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NCMN 109A - Maternal Lecture > FRAMEWORK FOR MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING FOCUSING ON AT RISK, HIGH RISK AND SICK CLIENTS PART 2 > Flashcards

FRAMEWORK FOR MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING FOCUSING ON AT RISK, HIGH RISK AND SICK CLIENTS PART 2 Flashcards

1
Q

glands that produce a thick mucus that maintains moisture in the vulva area

A

Bartholin’s glands

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2
Q

Bartholin’s glands A.K.A

A

greater vestibular glands

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3
Q

elongate inferior end of the uterus where it connects to the vagina

A

Cervix

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4
Q

transformed follicle after ovulation that secretes progesterone

A

Corpus luteum

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5
Q

inner lining of the uterus, part of which builds up during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle and then sheds with menses

A

Endometrium

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6
Q

fingerlike projections on the distal uterine tubes

A

Fimbriae

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7
Q

(of the uterus) domed portion of the uterus that is superior to the uterine tubes

A

Fundus

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8
Q

First menstruation in a pubertal female

A

Menarch

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9
Q

It is an approximately 28-day cycle of changes in the uterus consisting of a menses phase, a proliferative phase, and a secretory phase

A

Menstrual cycle

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10
Q

A mound of fatty tissue located at the front of the vulva

A

Mons pubis

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11
Q

A smooth muscle layer of uterus that allows for uterine contractions during labor and expulsion of menstrual blood

A

Myometrium

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12
Q

It is a muscular hollow organ in which a fertilized egg develops into a fetus

A

Uterus

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13
Q

A tunnel-like organ that provides access to the uterus for the insertion of semen and from the uterus for the birth of a baby

A

Vagina

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14
Q

An external female genitalia

A

Vulva

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15
Q

The completed weeks of pregnancy (not months). The mother’s dates are usually calculated from the 12-week dating scan rather than the last menstrual period (LMP). This will give a more accurate expected date of delivery (EDD).

A

Gestation or gestational age

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16
Q

Pregnant

A

Gravid

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17
Q

The number of times a woman has been pregnant, including the current pregnancy. This is regardless of the outcome of the pregnancies (for example it includes miscarriages).

A

Gravidity

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18
Q

The fetal head

A

Cephalic

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19
Q

Cephalic a.k.a

A

Vertex

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20
Q

When the membranes rupture and a cord is presenting in front of the fetus.

A

Cord prolapse

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21
Q

Means “difficult.” May be associated with shoulder dystocia, or labour dystocia (protracted labour)

A

Dystocia

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22
Q

refers to the number of live births plus stillbirths a woman has had

A

Parity

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23
Q

Pregnancies up to 24 weeks, especially before 20 weeks.

A

Early pregnancy

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24
Q

A pregnancy developing outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes.

A

Ectopic pregnancy

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25
Q

method of turning a baby from the breech position to head down position

A

ECV - External cephalic version

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26
Q

This is initially based on the LMP then from a 12- week dating scan.

A

Estimated date of delivery (EDD)

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27
Q

Entry of the presenting part of the fetus (usually head) into the pelvis.

A

Engagement

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28
Q

means blood loss of more than 500 ml from the birth canal within 24 hours of delivery.

A

‘Primary’ PPH

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29
Q

means excessive bleeding more than 24 hours after delivery.

A

‘Secondary’ PPH

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30
Q

A labour that is very fast.

A

Precipitate labour

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31
Q

Referring to labour or delivery before 37 completed weeks of gestation.

A

Premature or preterm

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32
Q

A woman in her first pregnanc

A

Primigravida

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33
Q

The 6-week period after the birth of the baby during which the mother’s reproductive organs return to their prepregnant state.

A

Puerperium

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34
Q

Products of conception refers to the combination of fetal and placental tissue

A

Retained products of conception (RPOC)

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35
Q

When the ‘waters break’.

