Forensic Psychology knowledge Flashcards
What is offender profiling?
A behavioural and analytical tool to help investigators predict and profile characteristics of unknown criminals
What is the main aim of offender profiling?
To narrow the field of enquiry and the list of key suspects
On what basis can characteristics of an offender be inferred?
From the offence and details of the crime scene
What does compiling a profile usually involve?
Scrutiny of the crime scene and analysis of the evidence
What characteristics of the offender can be hypothesized?
Gender, age, employment, social background
Who stated that inferences about the offender can be made from the crime scene?
Jackson and Bekerian (1997)
What is meant by ‘modus operandi’?
A particular way or method of doing something
What does the profiling process assume about criminals’ behavior?
Criminals operate in a similar way reflecting their personality
What is the foundational belief of offender profiling?
There is consistency in crime
Why is consistency in a criminal’s personality important for profiling?
It implies that their modus operandi will remain similar
What are ‘signatures’ in the context of crime scenes?
Distinctive behaviours left at the scene
What is the top-down approach in offender profiling?
Starts from a general classification of the crime scene to make judgments about likely offenders
Fill in the blank: The top-down approach goes from _______ to data.
classification
What unit originated the approach of offender profiling?
FBI’s Behavioural Science Unit
What was the primary purpose of developing offender profiling?
To produce a profile of the most likely offender
What types of characteristics are considered in offender profiling?
- Social (age, social class, profession)
- Psychological (mental capacity)
How are offenders classified in the profiling approach?
‘Organised’ or ‘disorganised’
What is the ‘typology approach’ in offender profiling?
Classifying offenders into types based on pre-existing templates
What distinguishes an ‘organised’ offender?
- Evidence of planning
- Targets the victim
- Socially and sexually competent
- Higher-than-average intelligence
What are the characteristics of a ‘disorganised’ offender?
- Little evidence of planning
- Leaves clues
- Socially and sexually incompetent
- Lower-than-average intelligence
What is the top-down approach in offender profiling?
An intuitive application of a profiler’s prior knowledge
True or False: The top-down approach relies on explicit reasoning.
False
Fill in the blank: The approach to offender profiling is based on the idea that serious offenders have signature ways of working, known as _______.
modus operandi
What kind of data was used to develop offender profiling?
In-depth interviews with sexually motivated killers
What is the first stage in the construction of an FBI profile?
Data assimilation
The profiler reviews evidence including crime scene photographs, victim background, and crime details.
What types of information are reviewed during data assimilation?
Crime scene photographs, victim background, crime details
Includes employment, habits, relationships, weapon, and pathology reports.
What is the purpose of the seven decision-making tools in data assimilation?
To analyze various aspects of the crime and the offender
Helps in understanding the nature of the crime and the profile of the offender.
What are the seven decision-making tools used in data assimilation?
- Murder type
- Primary intent
- Victim risk
- Offender risk
- Escalation
- Time factors
- Location factors
Each tool provides insight into the crime and helps in profiling the offender.
Define ‘murder type’ as a decision-making tool.
Is it an isolated incident or evidence of a serial killer, spree killer, or mass murder?
Helps determine the nature of the crime and the potential offender.
What does ‘primary intent’ refer to in the context of crime analysis?
Was it a deliberate, pre-meditated murder or a result of another crime?
Understanding intent can reveal the motivation behind the crime.
What does ‘victim risk’ indicate about the crime?
Killing low-risk targets provides insights into the offender’s focus
Certain individuals may only target high-risk victims.
How does ‘offender risk’ influence the analysis?
Indicates the level of risk involved in committing the crime
For example, daylight crimes may suggest different offender characteristics than those committed at night.
Explain the concept of ‘escalation’ in crime analysis.
Extent to which the crime has worsened compared to previous offences
Allows for predictions about future criminal behavior.
What do ‘time factors’ reveal during crime analysis?
Time of day indicates daily routines and duration of the crime
Provides context for understanding the crime’s execution.
What is the significance of ‘location factors’ in profiling?
Can provide information about the offender’s environment and transport
Helps in narrowing down potential suspects based on geographic patterns.
What is the second stage in constructing an FBI profile?
Crime scene classification
Classifies the crime as ‘organised’ or ‘disorganised’.
What does crime scene classification presume?
There is a correspondence between offences and offenders
Helps in understanding the behavioral patterns of the offender.
What is the third stage in the construction of an FBI profile?
Crime reconstruction
Involves creating hypotheses about the sequence of events and victim behavior.
What is the final stage in constructing an FBI profile?
Profile generation
Constructs a description of the likely offender for investigative strategies.
What elements are included in the profile generation stage?
