Formative

Question 1

Energetically unfavourable reactions can only proceed because they:

a) are coupled to anabolic reactions
b) are coupled to catabolic reactions
c) are spontaneous
d) have negative free energy changes
e) release energy into the universe

Answer 1

b) are coupled to catabolic reactions

Question 2

Which one of the following correctly describes a nucleotide?

a) base + ribose sugar + nucleoside
b) base + ribose sugar + phosphate
c) phosphate + base
d) phosphate + deoxyribose sugar
e) phosphate + ribose sugar

Answer 2

b) base + ribose sugar + phosphate

Question 3

The lipid membrane surrounding eukaryotic cells does not contain:

a) carbohydrates
b) cholesterol
c) ion channels
d) receptors
e) ribosomes

Answer 3

e) ribosomes

Question 4

The dissociation constant for water is:

a) 1x10^-1 (mol/L)^2
b) 1x10^-4 (mol/L)^2
c) 1x10^-7 (mol/L)^2
d) 1x10^-12 (mol/L)^2
e) 1x10^-14 (mol/L)^2

Answer 4

e) 1x10^-14 (mol/L)^2

Question 5

Amino acid sequence is described as the ___________ structure of a protein:

a) primary
b) quaternary
c) secondary
d) tertiary
e) unordered

Answer 5

a) primary

Question 6

An enzyme increases the rate of a spontaneous reaction by:

a) changing conformation
b) decreasing the activation energy
c) increasing the activation energy
d) increasing ΔG
e) moving the reaction equilibrium

Answer 6

b) decreasing the activation energy

Question 7

Monomers of carbohydrates are linked together by:

a) gluconeogenic bonds
b) glycosidic bonds
c) ionic bonds
d) peptide bonds
e) phosphodiester bonds

Answer 7

b) glycosidic bonds

Question 8

Catabolism of 1 mol of glucose to lactate generates how many net moles of ATP?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 36

Answer 8

b) 2

Question 9

Ingesting alcohol reduces which one of the following intermediates, particularly in the liver?

a) ATP
b) NAD+
c) NADH
d) NADP+
e) NADPH

Answer 9

b) NAD+

Question 10

What is the name of the molecule that transports electrons between complexes III and IV of the electron transport chain?

a) coenzyme Q10
b) cytochrome B
c) cytochrome C
d) ubiquinone
e) ubiquinol

Answer 10

c) cytochrome C

Question 11

ATPase utilises which one of the following mechanisms in order to generate ATP?

a) binding-change mechanism
b) binding-sequence mechanism
c) binding-site mechanism
d) bonding-change mechanism
e) bonding-site mechanism

Answer 11

a) binding-change mechanism

Question 12

Which one of the following vitamins is not derived from a lipid?

a) vitamin A
b) vitamin C
c) vitamin D
d) vitamin E
e) vitamin K

Answer 12

b) vitamin C

Question 13

Excess acetyl CoA from fatty acids gives rise to the formation of:

a) citrate
b) glucose
c) glucose-6 phosphate
d) ketones
e) oxaloacetate

Answer 13

d) ketones

Question 14

Which amino acid is central to nitrogen entering the body?

a) alanine
b) glutamate
c) proline
d) threonine
e) tryptophan

Answer 14

b) glutamate

Question 15

Which one of the following cycles is important in nitrogen metabolism?

a) glucose-alanine cycle
b) glucose-carnitine cycle
c) glucose-cori cycle
d) glucose-phosphate cycle
e) glucose-pyruvate cycle

Answer 15

a) glucose-alanine cycle

Question 16

If a person drinks one litre of water:

a) all will enter the extracellular fluid
b) all will enter the intracellular fluid
c) approximately 1/2 will enter the extracellular fluid and 1/2 will enter the intracellular fluid
d) approximately 1/3 will enter the extracellular fluid and 2/3 will enter the intracellular fluid
e) approximately 2/3 will enter the extracellular fluid and 1/3 will enter the intracellular fluid

Answer 16

d) approximately 1/3 will enter the extracellular fluid and 2/3 will enter the intracellular fluid

