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Year 1 Medicine Newcastle > Foundation 1 > Flashcards

Foundation 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What two monomers is sucrose made up of

A

Glucose and fructose

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2
Q

What two monomers is lactose made up of

A

Galactose and glucose

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3
Q

What two monomers is maltose made from

A

Two glucose molecules

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4
Q

What is the make up of starch in plants

A

20-30% amylose- straight chain 1-4 glycosidic bond

70-80% amylopectin which also contains 1-6 glycosidic bonds and branches

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5
Q

What enzyme brakes down amylose and amylopectin

A

amylase

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6
Q

What is the main storage unit of carbohydrates in animals

A

Glycogen

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7
Q

What is the structure of glycoproteins

A

These are proteins with sugars added onto them

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8
Q

What can the glycolysation of proteins alter their function to be

A

They can be involved in recognition, adhesion and communication between cells

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9
Q

What group on a protein can sugars be linked to in order to glycosylate them

A

The R group

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10
Q

What are the three classifications of glycoproteins

A

Simple (mainly protein)
Mucins (mainly carbohydrate)
Proteoglycans (mainly carbohydrate

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11
Q

What is the function of mucins in the stomach

A

It lubricates and protects the lining from the acidic environment in the digestive tract

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12
Q

What is the role of cervical mucus

A

It can prevent infection

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13
Q

What does hygroscopic mean

A

A substance that tends to absorb and attract water

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14
Q

What is the basic structure and property of mucin

A

It contains a protein backbone that is highly O-glycosylated
They are hygroscopic and attract water
Contains a D domain that allows the mucin to form di-sulphide bonds with each other

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15
Q

What property allows epithelial cells to seal between adjacent cells

A

tight and anchoring junctions

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16
Q

What type of junctions allows diffusion and communication between cells

A

Channel forming junctions

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17
Q

Where is the basal lamina found and what is it’s function

A

Between epithelial cells and the basement membrane

its a strong and flexible foundation

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18
Q

What makes the basement membrane and what is it’s funciton

A

A combination of the basal and reticular lamina

It anchors the epithelial cells to the connective tissue below

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19
Q

What is the reticular lamina mostly made up of

A

Type III collagen

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20
Q

What are adherens junction

A

These are junctions from the cytoplasm of cells to actin filaments

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21
Q

What is focal adhesion

A

The attachments of cells to the basal lamina

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22
Q

What are gap junctions and what is their function

A

These are channel forming junctions between between epithelial cells
They allow cell-cell communication, movement of ions and waves of contraction in smooth muscle cells

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23
Q

What is the function of simple squamous epithelial cells and where are they found

A

They are used for absorption, filtration and act as a minimal barrier to diffusion
Found in capillaries, alveoli and abdominal and pleural cavities

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24
Q

What is the function of simple cuboidal epithelial cells and where are they found

