FRAMEWORK FOR MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING FOCUSING ON AT RISK, HIGH RISK AND SICK CLIENTS PART 2 Flashcards
1
Q
glands that produce a thick mucus that maintains moisture in the vulva area
A
Bartholin’s glands
2
Q
Bartholin’s glands A.K.A
A
greater vestibular glands
3
Q
elongate inferior end of the uterus where it connects to the vagina
A
Cervix
4
Q
transformed follicle after ovulation that secretes progesterone
A
Corpus luteum
5
Q
inner lining of the uterus, part of which builds up during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle and then sheds with menses
A
Endometrium
6
Q
fingerlike projections on the distal uterine tubes
A
Fimbriae
7
Q
(of the uterus) domed portion of the uterus that is superior to the uterine tubes
A
Fundus
8
Q
First menstruation in a pubertal female
A
Menarch
9
Q
It is an approximately 28-day cycle of changes in the uterus consisting of a menses phase, a proliferative phase, and a secretory phase
A
Menstrual cycle
10
Q
A mound of fatty tissue located at the front of the vulva
A
Mons pubis
11
Q
A smooth muscle layer of uterus that allows for uterine contractions during labor and expulsion of menstrual blood
A
Myometrium
12
Q
It is a muscular hollow organ in which a fertilized egg develops into a fetus
A
Uterus
13
Q
A tunnel-like organ that provides access to the uterus for the insertion of semen and from the uterus for the birth of a baby
A
Vagina
14
Q
An external female genitalia
A
Vulva
15
Q
The completed weeks of pregnancy (not months). The mother’s dates are usually calculated from the 12-week dating scan rather than the last menstrual period (LMP). This will give a more accurate expected date of delivery (EDD).
A
Gestation or gestational age
16
Q
Pregnant
A
Gravid
17
Q
The number of times a woman has been pregnant, including the current pregnancy. This is regardless of the outcome of the pregnancies (for example it includes miscarriages).
A
Gravidity
18
Q
The fetal head
A
Cephalic
19
Q
Cephalic a.k.a
A
Vertex
20
Q
When the membranes rupture and a cord is presenting in front of the fetus.
A
Cord prolapse
21
Q
Means “difficult.” May be associated with shoulder dystocia, or labour dystocia (protracted labour)
A
Dystocia
22
Q
refers to the number of live births plus stillbirths a woman has had
A
Parity
23
Q
Pregnancies up to 24 weeks, especially before 20 weeks.
A
Early pregnancy
24
Q
A pregnancy developing outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes.
A
Ectopic pregnancy
25
method of turning a baby from the breech position to head down position
ECV - External cephalic version
26
This is initially based on the LMP then from a 12- week dating scan.
Estimated date of delivery (EDD)
27
Entry of the presenting part of the fetus (usually head) into the pelvis.
Engagement
28
means blood loss of more than 500 ml from the birth canal within 24 hours of delivery.
‘Primary’ PPH
29
means excessive bleeding more than 24 hours after delivery.
‘Secondary’ PPH
30
A labour that is very fast.
Precipitate labour
31
Referring to labour or delivery before 37 completed weeks of gestation.
Premature or preterm
32
A woman in her first pregnanc
Primigravida
33
The 6-week period after the birth of the baby during which the mother’s reproductive organs return to their prepregnant state.
Puerperium
34
Products of conception refers to the combination of fetal and placental tissue
Retained products of conception (RPOC)
35
When the ‘waters break’.
Spontaneous rupture of the membranes (SROM)
36
A baby born after 24 weeks showing NO SIGNS OF LIFE at delivery. The fetus may have died days or even weeks before within the uterus.
Stillbirth (SB)
37
When pregnancy is completed within 38–42 weeks.
Term
38
The ability of the fetus to survive independently.
Viability
39
PHILOSOPHY OF MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING
A.Family-centered
B.Community-centered
C.Evidence-based
D.Challenging role for nurses
40
FRAMEWORK FOR MATERNAL AND CHILD HEALTH NURSING
1. Nursing process
2. Nursing Theory
3. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses
41
Quality and Safety Education for Nurses
1. Patient-centered Care
2. Teamwork and Collaboration
3. Evidence-based Practice
4. Quality Improvement
5. Safety
6. Informatics
42
Phases of Health Care in Maternal and Child Health
Health Promotion, Health Maintenance, Health Restoration, Health Rehabilitation
43
Educating client to be aware of healthy living teaching and role modeling.
Health Promotion
44
intervening to maintain health when at risk of illness.