Question 17

Red blood cells will shrink if they are placed in a solution of:

a) 0 mM urea and 150 mM NaCl
b) 30 mM urea and 170 mM NaCl
c) 100 mM urea and 100 mM NaCl
d) 200 mM urea and 50 mM NaCl
e) 400 mM urea and 0 mM NaCl

Answer 17

b) 30 mM urea and 170 mM NaCl

Question 18

Which of the following statements regarding epithelia is not correct?

a) A simple epithelium is one which contains cells of only one type.
b) Cilia provide a mechanism for movement of material over the surface area of epithelia.
c) Desmosomes provide a strong bond between adjacent epithelial cells.
d) Hemidesmosomes attach epithelial cells to the basement membrane.
e) Stratified epithelia have more than one layer of cells.

Answer 18

a) A simple epithelium is one which contains cells of only one type.

Question 19

The resting membrane potential is directly generated by:

a) the Na+/K+ pump
b) the permeability of the resting membrane to Ca2+
c) the permeability of the resting membrane to Cl-
d) the permeability of the resting membrane to K+
e) the permeability of the resting membrane to Na+

Answer 19

d) the permeability of the resting membrane to K+

Question 20

Which of the following is not an example of a graded potential?

a) action potential
b) endplate potential
c) excitatory post-synaptic potential
d) inhibitory post-synaptic potential
e) pacemaker potential

Answer 20

a) action potential

Question 21

The endplate potential:

a) is an all-or-none event
b) is evoked in the motoneurone terminal
c) is always large enough to evoke an action potential in the muscle
d) is mediated by voltage-gated channels
e) relies on the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Answer 21

c) is always large enough to evoke an action potential in the muscle

Question 22

The thick filaments of skeletal muscle are composed of:

a) actin
b) myosin
c) nebulin
d) tropomyosin
e) troponin

Answer 22

b) myosin

Question 23

Contraction of skeletal muscle requires the:

a) binding of Ca2+ to calmodulin
b) binding of Ca2+ to myosin
c) entry of Ca2+ through ligand-gated channels
d) entry of Ca2+ through voltage-gated channels
e) release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Answer 23

e) release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Question 24

An antagonist at a pharmacological receptor will have:

a) high affinity and high efficacy
b) high affinity and low efficacy
c) low affinity and high efficacy
d) low affinity and low efficacy
e) no affinity and no efficacy

Answer 24

b) high affinity and low efficacy

Question 25

In the sympathetic nervous system:

a) preganglionic axons are generally longer than postganglionic axons
b) preganglionic cells release noradrenaline
c) spinal out flow is thoraco-lumbar
d) there is no concept of mass activation
e) the transmitter released by postganglionic cells acts on muscarinic receptors

Answer 25

c) spinal out flow is thoraco-lumbar

Question 26

Activation of the parasympathetic system causes:

a) an increase in gut motility
b) an increase in heart rate
c) dilation of airways in the lung
d) dilation of the pupil in the eye
e) piloerection

Answer 26

a) an increase in gut motility

Question 27

Which of the following drugs does not block transmission at the neuromuscular junction?

a) botulinum toxin
b) curare
c) hemicholinium
d) neostigmine
e) tetrodotoxin

Answer 27

d) neostigmine

Question 28

The physiological significance of co-activation of alpha and gamma motor neurones innervating skeletal muscle is that it ensures:

a) the antagonist muscle acts in unison
b) the fast and slow fibres contract in unison
c) the muscle does not fatigue
d) the sensitivity of the muscle spindle is retained
e) there is a complete twitch contraction

Answer 28

d) the sensitivity of the muscle spindle is retained

Question 29

Golgi tendon organs are stimulated by:

a) decreased tension and cause contraction of the muscle
b) decreased tension and cause relaxation of the muscle
c) increased tension and cause contraction of the muscle
d) increased tension and cause relaxation of the muscle
e) none of the above

Answer 29

d) increased tension and cause relaxation of the muscle

Question 30

Viral infection would typically cause elevated levels of which blood cell type?

a) erythrocytes
b) lymphocytes
c) monocytes
d) neutrophils
e) platelets

Answer 30

b) lymphocytes