- Demographic background
- Physical characteristics
- Behavior
- Habits
- Beliefs
This information is crucial for planning investigative strategies.
True or False: The profile generated is used to anticipate how the offender will respond to investigative efforts.
True
Anticipating responses helps law enforcement in their strategies during the investigation.
What is the primary focus of bottom-up profiling?
Grounded in psychological theory
What are the two techniques within the bottom-up approach?
- Investigative Psychology
- Geographical Profiling
What does Investigative Psychology analyze?
Matches crime scene details with statistical analysis of typical offender behaviour patterns
What is the aim of establishing patterns of behaviour in Investigative Psychology?
To develop a statistical database for comparison
What can matching specific details about an offence against the database reveal?
- Offender’s personality
- Offender’s history
- Offender’s family background
What might the analysis of time and place indicate about an offender?
Where the offender is living or working
What does forensic awareness in profiling suggest?
Certain behaviours might reveal awareness of police techniques and past experience with the Criminal Justice System
Define interpersonal coherence in the context of profiling.
The way an offender behaves at the scene, reflecting their behaviour in everyday situations
True or False: Profilers begin with fixed typologies.
False
What is the role of evidence collected from the crime scene in profiling?
To develop hypotheses about the likely characteristics, motivations, and social background of the offender
What principle is geographical profiling based on?
Spatial consistency
What can inferences about an offender’s operational base be made from?
Geographical location of previous crimes
How can geographical profiling be enhanced?
By using psychological theory, such as Investigative Psychology
What is the assumption regarding repeat offenders and their geographical areas?
They restrict their ‘work’ to areas they are familiar with
What does understanding the spatial pattern of an offender’s behavior provide investigators?
‘Centre of gravity’ likely to include the offender’s base
What can geographical profiling help investigators predict?
Where the offender is likely to strike next - ‘the jeopardy surface.’
What is Canter’s circle theory based on?
The pattern of offending forms a circle around the offender’s ‘home’ base
What are the two types of offenders described by psychologists based on offence distribution?
- The marauder
- The commuter
What does the marauder do?
Operates near their home base
What does the commuter do?
Travels a distance away from their usual residence
What insights can an offender’s spatial decision making provide to investigators?
- Nature of the offence (planned or opportunistic)
- Offender’s mode of transport
- Employment status
- Approximate age
What is the atavistic form in criminology?
A biological approach attributing criminal activity to a lack of evolutionary development
It suggests offenders are genetic throwbacks who differ biologically from non-criminals.
Who proposed the atavistic form theory?
Cesare Lombroso
Lombroso was an Italian criminologist known for his work in the biological explanation of crime.
How did Lombroso describe the nature of offenders?
As having a savage and untamed nature
This was believed to prevent them from adjusting to civilized society, leading to criminal behavior.
According to Lombroso, why are offenders not to blame for their actions?
Offending behavior is innate and rooted in their genes
Lombroso’s perspective was revolutionary for its time, suggesting a biological basis for crime.
What facial and cranial characteristics did Lombroso associate with offenders?
Narrow sloping brow, strong prominent jaw, high cheekbones, facial asymmetry
Other physical markers included dark skin and extra digits.
List some other characteristics Lombroso associated with born offenders.
- Insensitivity to pain
- Use of slang
- Tattoos
- Unemployment
Lombroso suggested these traits indicated a predisposition to crime.
What are the characteristics of murderers according to Lombroso?
Bloodshot eyes, curly hair, and long ears
Lombroso categorized criminals based on physical features.
What features did Lombroso attribute to sexual deviants?
Glinting eyes, swollen fleshy lips, and projecting ears
These characteristics were used to identify specific types of criminals.
What characteristics did Lombroso associate with fraudsters?
Thin and ‘reedy’ lips
Lombroso’s categorization highlighted his belief in physical markers for criminal behavior.
How is Lombroso’s theory viewed by today’s standards?
Speculative and naïve
Despite this, he is credited with making criminology more rigorous and scientific.
What impact did Lombroso have on modern criminology?
Laid the foundations for modern offender profiling
His ideas contributed to the scientific study of criminal behavior.
What do genetic explanations for crime suggest about offenders?
Offenders inherit a gene or combination of genes that predispose them to commit crime.
What are genes composed of?
DNA strands.
What do DNA strands produce instructions for?
General physical features and specific physical features.
How do genes impact psychological features?
They influence intelligence and mental disorders.
How are genes transmitted?
From parents to offspring.
What type of twins did Lange (1930) study?
Monozygotic (MZ) and dizygotic (DZ) twins.
In Lange’s (1930) study, how many MZ twins had a co-twin who was also in prison?
