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Year 1 Medicine Newcastle > Foundation 1 > Flashcards

Foundation 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What two monomers is sucrose made up of

A

Glucose and fructose

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2
Q

What two monomers is lactose made up of

A

Galactose and glucose

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3
Q

What two monomers is maltose made from

A

Two glucose molecules

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4
Q

What is the make up of starch in plants

A

20-30% amylose- straight chain 1-4 glycosidic bond

70-80% amylopectin which also contains 1-6 glycosidic bonds and branches

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5
Q

What enzyme brakes down amylose and amylopectin

A

amylase

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6
Q

What is the main storage unit of carbohydrates in animals

A

Glycogen

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7
Q

What is the structure of glycoproteins

A

These are proteins with sugars added onto them

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8
Q

What can the glycolysation of proteins alter their function to be

A

They can be involved in recognition, adhesion and communication between cells

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9
Q

What group on a protein can sugars be linked to in order to glycosylate them

A

The R group

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10
Q

What are the three classifications of glycoproteins

A

Simple (mainly protein)
Mucins (mainly carbohydrate)
Proteoglycans (mainly carbohydrate

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11
Q

What is the function of mucins in the stomach

A

It lubricates and protects the lining from the acidic environment in the digestive tract

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12
Q

What is the role of cervical mucus

A

It can prevent infection

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13
Q

What does hygroscopic mean

A

A substance that tends to absorb and attract water

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14
Q

What is the basic structure and property of mucin

A

It contains a protein backbone that is highly O-glycosylated
They are hygroscopic and attract water
Contains a D domain that allows the mucin to form di-sulphide bonds with each other

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15
Q

What property allows epithelial cells to seal between adjacent cells

A

tight and anchoring junctions

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16
Q

What type of junctions allows diffusion and communication between cells

A

Channel forming junctions

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17
Q

Where is the basal lamina found and what is it’s function

A

Between epithelial cells and the basement membrane

its a strong and flexible foundation

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18
Q

What makes the basement membrane and what is it’s funciton

A

A combination of the basal and reticular lamina

It anchors the epithelial cells to the connective tissue below

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19
Q

What is the reticular lamina mostly made up of

A

Type III collagen

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20
Q

What are adherens junction

A

These are junctions from the cytoplasm of cells to actin filaments

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21
Q

What is focal adhesion

A

The attachments of cells to the basal lamina

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22
Q

What are gap junctions and what is their function

A

These are channel forming junctions between between epithelial cells
They allow cell-cell communication, movement of ions and waves of contraction in smooth muscle cells

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23
Q

What is the function of simple squamous epithelial cells and where are they found

A

They are used for absorption, filtration and act as a minimal barrier to diffusion
Found in capillaries, alveoli and abdominal and pleural cavities

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24
Q

What is the function of simple cuboidal epithelial cells and where are they found

A

Used for secretion and transportation

Found in the glands, ducts kidney tubules and the covering or the ovary

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25
Q

What is the function of simple columnar epithelial cells and where are they found

A

Absorption, protection and secretion and are found in the digestive tract

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26
Q

What is the function of stratified squamous epithelial cells and where are they found

A

These can be keratinised or non-keratinised and are used for protection in the skin, mouth, upper throat and oesophagus

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27
Q

What is the function of pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells and where are they found

A

These help with absorption and protection and are found in the upper respiratory tract or trachea
Can contain cilia

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28
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the bladder

A

urothelium- transitional epithelium that is stretchable

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29
Q

What colour is haematoxylin and what parts of the cell does it stain

A

It’s blue/purple and stains the nuclei of cells

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30
Q

What colour is Eosin and what part fo the cell does it stain

A

Pink and it stains the cytoplasm

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31
Q

What is moral absolutism

A

The belief that you are correct and anyone who disagrees is wrong

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32
Q

What is moral relativism

A

The balance that you believe in something that is a subjective issue and thus can accept others opinions