Health Maintenance
45
Using conscientious assessment to be certain that symptoms of illness are identified and interventions are begun to return pt to wellness
Health Restoration
46
preventing further complications from an illness, bringing the ill client back to an optimal state
Health Rehabilitation
47
Role of a Nurse in Caring for Childbearing Families:
1. Healthcare provider
2. Teacher
3. Collaborator
4. Researcher
5. Manager of care
48
is one of the most sensitive indicators of health status of a country or community.
Infant Mortality Rate
49
Infant Mortality
Results from:
Poor maternal conditions
Unhealthy environment
Inadequate healthcare delivery system
50
Leading causes of infant mortality:
▪ Respiratory conditions of the fetus and newborn
▪ Pneumonia
▪ Congenital anomalies
▪ Birth injury and difficult labor
▪Diarrheal diseases
- Septicemia
- Measles
- Meningitis
- Other diseases of the respiratory system
- Aminovitaminosis and other nutritional deficiency
51
It is the major indicator of a woman’s health status.
Maternal Mortality
52
Define by WHO as the death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy from any cause related to, or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management, but not from accidental or incidental causes.
Maternal Mortality
53
Leading causes of maternal mortality (WHO, 2024)
▪ severe bleeding (mostly bleeding after childbirth);
▪ infections (usually after childbirth);
▪ high blood pressure during pregnancy (pre-eclampsia and
eclampsia);
▪ complications from delivery; and
▪ unsafe abortion.
54
HOW TO DECREASE MATERNAL MORTALITY RATE?
INCREASE PARTICIPATION IN PRENATAL CARE
EARLY DETECTION OF DISORDERS
INCREASE CONTROL OF COMPLICATIONS
DECREASE THE USE OF ANESTHESIA
IMPROVE ABILITY TO PREVENT BLEEDING AND INFECTION BETTER
55
DOH PROGRAM TO ADDRESS MATERNAL AND CHILD CARE
PRENATAL CARE
FAMILY PLANNING
NEWBORN SCREENING
EINC
IMMUNIZATION OF CHILDREN AND MOTHERS
INFANT AND YOUNG CHILDREN FEEDING PROGRAM
56
Sec. 4 Applicability – the provisions in this chapter shall apply to all
private and government institutions adopting rooming – in and
breastfeeding.
Sec. 5 Normal Spontaneous Deliveries – the following newborn
infants shall be put to the breast of the mother immediately after
birth and forthwith roomed – in within 30 minutes.
Sec. 6 Deliveries by Caesarean – infants delivered by caesarean
section shall be roomed – in and breast feed with in 3 – 4 hours after
ROOMING IN AND BREASTFEEDING OF INFANTS ACT OF 1992 (REPUBLIC ACT OF 7600)
57
Normal Spontaneous Deliveries – the following newborn infants shall be put to the breast of the mother immediately after birth and forthwith roomed – in within ______________.
30 minutes
58
Deliveries by Caesarean – infants delivered by caesarean section shall be roomed – in and breast feed with in ____________ after
3 – 4 hours
59
▪Lactation stations in different agencies
▪Lactation periods for breastfeeding employees
(40 minutes in every 8 hours)
▪ Continuous education, reeducation, and training
programs for healthcare members
▪Information Dissemination
RA NO. 10028 (2010) - An Act Expanding the Promotion of Breastfeeding
60
▪ NO MILK COMPANY SHOULD SUPPORT BREASTFEEDING ACTIVITIES
▪ NO HEALTH AND NUTRITION WORKER SHOULD PROMOTE OR SELL INFANT FORMULA AND OTHER MILK PRODUCTS AND BOTTLES
Philippine Milk Code of 1986 of Executive Order 51
61
Danger signs of pregnancy which must be referred immediately are:
1. High fever
2. Severe vomiting
3. Severe headache
4. Pallor and laboured breathing
5. Swelling of hands and feet
6. Foul smelling vaginal discharge
7. Severe abdominal pain, nape pain
8. PROM before expected delivery
9. Rhythmic cramping
10. Burning sensation w/ urination
11. Blurring of vision
12. High BP
62
Factors that will result in a birth of high risk infant or harm the woman
Pre-existing risk
a. Age
b. Parity
c. Social factors
d. Environmental factors
e. Marital status
f. Pre-existing disease
g. Physical stature
h. Nutritional status
63
Factors that will result in a birth of high risk infant or harm the woman
Risks emerging during pregnancy
a. Anemia
b. Hemorrhage
c. PIH
d. Transverse lie
e. Malposition
f. Suspected CPD
g. Negative attitudes toward pregnancy
64
Factors that will result in a birth of high risk infant or harm the woman
Risks emerging during pregnancy
a. PROM
b. Amnionitis
c. Transverse lie
d. Prolonged/ obstructed labor
e. Intra-partal bleeding from previa/abruptio
65
Factors that will result in a birth of high risk infant or harm the woman
Risks of postpartum
a. Puerperal infection
b. Hemorrhage
c. Sub-involution
d. Postoperative complications
e. Thrombophlebitis
f. Depression
66
Is a study of the way such disorders occurs
Genetics
66
the scientific study of inherited variation
Genetics
67
a science that deals with all characteristics of genes
Genetics
68
is the study of chromosomes by light microscopy and the method by which chromosomal aberrations are identified.