10 MZ twins.
In Lange’s (1930) study, how many DZ twins had a co-twin who was also in prison?
2 DZ twins.
What conclusion did Lange (1930) reach regarding offending behavior?
Genetic factors must play a predominant part in offending behavior.
What was the concordance rate for offender behavior in MZ males according to Christiansen (1977)?
35%.
What was the concordance rate for offender behavior in DZ males according to Christiansen (1977)?
13%.
What was the sample size of Christiansen’s (1977) study?
3586 twin pairs.
What time period did Christiansen’s (1977) research cover?
Twins born between 1880 and 1910.
What did Raine (1993) find regarding concordance rates for MZ twins?
52% concordance for MZ twins.
What did Raine (1993) find regarding concordance rates for DZ twins?
21% concordance for DZ twins.
True or False: Christiansen’s research supports the view that offending may have a genetic component.
True.
What was the sample size of The Cambridge Study in Delinquent Development?
411 males from 400 families
What age range did The Cambridge Study in Delinquent Development cover for interviews?
Age 8 to 32
What percentage of families in The Cambridge Study had at least one convicted person?
64%
What percentage of families accounted for 50% of all convictions in The Cambridge Study?
6%
How strongly were the convictions of one family member related to the convictions of other family members in The Cambridge Study?
Strongly related
What percentage of convicted fathers had a convicted child according to The Cambridge Study?
Approximately 75%
Fill in the blank: About ______% of families with convicted daughters also had convicted sons.
75%
According to The Cambridge Study, which sibling’s convictions were more strongly related to male convictions?
Older siblings
What conclusion was drawn about offending behavior from The Cambridge Study?
Offending is strongly concentrated in families across generations
What do adoption studies allow researchers to compare?
Behaviour of an individual with both their birth and adopted parents
If an adopted child’s behavior is similar to their adopted parents, what is this attributed to?
Environmental influence
If an adopted child’s behavior is more like their biological parents, what is this attributed to?
Possible genetic influence
What was the risk of adopted children having a criminal record if their biological mother had a criminal record, according to Crowe (1972)?
50%
What was the risk of adopted children having a criminal record if their biological mother did not have a criminal record, according to Crowe (1972)?
5%
What did Joseph (2001) find regarding the genetic basis of criminality in adoption studies?
No support for a genetic basis
What did Rhee and Waldman (2002) find regarding the influences on criminal behavior?
Shared and non-shared environmental influences accounted for 59%
What does Rhee and Waldman (2002)’s meta-analysis suggest about the contributions to criminality?
Both genes and environmental influences contribute heavily
What did Tiihonen et al. (2014) analyze in their study?
A genetic analysis of nearly 800 Finnish offenders
How were the offenders categorized in Tiihonen et al.’s study?
As violent or non-violent
Which two genes were found to have lower activity associated with violent crime?
- MAOA
- CDH13
What does the MAOA gene code for?
The enzyme monoamine oxidase A
What is the role of monoamine oxidase A in the brain?
Controlling the amount of dopamine and serotonin
What behaviors has the MAOA gene been linked to?
Aggressive behaviour
What conditions has the CDH13 gene been associated with?
- Substance abuse
- Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
What percentage of severe violent crime in Finland is attributable to the MAOA and CDH13 genotypes?
About 5-10%
What was the focus of Brunner et al. (1993) research?
28 male members of a Dutch family with violent criminal behaviours
What violent behaviours were noted in the Dutch family studied by Brunner et al.?
- Rape
- Attempted murder
What was found in the DNA analysis of the Dutch family studied by Brunner et al.?
A shared gene leading to abnormally low levels of MAOA
What does the Diathesis-Stress Model suggest about genetics and offending?
Genetics influence offending, moderated by environmental effects
What can contribute to a tendency towards criminal behaviour according to the Diathesis-Stress Model?
A combination of genetic predisposition and a biological or psychological trigger
What environmental factors can influence criminal behaviour?
- Dysfunctional environment
- Criminal role models
What is the current thinking in epigenetics regarding genes and the environment?
Genes are ‘switched’ on or off by epigenomes influenced by environmental factors
What specific childhood experience was highlighted as impactful in the context of epigenetics?
Maltreatment in children
What was the sample size and demographic of Caspi et al.’s (2002) study?
About 1000 people from New Zealand followed since infancy
What significant finding did Caspi et al. discover regarding men with low MAOA genes?
12% had experienced maltreatment but were responsible for 44% of violent convictions
Fill in the blank: The MAOA gene is associated with _______ behaviour.
[aggressive]
True or False: The CDH13 gene is linked to violent crime.
True
What are neural explanations?