A

Spontaneous rupture of the membranes (SROM)

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36
Q

A baby born after 24 weeks showing NO SIGNS OF LIFE at delivery. The fetus may have died days or even weeks before within the uterus.

A

Stillbirth (SB)

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37
Q

When pregnancy is completed within 38–42 weeks.

A

Term

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38
Q

The ability of the fetus to survive independently.

A

Viability

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39
Q

PHILOSOPHY OF MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING

A

A.Family-centered
B.Community-centered
C.Evidence-based
D.Challenging role for nurses

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40
Q

FRAMEWORK FOR MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING

A
  1. Nursing process
  2. Nursing Theory
  3. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses
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41
Q

Quality and Safety Education for Nurses

A
  1. Patient-centered Care
  2. Teamwork and Collaboration
  3. Evidence-based Practice
  4. Quality Improvement
  5. Safety
  6. Informatics
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42
Q

Phases of Health Care in Maternal and Child Health

A

Health Promotion, Health Maintenance, Health Restoration, Health Rehabilitation

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43
Q

Educating client to be aware of healthy living teaching and role modeling.

A

Health Promotion

44
Q

intervening to maintain health when at risk of illness.

A

Health Maintenance

45
Q

Using conscientious assessment to be certain that symptoms of illness are identified and interventions are begun to return pt to wellness

A

Health Restoration

46
Q

preventing further complications from an illness, bringing the ill client back to an optimal state

A

Health Rehabilitation

47
Q

Role of a Nurse in Caring for Childbearing Families:

A
  1. Healthcare provider
  2. Teacher
  3. Collaborator
  4. Researcher
  5. Manager of care
48
Q

is one of the most sensitive indicators of health status of a country or community.

A

Infant Mortality Rate

49
Q

Infant Mortality
Results from:

A

Poor maternal conditions
Unhealthy environment
Inadequate healthcare delivery system

50
Q

Leading causes of infant mortality:

A

▪ Respiratory conditions of the fetus and newborn
▪ Pneumonia
▪ Congenital anomalies
▪ Birth injury and difficult labor
▪Diarrheal diseases
- Septicemia
- Measles
- Meningitis
- Other diseases of the respiratory system
- Aminovitaminosis and other nutritional deficiency

51
Q

It is the major indicator of a woman’s health status.

A

Maternal Mortality

52
Q

Define by WHO as the death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy from any cause related to, or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management, but not from accidental or incidental causes.

A

Maternal Mortality

53
Q

Leading causes of maternal mortality (WHO, 2024)

A

▪ severe bleeding (mostly bleeding after childbirth);
▪ infections (usually after childbirth);
▪ high blood pressure during pregnancy (pre-eclampsia and
eclampsia);
▪ complications from delivery; and
▪ unsafe abortion.

54
Q

HOW TO DECREASE MATERNAL MORTALITY RATE?

A

INCREASE PARTICIPATION IN PRENATAL CARE
EARLY DETECTION OF DISORDERS
INCREASE CONTROL OF COMPLICATIONS
DECREASE THE USE OF ANESTHESIA
IMPROVE ABILITY TO PREVENT BLEEDING AND INFECTION BETTER

55
Q

DOH PROGRAM TO ADDRESS MATERNAL AND CHILD CARE

A

PRENATAL CARE
FAMILY PLANNING
NEWBORN SCREENING
EINC
IMMUNIZATION OF CHILDREN AND MOTHERS
INFANT AND YOUNG CHILDREN FEEDING PROGRAM

56
Q

Sec. 4 Applicability – the provisions in this chapter shall apply to all
private and government institutions adopting rooming – in and
breastfeeding.
Sec. 5 Normal Spontaneous Deliveries – the following newborn
infants shall be put to the breast of the mother immediately after
birth and forthwith roomed – in within 30 minutes.
Sec. 6 Deliveries by Caesarean – infants delivered by caesarean
section shall be roomed – in and breast feed with in 3 – 4 hours after

A

ROOMING IN AND BREASTFEEDING OF INFANTS ACT OF 1992 (REPUBLIC ACT OF 7600)

57
Q

Normal Spontaneous Deliveries – the following newborn infants shall be put to the breast of the mother immediately after birth and forthwith roomed – in within ______________.