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33
Q

What is pyrrhonian moral scepticism

A

You hold a belief on a subject but understand that someone may disagree with you

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34
Q

What are reportive definitions

A

Dictionary definitions

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35
Q

What are stipulative definitions

A

Ones that assign a new meaning to a term

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36
Q

What is a thought experiment

A

This is an analogy between a real case and an imaginary one in order to shed light on how to handle the former

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37
Q

What is the principle of univerasalizability

A

The belief that the sample you are talking about are all on a similar level or status

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38
Q

What is Deontology

A

This is the belief that you have a duty to fulfil and your actions should be based on that duty

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39
Q

What is care ethics

A

This is about acting to prioritise the caring relationships that you possess

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40
Q

What are the four principles of medical ethics

A

Autonomy
Beneficence
non-maleficence
Justice

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41
Q

What are the main sections of the GMCs ethical guidance

A

It mentions consent, confidentiality, children and EOL care
Mentions prescribing or being a good leader
Guidance on how to raise concerns, managing personal beliefs, social media and duty of candour

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42
Q

What is the complementary base pairing combinations of DNA and RNA

A

cytosine to guanine

adenine to thymine (uracil in RNA)

43
Q

What charge does DNA have

A

negative as a result of the phosphate group

44
Q

Where do most transcription factors bind to DNA in the double helix structure

A

The major groove as there’s more space

45
Q

What is the difference between RNA and DNA (3)

A

Thymine instead of uracil
Ribose instead of deoxyribose
Single stranded

46
Q

What enzyme unzips the DNA double helix

A

DNA helicase

47
Q

What enzyme forms new copies of DNA and in what direction

A

DNA polymerase in the 5’ to 3’ direction

48
Q

How is the second strand of DNA, running in the opposite direction, polymerised

A

This is synthesised using small RNA primers that the DNA must use as starters in order to synthesise in the right direction

49
Q

What are the short fragments of DNA between RNA primers known as

A

Okazaki fragments

50
Q

What enzyme fills the gap between okazaki fragments

A

DNA ligase

51
Q

What direction does DNA polymerase read the leading strand in

A

The 3’ to 5’ direction and it synthesises the new DNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction

52
Q

What enzyme adds the RNA primers to the lagging strand of DNA

A

DNA primase

53
Q

What are nucleosomes and what is their function

A

This is a group of 8 proteins known as histones

54
Q

What is the DNA gap between histone proteins known as

A

Linker DNA

55
Q

What letters are designated to the longer and shorter arms of chromosomes

A

The p arm is shorter and q is longer

56
Q

What is the role of exons and introns

A

Exons code proteins and introns are removed by DNA splicing during mRNA processing

57
Q

What is acetylation

A

When acetyl groups are added to the gene and it turns it on

58
Q

What is methylation

A

Adding methyl groups to the gene and it turns the gene off

59
Q

What is epi genetics

A

Changing of the DNA without changing the sequence

60
Q

What is co-transportation

A

Movement of substances in the same direction

61
Q

What type of compounds can pass straight through the cell surface membrane, hydrophobic or hydrophilic?

A

Hydrophobic

62
Q

How do ions pass through the CSM

A

Through transporter proteins

63
Q

What are the three types of transporters for facilitated diffusion

A

Channels, gated channels and uniporters

64
Q

What type of transporter are aquaporins

A

channels

65
Q

What type of transporters are ENaC and how do they work

A

Gated channels that require stimulation to open or close accordingly
This could be through a change in voltage or a hormone binding

66
Q

What is CFTR

A

CFTR is an ATP gated channel that, when open, allows chloride anions to move down their electrochemical gradient

67
Q

What contains more Na+ ions in comparison to K+ ions, the ECF or ICF

A

The ECF contains more Na+ whereas ICF contains more K+

68
Q

What are the differences in ion components of the ECF and ICF

A

ECF contains high Na+, Cl- and HCO3-

ICF contains high K+ and Mg2+

69
Q

What is the airway surface liquid

A

A watery solution that lines the airway epithelium

70
Q

What happens to the ASL and mucous in CF

A

These become dehydrated as chloride ions don’t move correctly
This results in a thick mucous building up and the cilia can’t brush this away
As a result there is a build up of bacteria and resultantly infection