Explanations of behaviour and its disorders in terms of (dys)functions of the brain and nervous system
Which brain structures are involved in neural explanations?
Hypothalamus and prefrontal cortex
What neurotransmitters are mentioned in the context of neural explanations?
Serotonin and dopamine
What condition is characterized by reduced emotional responses and lack of empathy?
Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD)
How does APD relate to offenders?
It is a condition that characterises many convicted offenders
What role does noradrenaline play in behaviour?
Helps individuals respond to threatening situations
What is the relationship between high levels of noradrenaline and behaviour?
Linked to violence and aggression
How does serotonin affect mood and impulse control?
Regulates mood and impulse control; low levels increase impulsivity
What did Higley et al. (1996) find about testosterone?
Positively correlated with aggressiveness but not impulsivity
What correlation did Higley et al. (1996) find regarding serotonin?
Negatively correlated with impulsive behaviour and extreme aggression
How is dopamine implicated in offending behaviour?
Linked to addiction and substance abuse
What does dopaminergic activity in the limbic system lead to?
Experience of pleasure; greater activity leads to greater feelings of pleasure
Fill in the blank: Low levels of serotonin can explain some offending behaviour as people may react more impulsively if they have impaired capacity to hold back.
True or False: High levels of testosterone are negatively correlated with aggression.
False
What is the role of the prefrontal cortex (PFC)?
Regulates emotional behaviour
The PFC is crucial for emotional regulation and decision-making.
What do brain-imaging studies suggest about individuals with antisocial personalities?
Reduced activity in the PFC
This reduced activity may explain difficulties in regulating emotions and behavior.
What was the percentage reduction in the volume of grey matter in the PFC of people with Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD) compared to controls?
11% reduction
This finding highlights structural differences in the brains of individuals with APD.
What does reduced activity in the PFC imply about people with APD?
They do not feel guilt or appear to have a conscience
This lack of emotional regulation may lead to increased offending behavior.
What did Fallon (2013) find regarding the brains of psychopaths?
Unusually low pattern of brain function in the frontal lobes
This area is associated with empathy and control.
What was the aim of Raine et al.’s (1997) study?
To identify brain regions specific to offenders charged with murder or manslaughter
The study focused on those who pleaded not guilty by reason of insanity.
What method did Raine et al. (1997) use in their study?
Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
This method highlighted areas of brain activity in the participants.
What were the findings regarding brain activity in the offender group in Raine et al.’s (1997) study?
Reduced activity in the PFC and corpus callosum
Abnormalities were also noted in the limbic system, including the amygdala and thalamus.
What conclusion was drawn about violent offenders in Raine et al.’s (1997) study?
They have abnormal brain function compared to ‘neurotypical’ controls
This suggests potential difficulties in decision-making and behavior control.
Fill in the blank: The frontal lobes are linked to _______.
[planning behaviour]
This connection indicates that reduced PFC activity may hinder the ability to consider consequences.
True or False: Offenders are able to make swift decisions due to normal brain function.
False
Reduced brain activity suggests they may be slower in decision-making.
What are mirror neurons?
Neurons that activate when an individual observes another performing an action, allowing for empathy and understanding of others’ emotions.
Mirror neurons play a crucial role in social cognition and emotional empathy.
What is the relationship between antisocial personality disorder (APD) and empathy?
Individuals with APD can experience empathy but in a more sporadic manner than neurotypical individuals.
This suggests that empathy in APD may not be as consistently activated.
What did Keysers (2011) find regarding empathy in offenders?
Empathy reactions in offenders were activated only when they were asked to empathize with someone depicted in pain on film.
This indicates a conditional activation of empathy in individuals with APD.
What does the ‘neural switch’ concept imply about empathy in individuals with APD?
Individuals with APD may have a neural switch that can be turned on and off, unlike neurotypical individuals where empathy is permanently turned on.
This could explain the inconsistency in empathetic responses among those with APD.
How do dysfunctional mirror neurons affect empathy?
Dysfunctional mirror neurons may lead to a reduced ability to feel empathy compared to individuals with normal activity.
This dysfunction could be a factor in offending behavior.
What do psychological explanations of offending emphasize?
Social and psychological influences
This includes dysfunctional learning environments, family influence, cognitive factors, and personality.
What is Eysenck’s Theory of Criminal Personality?
A psychological explanation linking personality types to biological foundations
Eysenck argues that all personality types have a biological basis derived from inherited nervous system types.
What are the three dimensions proposed by Eysenck to represent behavior?
- Introversion – Extraversion
- Neuroticism – Stability
- Psychoticism – Sociability
Define introversion in Eysenck’s theory.
A personality trait focused on internal feelings, manifested in reserved and solitary behavior.
