicle fluid, resulting in a balanced pH environment for optimal sperm function.

68
Q

Gene responsible for CBAVD

A

CFTR

69
Q

Ist polar 1n 1c second polar 2n 2c?

A

Ist polar 1n 2c second polar 1n 1c?

70
Q

True or false:

regarding Alpha1-fetoprotein AFP positive correlation between the AFP concentration and tumor size, tumor growth, stage or degree of malignancy has so far been demonstrated.

A

false

  • an albumin - like glycoprotein formed in:

the yolk sac, non - differentiated liver cells, and the fetal gastro - intestinal tract.

  • 70‑95 % of patients with primary hepatocellular carcinoma have elevated AFP values.
  • Highly elevated AFP values generally indicate primary liver cell carcinoma.(values are generally below 350‑400 IU/mL)
  • elevated AFP in the amniotic fluid is a reliable but nonspecific marker for open neural tube defects
71
Q

elevated AFP concentrations in maternal serum indicates……………..

A
  • Elevated AFP concentrations in maternal serum or amniotic fluid during pregnancy can indicate (neuralmtube defect),spina bifida, anencephalia, atresia of the oesophagus or multiple pregnancy.

Measurement of AFP makes a contribution to the risk assessment for trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) in the second trimester of pregnancy together with hCG+β

In a trisomy 21 affected pregnancy the maternal serum concentration of AFP is decreased→ whereas the maternal serum hCG+β concentration is ► approximately twice the normal median.

72
Q

Tumor arises from primitive streak remnants is …………

A

Sacrococcygeal Teratoma (ST)

  • More commonly in female infants
  • must be removed by 6 month age
73
Q

true or false??

Caudal dysplasia (sirenomelia) refer to syndromes caused by fusion of upper limbs.

A

false

Caudal dysplasia (sirenomelia). caused by abnormal gastrulation in which the migration of mesoderm through primitive streak is disturbed. causing complete fusion of lower limbs.

74
Q

……………..the first differentiated cells outside the embryo during cleavage and gives rise later in pregnancy to the chorio-allantoic placenta,

A

TE. is the first differentiated cells outside the embryo during cleavage and gives rise later in pregnancy to the chorio-allantoic placenta,