71
Q

At what point is a protein considered to be part of the secretory pathway and unable to return to the cytosol

A

When it enters the ER

72
Q

What is an SRP receptor and where are they found

A

These are in the rough ER and they bind to ribosomes to pause translation
They then bring the ribosome to the rough ER in order for ti to bind to it’s receptor, fall off and translation can reoccur

73
Q

What is the main mutation in the CFTR gene and what does this result in

A

It is normally a single F missing known as delta-F508
this results in the protein not folding correctly and as a result it is not released by chaperone proteins
This means this faulty protein is then degraded in the cytosol before being transferred to the proteasome that destroys them

74
Q

How do carbohydrates in the membrane enable other cells to recognise their cell type

A

They contain a distinct pattern that is unique to each cell type called a glycolax

75
Q

What makes up the regulatory sequence in DNA transcription

A

The enhancer/silencer, promoter and 5’UTR

76
Q

What is the open reading frame in transcription

A

This is the active gene being transcribed

77
Q

What processing occurs to form mature mRNA from primary RNA (3)

A

5’ capping, RNA splicing and polyadenylation

78
Q

What is the role of the 5’ cap in maturation of RNA

A

it regulates nuclear export, prevents degradation of mRNA from exonucleases and distinguishes it as mature mRNA

79
Q

What is RNA splicing

A

The removal of introns from the mRNA

80
Q

What is polyadenylation

A

The production of a poly A tail that makes the mRNA more stable to prevent degradation

81
Q

What is the codon for a start amino acid

A

AUG codes for methionine

82
Q

What are the three sites in a ribosome and what is their function

A

The P site where the polypeptide chain is held
The A site where the tRNA brings in its amino acid
The E site where the tRNA exits

83
Q

What subunit does tRNA enter

A

The small subunit

84
Q

What is the formation of the small subunit over the tRNA called

A

A translational initiator complex

85
Q

What properties do non polar R groups give amino acids

A

This results in amino acids being hydrophobic

86
Q

What properties do polar R groups provide

A

Hydrophilic

87
Q

What charge do acidic and alkali R groups give amino acids

A

Negative and positive respectively

88
Q

What is osmolarity

A

The measure of solute concentration

89
Q

What is osmolality

A

osmolality takes into account the mass of water and is usually higher then osmolarity as the mass of solute is not accounted for

90
Q

What is molarity

A

the number of mol of substance dissolved per litre (dm3) of solution

91
Q

What are the three main parts of the brain

A

Forebrain
Midbrain
Hindbrain

92
Q

What makes up the forebrain

A

Telencephalon (cerebrum)

Diencephalon (thalamus and hypothalamus)

93
Q

What makes up the hindbrain

A

Pons, Medulla oblongata & cerebellum

94
Q

What is the brainstem

A

This is the part of the brain that remains upon removal of the forebrain and cerebellum

95
Q

Describe the structure of the cerebrum

A

This is the largest part of the brain and consists of two cerebral hemispheres

96
Q

What joins the two lobes of the cerebrum

A

a mass of white matter called the corpus callosum

97
Q

What four sections make up the lobes of the cerebral hemisphere

A

The frontal lobe, temporal lobe, parietal lobe and occipital lobe

98
Q

How many connective tissue layers surround the brain and spinal cord

A

Three

99
Q

What is the dura mater and where does it end on the spine

A

It’s a single meningeal layer in the spine and double in the brain that forms a sheath around the spinal cord that extends to S2

100
Q

What is the Arachnoid mater

A

This is the intermediate layer that also extends from the foramen magnum down to S2

101
Q

What is the Pia mater

A

This is the deepest meningeal layer that is inseperable from the spinal cord
It continues below the spinal cord as a thread like structure called filum terminale

102
Q

What role do afferent (sensory) fibres have

A

They convey neural impulses to the CNS from the sense organs

103
Q

What is the difference between somatic and autonomic nervous system

A

Somatic elicits a voluntary control whilst autonomic is an involuntary or unconscious approach

Year 1 Medicine Newcastle (8 decks)

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