Define extraversion in Eysenck’s theory.
A personality trait focused on external stimulation, manifested in outgoing and energetic behavior.
What is the relationship between extraversion and nervous system activity?
Extraverts have an underactive nervous system.
How do extraverts typically respond to boredom?
They seek excitement and stimulation.
What does neuroticism represent in Eysenck’s theory?
The degree to which a person experiences negative emotional states.
List some emotions commonly associated with high neuroticism.
- Anxiety
- Worry
- Fear
- Anger
- Frustration
- Jealousy
- Guilt
- Depression
- Loneliness
What characterizes individuals who are stable in Eysenck’s model?
A calm demeanor and a carefree attitude.
What is psychoticism in Eysenck’s theory?
A personality pattern characterized by aggressiveness and interpersonal hostility.
What traits are typical of individuals with high psychoticism?
- Lack of empathy
- Cruelty
- Egocentrism
- Impulsivity
- Insensitivity
- Lack of conscience
What is the ‘criminal personality’ type according to Eysenck?
Neurotic-extrovert-psychotic.
Describe the traits of the criminal personality.
- Cold
- Unemotional
- Prone to aggression
- Jumpy
- Difficult to predict
- Seeks excitement and stimulation
What does Eysenck believe is a key factor in offending behavior?
Developmental immaturity and immediate gratification.
What role does socialization play according to Eysenck?
It teaches children to delay gratification and become socially oriented.
What is the Eysenck Personality Questionnaire (EPQ) used for?
Measuring personality types based on E, N, and P dimensions.
How many items are in the full version of the EPQ?
About 100 items.
Give an example question that measures extraversion.
Do you like to talk a lot?
Give an example question that measures neuroticism.
Do you worry about things that might happen?
Give an example question that measures psychoticism.
Do you seem to get into a lot of fights?
What is moral reasoning?
The process by which an individual draws upon their own value system to determine whether an action is right or wrong.
Who attempted to objectify the process of moral reasoning?
Kohlberg
What is The Heinz Dilemma?
A moral dilemma involving a man named Heinz who considers stealing a drug to save his dying wife.
What was the cost for the radium drug in The Heinz Dilemma?
$2,000
How much money could Heinz gather to buy the drug?
$1,000
What was the druggist’s response to Heinz’s request for a lower price?
He refused, stating he wanted to make money from the drug.
What is Kohlberg’s stage theory of moral development?
A theory that suggests moral reasoning becomes more sophisticated as individuals mature.
What characterizes the pre-conventional level of moral reasoning?
A need to avoid punishment and gain rewards.
At what levels are offenders more likely to be classified in Kohlberg’s model?
Pre-conventional level (stages 1 and 2)
What reasoning do non-offenders generally progress to beyond the pre-conventional level?
Conventional level and beyond.
What is a characteristic of reasoning at the pre-conventional level?
Less mature, childlike reasoning.
What do studies suggest about offenders compared to non-offenders?
Offenders are often more egocentric and display poorer social perspective-taking skills.
What behaviors do individuals who reason at higher levels tend to exhibit?
Honesty, generosity, and non-violence.
What did Kohlberg et al. (1973) find about violent youths in terms of moral development?
They were significantly lower in their moral development than non-violent youths.
What did Ashkar and Kenny (2007) compare in their study?
The moral reasoning levels of juvenile sex offenders and non-sex offenders.
What was the finding regarding the moral reasoning of offenders in situations related to their crimes?
Both groups had a pre-conventional level of moral reasoning.
What does the study by Ashkar and Kenny suggest about moral reasoning?
Moral reasoning varies by situation and offenders have a lower level of moral reasoning specific to their offending behavior.
What are cognitive distortions?
Faulty, biased and irrational ways of thinking that lead to inaccurate and usually negative perceptions of self, others, and the world.
Cognitive distortions are errors in people’s information processing system.
What is hostile attribution bias?
The tendency to judge ambiguous situations or actions of others as aggressive and/or threatening when they may not be.
This bias can lead to disproportionate and often violent responses.
What did Schönenberg and Justye (2014) find regarding violent offenders?
Violent offenders were significantly more likely to perceive emotionally ambiguous facial expressions as angry or hostile compared to a matched control group.
The study involved 55 violent offenders.
What characterizes impulsive aggression?
Reactive outbursts in situations that are linked to hostile attribution bias.
This contrasts with premeditated aggression, which is goal-oriented.
How do children display hostile attribution bias according to Dodge and Frame (1982)?
Aggressive and rejected children interpreted ambiguous provocations as more hostile than non-aggressive and accepted children.
This was demonstrated through a video clip showing ambiguous provocation.