A

30 minutes

58
Q

Deliveries by Caesarean – infants delivered by caesarean section shall be roomed – in and breast feed with in ____________ after

A

3 – 4 hours

59
Q

▪Lactation stations in different agencies
▪Lactation periods for breastfeeding employees
(40 minutes in every 8 hours)
▪ Continuous education, reeducation, and training
programs for healthcare members
▪Information Dissemination

A

RA NO. 10028 (2010) - An Act Expanding the Promotion of Breastfeeding

60
Q

▪ NO MILK COMPANY SHOULD SUPPORT BREASTFEEDING ACTIVITIES
▪ NO HEALTH AND NUTRITION WORKER SHOULD PROMOTE OR SELL INFANT FORMULA AND OTHER MILK PRODUCTS AND BOTTLES

A

Philippine Milk Code of 1986 of Executive Order 51

61
Q

Danger signs of pregnancy which must be referred immediately are:

A
  1. High fever
  2. Severe vomiting
  3. Severe headache
  4. Pallor and laboured breathing
  5. Swelling of hands and feet
  6. Foul smelling vaginal discharge
  7. Severe abdominal pain, nape pain
  8. PROM before expected delivery
  9. Rhythmic cramping
  10. Burning sensation w/ urination
  11. Blurring of vision
  12. High BP
62
Q

Factors that will result in a birth of high risk infant or harm the woman

Pre-existing risk

A

a. Age
b. Parity
c. Social factors
d. Environmental factors
e. Marital status
f. Pre-existing disease
g. Physical stature
h. Nutritional status

63
Q

Factors that will result in a birth of high risk infant or harm the woman

Risks emerging during pregnancy

A

a. Anemia
b. Hemorrhage
c. PIH
d. Transverse lie
e. Malposition
f. Suspected CPD
g. Negative attitudes toward pregnancy

64
Q

Factors that will result in a birth of high risk infant or harm the woman

Risks emerging during pregnancy

A

a. PROM
b. Amnionitis
c. Transverse lie
d. Prolonged/ obstructed labor
e. Intra-partal bleeding from previa/abruptio

65
Q

Factors that will result in a birth of high risk infant or harm the woman

Risks of postpartum

A

a. Puerperal infection
b. Hemorrhage
c. Sub-involution
d. Postoperative complications
e. Thrombophlebitis
f. Depression

66
Q

Is a study of the way such disorders occurs

66
Q

the scientific study of inherited variation

67
Q

a science that deals with all characteristics of genes

68
Q

is the study of chromosomes by light microscopy and the method by which chromosomal aberrations are identified.

A

Cytogenetics

69
Q

are the basic units of heredity that determine both the physical and cognitive characteristics of people. It is composed of segments of DNA, they are woven into strands in the nucleus

70
Q

are threadlike structures of nucleic acids and protein found in the nucleus of most living cells, carrying genetic information in the form of genes

A

Chromosomes

71
Q

In humans, each cell, except for the sperm and ovum, contains __ chromosomes (__ pair of autosomes and _- pair of sex chromosomes).

72
Q

If a person who is heterozygous for an autosomal dominant trait mates with a person who is free of the trait, the chances are even (50%) that a child born to the couple would have the disorder or would be disease or carrier free

A

Autosomal Dominant Inheritence

73
Q

It is a progressive neurologic disorder characterized by loss of motor control and intellectual deterioration, symptoms usually manifest at 35-45 y/o.