A

Used for secretion and transportation

Found in the glands, ducts kidney tubules and the covering or the ovary

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25
What is the function of simple columnar epithelial cells and where are they found
Absorption, protection and secretion and are found in the digestive tract
26
What is the function of stratified squamous epithelial cells and where are they found
These can be keratinised or non-keratinised and are used for protection in the skin, mouth, upper throat and oesophagus
27
What is the function of pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells and where are they found
These help with absorption and protection and are found in the upper respiratory tract or trachea Can contain cilia
28
What type of epithelium is found in the bladder
urothelium- transitional epithelium that is stretchable
29
What colour is haematoxylin and what parts of the cell does it stain
It's blue/purple and stains the nuclei of cells
30
What colour is Eosin and what part fo the cell does it stain
Pink and it stains the cytoplasm
31
What is moral absolutism
The belief that you are correct and anyone who disagrees is wrong
32
What is moral relativism
The balance that you believe in something that is a subjective issue and thus can accept others opinions
33
What is pyrrhonian moral scepticism
You hold a belief on a subject but understand that someone may disagree with you
34
What are reportive definitions
Dictionary definitions
35
What are stipulative definitions
Ones that assign a new meaning to a term
36
What is a thought experiment
This is an analogy between a real case and an imaginary one in order to shed light on how to handle the former
37
What is the principle of univerasalizability
The belief that the sample you are talking about are all on a similar level or status
38
What is Deontology
This is the belief that you have a duty to fulfil and your actions should be based on that duty
39
What is care ethics
This is about acting to prioritise the caring relationships that you possess
40
What are the four principles of medical ethics
Autonomy Beneficence non-maleficence Justice
41
What are the main sections of the GMCs ethical guidance
It mentions consent, confidentiality, children and EOL care Mentions prescribing or being a good leader Guidance on how to raise concerns, managing personal beliefs, social media and duty of candour
42
What is the complementary base pairing combinations of DNA and RNA
cytosine to guanine | adenine to thymine (uracil in RNA)
43
What charge does DNA have
negative as a result of the phosphate group
44
Where do most transcription factors bind to DNA in the double helix structure
The major groove as there's more space
45
What is the difference between RNA and DNA (3)
Thymine instead of uracil Ribose instead of deoxyribose Single stranded
46
What enzyme unzips the DNA double helix
DNA helicase
47
What enzyme forms new copies of DNA and in what direction
DNA polymerase in the 5' to 3' direction
48
How is the second strand of DNA, running in the opposite direction, polymerised
This is synthesised using small RNA primers that the DNA must use as starters in order to synthesise in the right direction
49
What are the short fragments of DNA between RNA primers known as
Okazaki fragments
50
What enzyme fills the gap between okazaki fragments
DNA ligase
51
What direction does DNA polymerase read the leading strand in
The 3' to 5' direction and it synthesises the new DNA in the 5' to 3' direction
52
What enzyme adds the RNA primers to the lagging strand of DNA
DNA primase
53
What are nucleosomes and what is their function
This is a group of 8 proteins known as histones
54
What is the DNA gap between histone proteins known as
Linker DNA
55
What letters are designated to the longer and shorter arms of chromosomes
The p arm is shorter and q is longer
56
What is the role of exons and introns
Exons code proteins and introns are removed by DNA splicing during mRNA processing
57
What is acetylation
When acetyl groups are added to the gene and it turns it on
58
What is methylation
Adding methyl groups to the gene and it turns the gene off
59
What is epi genetics
Changing of the DNA without changing the sequence
60
What is co-transportation
Movement of substances in the same direction
61
What type of compounds can pass straight through the cell surface membrane, hydrophobic or hydrophilic?
Hydrophobic
62
How do ions pass through the CSM
Through transporter proteins
63
What are the three types of transporters for facilitated diffusion
Channels, gated channels and uniporters
64
What type of transporter are aquaporins
channels
65
What type of transporters are ENaC and how do they work
Gated channels that require stimulation to open or close accordingly This could be through a change in voltage or a hormone binding
66
What is CFTR
CFTR is an ATP gated channel that, when open, allows chloride anions to move down their electrochemical gradient
67
What contains more Na+ ions in comparison to K+ ions, the ECF or ICF
The ECF contains more Na+ whereas ICF contains more K+
68
What are the differences in ion components of the ECF and ICF
ECF contains high Na+, Cl- and HCO3- | ICF contains high K+ and Mg2+
69
What is the airway surface liquid
A watery solution that lines the airway epithelium
70
What happens to the ASL and mucous in CF
These become dehydrated as chloride ions don't move correctly This results in a thick mucous building up and the cilia can't brush this away As a result there is a build up of bacteria and resultantly infection
71
At what point is a protein considered to be part of the secretory pathway and unable to return to the cytosol
When it enters the ER
72
What is an SRP receptor and where are they found
These are in the rough ER and they bind to ribosomes to pause translation They then bring the ribosome to the rough ER in order for ti to bind to it's receptor, fall off and translation can reoccur
73
What is the main mutation in the CFTR gene and what does this result in
It is normally a single F missing known as delta-F508 this results in the protein not folding correctly and as a result it is not released by chaperone proteins This means this faulty protein is then degraded in the cytosol before being transferred to the proteasome that destroys them
74
How do carbohydrates in the membrane enable other cells to recognise their cell type
They contain a distinct pattern that is unique to each cell type called a glycolax
75
What makes up the regulatory sequence in DNA transcription
The enhancer/silencer, promoter and 5'UTR
76
What is the open reading frame in transcription
This is the active gene being transcribed
77
What processing occurs to form mature mRNA from primary RNA (3)
5' capping, RNA splicing and polyadenylation
78
What is the role of the 5' cap in maturation of RNA
it regulates nuclear export, prevents degradation of mRNA from exonucleases and distinguishes it as mature mRNA
79
What is RNA splicing
The removal of introns from the mRNA
80
What is polyadenylation
The production of a poly A tail that makes the mRNA more stable to prevent degradation
81
What is the codon for a start amino acid
AUG codes for methionine
82
What are the three sites in a ribosome and what is their function
The P site where the polypeptide chain is held The A site where the tRNA brings in its amino acid The E site where the tRNA exits
83
What subunit does tRNA enter
The small subunit
84
What is the formation of the small subunit over the tRNA called
A translational initiator complex
85
What properties do non polar R groups give amino acids
This results in amino acids being hydrophobic
86
What properties do polar R groups provide
Hydrophilic
87
What charge do acidic and alkali R groups give amino acids
Negative and positive respectively
88
What is osmolarity
The measure of solute concentration
89
What is osmolality
osmolality takes into account the mass of water and is usually higher then osmolarity as the mass of solute is not accounted for
90
What is molarity
the number of mol of substance dissolved per litre (dm3) of solution
91
What are the three main parts of the brain
Forebrain Midbrain Hindbrain
92
What makes up the forebrain
Telencephalon (cerebrum) | Diencephalon (thalamus and hypothalamus)
93
What makes up the hindbrain
Pons, Medulla oblongata & cerebellum
94
What is the brainstem
This is the part of the brain that remains upon removal of the forebrain and cerebellum
95
Describe the structure of the cerebrum
This is the largest part of the brain and consists of two cerebral hemispheres
96
What joins the two lobes of the cerebrum
a mass of white matter called the corpus callosum
97
What four sections make up the lobes of the cerebral hemisphere
The frontal lobe, temporal lobe, parietal lobe and occipital lobe
98
How many connective tissue layers surround the brain and spinal cord
Three
99
What is the dura mater and where does it end on the spine
It's a single meningeal layer in the spine and double in the brain that forms a sheath around the spinal cord that extends to S2
100
What is the Arachnoid mater
This is the intermediate layer that also extends from the foramen magnum down to S2
101
What is the Pia mater
This is the deepest meningeal layer that is inseperable from the spinal cord It continues below the spinal cord as a thread like structure called filum terminale
102
What role do afferent (sensory) fibres have
They convey neural impulses to the CNS from the sense organs
103
What is the difference between somatic and autonomic nervous system
Somatic elicits a voluntary control whilst autonomic is an involuntary or unconscious approach

Year 1 Medicine Newcastle (8 decks)

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