How is hostile attribution bias measured in research?
Using hypothetical ‘stories’ that can be interpreted as hostile, ambiguous, or harmless, followed by assessing the individual’s expected anger in that scenario.
This method gauges the perception of hostility.
What is minimisation?
A type of deception that involves downplaying the significance of an event or emotion, often used to cope with guilt.
Offenders may trivialize their actions to lessen the perceived seriousness.
What did Barbaree (1991) discover about imprisoned rapists regarding minimisation?
54% denied committing an offence and 40% minimised the harm caused to the victim.
This was based on a study involving 26 imprisoned rapists.
What did Pollock and Hashmall (1991) report about child molesters?
35% argued their crime was non-sexual and 36% claimed the victim had consented.
This reflects minimisation strategies used by offenders.
What is the relationship between antisocial behavior and minimisation according to Alvaro and Gibbs (1996)?
There was a strong relationship indicating that offenders may use minimisation with negative behaviours.
This suggests a pattern in how offenders cope with their actions.
What did Maruna and Mann (2006) argue about minimisation?
Minimisation is a psychologically healthy strategy in non-offending contexts, helping offenders cope with guilt rather than explaining their crimes.
They also emphasized the need for offenders to take future responsibility.
What does differential association theory propose about offending behavior?
Individuals learn values, attitudes, techniques, and motives for criminal behavior through interaction with others
This theory suggests that offending behavior is acquired through the same learning processes as any other behavior.
According to differential association theory, what influences the likelihood of an individual committing a crime?
Frequency, intensity, and duration of exposure to deviant and non-deviant norms and values
This allows for mathematical predictions about criminal behavior.
What are the two main factors that contribute to offending according to differential association theory?
1) Learned attitudes towards offending
2) Learning of specific offending acts and techniques
These factors explain how individuals may come to commit crimes.
How does socialization into a group affect a person’s attitudes towards offending?
Exposure to pro-crime and anti-crime values and attitudes
If pro-criminal attitudes outweigh anti-criminal ones, the individual is likely to offend.
What might a would-be offender need to learn according to differential association theory?
Techniques for committing offenses
Examples include breaking into a house or disabling a car stereo.
What does differential association theory explain about recidivism among released convicts?
Inmates may learn specific techniques of offending from experienced offenders while in prison
This learning can lead to reoffending upon release.
What research did Alarid et al. (2000) conduct related to differential association theory?
They tested 1153 newly convicted criminals to assess the theory’s explanatory power for offending behavior
They found it to be a good general theory of crime, particularly for men.
True or False: Differential association theory only applies to individuals who have not been previously convicted.
False
The theory also accounts for recidivism among previously convicted individuals.
Fill in the blank: Offending behavior may be acquired through the process of _______.
[learning]
This learning occurs through interactions with significant others.
What do psychodynamic explanations suggest about the basis of criminal activity?
Criminal activity may have a basis in unconscious conflicts rooted in early childhood and determined by interactions with parents.
This perspective stems from the work of Freud and subsequent researchers who have applied his concepts.
At what age does the Superego develop?
The Superego develops at the end of the phallic stage around the age of 3-6.
This is a critical period for the resolution of the Oedipus or Electra complex.
What is the Oedipus complex?
Boys develop incestuous feelings towards their mother and a murderous hatred for their rival love (their father).
This complex leads boys to repress feelings for their mother and identify with their father.
What is the Electra complex?
Girls experience penis envy, desire their father, and develop hatred towards their mother, which shifts over time to a desire for a baby.
This process involves identifying with the mother and taking on her moral values.
How does the Superego exert its influence on the Ego?
The Superego punishes the Ego through guilt for wrongdoing and rewards it with pride for moral behaviour.
This dynamic is essential for moral development.
What happens if the Superego is deficient or inadequate, according to Blackburn (1993)?
Offending behaviour is inevitable as the Id has ‘free rein’ and is not controlled.
This suggests a direct link between Superego inadequacy and criminality.
What characterizes a Weak Superego?
Absence of the same-sex parent leads to a lack of understanding of right and wrong, resulting in criminal or immoral behaviour.
The individual’s behaviour is dominated by their Id.
What defines a Deviant Superego?
The child identifies with an immoral same-sex parent, internalizing unacceptable morals, leading to a lack of guilt regarding criminal behaviours.
This results in a distorted view of right and wrong.
What is an Over-Harsh Superego?
A Superego that is excessively punitive, leading to increased guilt for wrongdoing and a tendency to seek punishment through criminal acts.
It arises from overly harsh parenting styles.
What effect does an inadequate Superego have on moral behaviour?