A

Huntington disease

74
Q

Autosomal RECESSIVE Inheritance examples

A

cystic fibrosis, albinism, Tay-Sachs disease, galactosemia, phenylketonuria, Rh Incompatibility

75
Q

Screen for changes in chromosomes, genes, or proteins

A

Genetic Screening

76
Q

Diseases Detected in Carrier Screening

A

Cystic Fribrosis
Fragile X Syndrome
Sicke Cell Disease
Tay-Sachs Disease

77
Q

Diseases Detected in Prenatal Screening

A

Down Syndrome
Edward’s Syndrome
Brain or Neural Tube Defects (Spina Bifida, Anencephaly)

78
Q

Sample of individual’s blood, saliva, or tissue

A

Carrier Screening

79
Q

is one of the most common prenatal screening that measures levels of four substances in a woman’s blood

A

Quadruple Screening Test

80
Q

The Quadruple Screening test, also known as Quadruple Marker test, Quad screen, Maternal Serum Screen, AFP plus, AFP maternal, MSAFP, and 4-marker screen, is one of the most common prenatal screening that measures levels of four substances in a woman’s blood:

A

Alpha Fetoprotein
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
Unconjugated Estriol 3
Inhibin A

81
Q

a protein produced by the growing baby

A

Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)

82
Q

a hormone produced in the placenta

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

83
Q

a form of the hormone estrogen produced in the fetus and the placenta

A

Unconjugated Estriol (uE3)

84
Q

another hormone released by the placenta

A

*Inhibin A

85
Q

The Quadruple screening test is typically performed between the _________________ weeks of the pregnancy i.e. during the ___________ trimester.

A

15th and 20th; second

86
Q

A chromosomal disorder that causes lifelong intellectual disability and developmental delays.

A

Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)

87
Q

A chromosomal disorder that is often fatal and causes severe developmental delays and abnormalities in the structure of the body.

A

Trisomy 18

88
Q

A birth defect that occurs when a portion of the neural tube fails to develop or close properly, causing defects in the spinal cord and in the bones of the spine.

A

Spina bifida

89
Q

In these birth defects, the baby’s intestines or other abdominal organs stick through the belly button.

A

Abdominal wall defects

90
Q

To give you information about how genetic conditions could affect you or your family

A

Genetic Counseling

91
Q

Process: visualization
Non-invasive
s informed consent
↑OFI (if <20 weeks)
Insturct not to void

A

ULTRASOUND

92
Q

Process: aspiration
Invasive
Informed consent
Instruct to void since there will be a puncture at the left
abdomen near the bladder
Amount of aspirate: 15-30 cc

A

AMNIOCENTESIS

93
Q

ULTRASOUND Purposes:

A

To checkthe calcium in the placenta
To locate placenta and determine gender
To measure amount of amniotic fluid

94
Q

AMNIOCENTESIS
Purposes:

A

L:S ratio – fetal lung maturity
Chromosomal defect
Neural tube defect
Monitor UC p amniocentesis – might administer tocolytics

95
Q

Process: catheter insertion

A

Chorionic Villi Sampling (CVS)

96
Q

Chorionic Villi Sampling (CVS) is done at and for?

A

10th – 12th week; chromosomal defect

97
Q

Process: blood extraction

A

Maternal Serum Alpha Fetoprotein (MSAFP)

98
Q

Maternal Serum Alpha Fetoprotein (MSAFP) is done at

A

14th – 16th week

99
Q

Blood sample:
* <38 mg/dL

A

chromosomal defect

100
Q

Blood sample:
42 mg/dL

A

neural tube defect

101
Q

to determine reaction of FHR to fetal activity

A

Non-stress Test (NST)

102
Q

Non-stress Test(NST) is done at

A

30th – 32nd week

103
Q

to determine reaction of FHR to fetal activity

A

Contraction Stress Test (CST)

104
Q

Contraction Stress Test (CST) is done at

A

34th – 36th week

NCMN 109A - Maternal Lecture (6 decks)

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