Cytogenetics
69
are the basic units of heredity that determine both the physical and cognitive characteristics of people. It is composed of segments of DNA, they are woven into strands in the nucleus
Genes
70
are threadlike structures of nucleic acids and protein found in the nucleus of most living cells, carrying genetic information in the form of genes
Chromosomes
71
In humans, each cell, except for the sperm and ovum, contains __ chromosomes (__ pair of autosomes and _- pair of sex chromosomes).
46; 22; 1
72
If a person who is heterozygous for an autosomal dominant trait mates with a person who is free of the trait, the chances are even (50%) that a child born to the couple would have the disorder or would be disease or carrier free
Autosomal Dominant Inheritence
73
It is a progressive neurologic disorder characterized by loss of motor control and intellectual deterioration, symptoms usually manifest at 35-45 y/o.
Huntington disease
74
Autosomal RECESSIVE Inheritance examples
cystic fibrosis, albinism, Tay-Sachs disease, galactosemia, phenylketonuria, Rh Incompatibility
75
Screen for changes in chromosomes, genes, or proteins
Genetic Screening
76
Diseases Detected in Carrier Screening
Cystic Fribrosis
Fragile X Syndrome
Sicke Cell Disease
Tay-Sachs Disease
77
Diseases Detected in Prenatal Screening
Down Syndrome
Edward's Syndrome
Brain or Neural Tube Defects (Spina Bifida, Anencephaly)
78
Sample of individual's blood, saliva, or tissue
Carrier Screening
79
is one of the most common prenatal screening that measures levels of four substances in a woman’s blood
Quadruple Screening Test
80
The Quadruple Screening test, also known as Quadruple Marker test, Quad screen, Maternal Serum Screen, AFP plus, AFP maternal, MSAFP, and 4-marker screen, is one of the most common prenatal screening that measures levels of four substances in a woman’s blood:
Alpha Fetoprotein
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
Unconjugated Estriol 3
Inhibin A
81
a protein produced by the growing baby
Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)
82
a hormone produced in the placenta
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
83
a form of the hormone estrogen produced in the fetus and the placenta
Unconjugated Estriol (uE3)
84
another hormone released by the placenta
*Inhibin A
85
The Quadruple screening test is typically performed between the _________________ weeks of the pregnancy i.e. during the ___________ trimester.
15th and 20th; second
86
A chromosomal disorder that causes lifelong intellectual disability and developmental delays.
Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)
87
A chromosomal disorder that is often fatal and causes severe developmental delays and abnormalities in the structure of the body.
Trisomy 18
88
A birth defect that occurs when a portion of the neural tube fails to develop or close properly, causing defects in the spinal cord and in the bones of the spine.
Spina bifida
89
In these birth defects, the baby’s intestines or other abdominal organs stick through the belly button.
Abdominal wall defects
90
To give you information about how genetic conditions could affect you or your family
Genetic Counseling
91
Process: visualization
Non-invasive
s informed consent
↑OFI (if <20 weeks)
Insturct not to void
ULTRASOUND
92
Process: aspiration
Invasive
Informed consent
Instruct to void since there will be a puncture at the left
abdomen near the bladder
Amount of aspirate: 15-30 cc
AMNIOCENTESIS
93
ULTRASOUND Purposes:
To checkthe calcium in the placenta
To locate placenta and determine gender
To measure amount of amniotic fluid
94
AMNIOCENTESIS
Purposes:
L:S ratio – fetal lung maturity
Chromosomal defect
Neural tube defect
Monitor UC p amniocentesis – might administer tocolytics
95
Process: catheter insertion
Chorionic Villi Sampling (CVS)
96
Chorionic Villi Sampling (CVS) is done at and for?
10th – 12th week; chromosomal defect
97
Process: blood extraction
Maternal Serum Alpha Fetoprotein (MSAFP)
98
Maternal Serum Alpha Fetoprotein (MSAFP) is done at
14th – 16th week
99
Blood sample:
* <38 mg/dL
chromosomal defect
100
Blood sample:
42 mg/dL
neural tube defect
101
to determine reaction of FHR to fetal activity
Non-stress Test (NST)
102
Non-stress Test(NST) is done at
30th – 32nd week
103
to determine reaction of FHR to fetal activity
Contraction Stress Test (CST)
104
Contraction Stress Test (CST) is done at
34th – 36th week
105