It allows primitive, emotional demands to guide moral behaviour, highlighting anxiety and guilt’s role in offending behaviour.
This distinguishes psychodynamic explanations from other theories of offending.
What did Bowlby (1944) argue was necessary for forming meaningful relationships in adulthood?
A warm, continuous relationship with a mother-figure
Bowlby emphasized the importance of the maternal bond for child development.
How was the maternal bond characterized by Bowlby?
Unique, superior to others, and vital for wellbeing
The bond is essential for the child’s development and emotional health.
What are the consequences of failing to maintain the maternal bond in early life?
Damaging, irreversible consequences in later life
These consequences are contingent on the absence of an appropriate substitute caregiver.
What personality type can develop from maternal deprivation according to Bowlby?
Affectionless psychopathy
Characterized by lack of guilt, empathy, and feeling for others.
What behaviors are associated with individuals who have affectionless psychopathy?
Engagement in delinquency and difficulty in forming close relationships
Such individuals often exhibit illegal or unacceptable behavior.
What was the sample size of Bowlby’s study on juvenile thieves?
44 juvenile thieves
Bowlby conducted interviews with the thieves and their families.
How many of the juvenile thieves showed characteristics of affectionless psychopathy?
14 out of 44
This finding highlighted the connection between maternal deprivation and delinquent behavior.
What percentage of those identified as affectionless psychopathic experienced prolonged separation from their mothers?
12 out of 14
This separation occurred particularly during the first 2 years of life.
How many individuals in the non-offender group experienced early separation from their mothers?
2 individuals
This contrasts sharply with the offender group, indicating a potential link between separation and delinquency.
What conclusion did Bowlby draw from his investigation of juvenile thieves?
Maternal deprivation caused affectionless and delinquent behavior
The findings suggest a direct correlation between early maternal relationships and later behavioral issues.
What does custodial sentencing involve?
A convicted offender spending time in prison or another closed institution such as a young offenders institute or a psychiatric hospital.
What is the aim of deterrence in custodial sentencing?
To put off individuals and society from engaging in offending behaviour.
What are the two levels of deterrence?
- General deterrence
- Individual deterrence
What is incapacitation in the context of custodial sentencing?
The offender is taken out of society to prevent them from reoffending.
What factors determine the need for incapacitation?
The severity of the offence and the nature of the offender.
What is the concept of retribution in custodial sentencing?
Society enacts revenge for the crime by making the offender suffer, proportional to the seriousness of the crime.
What biblical notion underlies the concept of retribution?
An ‘eye for an eye’.
What is the purpose of rehabilitation in custodial sentencing?
To reform offenders so they are better adjusted upon release.
What opportunities should prison provide for offenders?
- Develop skills
- Access treatment for drug addiction
- Anger management
- Reflect on their actions
What psychological effects can custodial sentencing have?
- Stress and depression
- Institutionalisation
- Prisonisation
What is the significance of recidivism in the context of custodial sentencing?
It refers to reoffending and indicates the effectiveness of prison as a deterrent.
What are some challenges in obtaining clear figures for recidivism rates?
The time frame considered for reoffending and varying definitions of reoffending.
What was the typical recidivism rate in the UK reported by the Ministry of Justice?
About 47% within one year of release.
How do recidivism rates vary?
- Time period after release
- Age of offender
- Crime committed
- Country
Which country has reported recidivism rates as low as 20%?
Norway.
What is thought to contribute to lower recidivism rates in Norway?
Less emphasis on incarceration and greater emphasis on rehabilitation and skills development.
True or False: Suicide rates are lower in prison than in the general population.
False.
Fill in the blank: The stress of the prison experience increases the risk of developing _______ following release.
[psychological disorders]
What does institutionalisation refer to in the prison context?
Inmates becoming so accustomed to prison life that they struggle to function outside.
What is prisonisation?
Prisoners adopting an ‘inmate code’ which may encourage unacceptable behavior in the outside world.
What is behaviour modification?
An application of the behaviourist approach to treatment aimed at replacing undesirable behaviours with desirable ones through reinforcement.
It is commonly used in settings like prisons or secure institutions.
On what principle is behaviour modification based?
Operant conditioning.
This principle involves reinforcing desired behaviours and punishing undesired ones.
What does the behaviourist approach suggest about human behaviour?
All human behaviour is learned.
Therefore, it can be unlearned by applying the same principles used to learn it.
What is the aim of behaviour modification programmes in prisons?
To reinforce obedient behaviour and punish disobedience.
The goal is to make disobedience extinct.
What is a token economy system?
A behaviour modification programme based on operant conditioning that rewards desirable inmate behaviours with tokens.
Examples of desirable behaviours include avoiding conflict and following rules.
What are tokens in a token economy?
Secondary reinforcers that derive value from association with primary reinforcers.
They can be exchanged for privileges like phone calls or extra food.
How should target behaviours be defined in a token economy?
By breaking them down into component parts that are objective and measurable.
For example, ‘improved interaction’ can include specific actions like ‘speaking politely’.
What is the recommended ratio of reinforcements to punishments in a token economy?
4:1.
This is to ensure that positive reinforcement outweighs punishment.
Why is training important for prison staff in implementing token economies?
To standardize procedures and ensure consistent reinforcement of behaviours.
Staff must record token awards to assess prisoners’ progress.
True or False: Noncompliance in a token economy may result in the removal of tokens.
True.
This serves as a form of punishment for disobedience.
Fill in the blank: In a token economy, behaviours are ________ based on their demand level.
hierarchical.
More demanding behaviours receive greater rewards.
What cognitive factors trigger emotional arousal preceding aggressive acts?
Cognitive factors trigger emotional arousal which generally precedes aggressive acts
Novaco (1975) suggests that anger often surfaces quickly in anxiety-inducing or threatening situations.
How is anger management viewed in behaviorist terms?
Anger management is viewed as a form of CBT where anger is reinforced by feeling in control of a situation
The individual learns to recognize loss of control and develop conflict-resolution techniques.
What is the first stage of anger management?
Cognitive preparation
This stage involves reflecting on past experiences and identifying anger triggers.
What does cognitive preparation involve?
Reflecting on past experiences and considering typical patterns of anger
Offenders learn to identify triggers and recognize irrational interpretations of events.
What is the role of the therapist in cognitive preparation?
To make irrational responses clear and redefine situations as non-threatening
For example, clarifying that someone ‘looking at them’ is not necessarily confrontational.
What is the second stage of anger management?
Skills acquisition
Offenders are introduced to techniques to deal with anger-provoking situations.
List three types of techniques introduced during the skills acquisition stage.
- Cognitive: positive self-talk
- Behavioural: assertiveness training
- Physiological: relaxation and/or meditation
Each technique aims to help manage anger and improve communication.
What is the third stage of anger management?
Application practice
This stage allows offenders to practice their skills in a controlled environment.
What does application practice involve?
Practicing skills through role play and re-enacting past anger-inducing scenarios
This requires bravery from the therapist and may include positive reinforcement for successful negotiation.
True or False: Anger management programs are only focused on cognitive techniques.
False
They incorporate cognitive, behavioral, and physiological techniques.
Fill in the blank: The aim of physiological techniques in anger management is to control one’s _______.
emotions
This helps prevent being controlled by emotions.
What is the primary focus of restorative justice?
The needs of the individual survivor and their recovery
Restorative justice emphasizes healing for the survivor rather than punishment for the offender.
According to Braithwaite (2004), what should justice do?
Heal
The phrase ‘crime hurts, justice should heal’ highlights the restorative approach.
What are the two main focuses of restorative justice?
- The victim or survivor of the crime and their recovery
- The offender and their recovery and rehabilitation process
What is the nature of the process in restorative justice?
Managed collaboration between the offender and survivor
This process is based on healing and empowerment.
What role does a trained mediator play in restorative justice?
Supervises the meeting between survivor and perpetrator
The mediator facilitates communication and understanding.
True or False: Restorative justice is primarily concerned with punishing the offender.
False
It focuses on reparation and healing rather than punishment.
In what settings can restorative justice meetings occur?
Face-to-face or remotely via video link in a non-courtroom setting
This flexibility allows for more personal and less formal interactions.
What is the emphasis on for offenders in restorative justice?
Acceptance of responsibility and positive change
There is a focus on rehabilitation rather than retribution.
What is restitution in the context of restorative justice?
Monetary payment by an offender to the survivor for harm caused
Restitution can also involve repairing damage or emotional support.
Fill in the blank: Restorative justice can occur _________.
[pretrial]
It may also function alongside or as an alternative to a prison sentence.
What are some benefits to the survivor in restorative justice?
- Enables closure
- Sense of personal power
- Greater voice in the Criminal Justice System
- Understanding of why the crime was committed
What benefits does restorative justice provide to the offender?
- Understanding the effect of their actions
- Opportunity to apologise and accept responsibility
- Opportunity to repair the harm done
- Opportunity to address underlying issues
List the benefits of restorative justice to the wider community.
- Shows offenders making amends
- Reduces frequency of reoffending
- Builds community and mutual accountability
- Saves money for the Criminal Justice System
How much does restorative justice save the Criminal Justice System for each pound spent?
£8
This demonstrates the economic efficiency of restorative justice programs.
