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HP Exam 3 > Food (Safety, Security, Defense, Hygiene, Quality, and Drug Residues) > Flashcards

Food (Safety, Security, Defense, Hygiene, Quality, and Drug Residues) Flashcards

1
Q

_______________ is when there is availability and adequate access at all times to sufficient, safe, nutritious foods that meet dietary needs and food preferences to maintain an active and healthy life.

A

food security

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2
Q

How can we ensure food “availability”?

A

having sufficient quantity – through production, distribution, and exchange.

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3
Q

_________ is the ability to acquire sufficient food to be able to eat healthily.

A

food access

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4
Q

What are the 3 elements of food access?

A
  1. affordability
  2. allocation
  3. preference
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5
Q

Nutritonal value, health status of the consumer, food safety, and preparation and consumption are all elements of ____________.

A

food utilization

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6
Q

___________ means that food is available and accessible to people and not temporary or subject to fluctuations.

A

food stability

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7
Q

What 4 changing factors influence food security?

A
  1. changing climate
  2. growing population
  3. rising food prices
  4. environmental stressors
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8
Q

What is the MOST common pathogen inducing food-borne illness in humans? choose one.
a. salmonella
b. campylobacter
c. E. coli
d. toxoplasma gondii
e. norovirus
f. clostridium perfringens
g. staph aureus
h. listeria

A

e. norovirus

Responsible for 58% illness

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9
Q

Which pathogen causes the most human hospitalizations from food-borne illness?
a. salmonella
b. campylobacter
c. E. coli
d. toxoplasma gondii
e. norovirus
f. clostridium perfringens
g. staph aureus
h. listeria

A

a. salmonella

responsible for 35% hospitalizations

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10
Q

Which pathogen results in the most death from food borne illness?
a. salmonella
b. campylobacter
c. E. coli
d. toxoplasma gondii
e. norovirus
f. clostridium perfringens
g. staph aureus
h. listeria

A

a. salmonella

responsible for 28% of deaths, Toxoplasma is not too far behind with 24%, followed by Listeria

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11
Q

how are human demographics impacting food borne disease outbreaks?

A

the number of immunocompromised individuals is increasing (age, chronic diseases, HIV, chemo, organ transplants), thus these individuals are more prone to acquiring food borne illnesses.

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12
Q

how do eating habits contribute or influence food-borne diseases? (3 big reasons)

A

fresh fruits and veggies consumption has increased and these food items may be associated with certain pathogens

food consumption outside of the home (for convenience) has increased with leads to more outbreaks

food safety instruction is lacking and not readily taught

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13
Q

how is the food industry changing and influencing to food-borne illness?

A

there is a greater geographic distribution of products from LARGE centralized food processors and the food processing and production technologies have changed

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14
Q

T/F: changes in travel and commerce influence food-borne illness because foods are brought into the country from other countries giving the opportunity for pathogen introduction as well.

A

true

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15
Q

T/F: bacteria have developed resistance to natural control methods or become adapted to specific hosts and are contributing to rising cases of food borne illnesses.

A

true

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16
Q

T/F: most food-borne illness outbreaks are due to improper handling of food

A

true

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17
Q

what is the appropriate “holding” temperature for food?

A

below 40 F or above 140 F

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18
Q

what is the adequate cooking temp for chicken vs beef?

A

chicken – 165 F
beef – 145 F
ground meats– 160 F

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19
Q

What are the 5 factors necessary for a food borne illness outbreak?

A
  1. presence of agent
  2. source of contamination
  3. medium for agent to grow or survive
  4. proper environmental relationship (temp, moisture, air)
  5. consumption of suff. quantity (infectious dose)
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20
Q

___________ is the replication of organisms AFTER ingestion.

A

food borne infection

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21
Q

____________ is the ingestion of PREFORMED toxins that cause pathological changes inside of the host.

A

food borne intoxication

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22
Q

what is the avg incubation period for food borne infections?

A

3-5 days

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23
Q

what is the avg incubation period for food borne intoxications?

A

~30 minutes

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24
Q

The goal of ___________ is to determine food safety hazards reasonably likely to occur and identify the preventative measures the production unit can apply in order to control this hazard. Essentially quality control.

A

hazard analysis and critical control point system (HACCP)

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25
Q

What are duties of the HACCP? (7 total)

A
  1. conduct hazard analysis (find hazards)
  2. identify critical control points (where to institute control)
  3. establish critical limits for each control point (set tolerance limits)
  4. monitor control points
  5. establish corrective actions if control points are not performed
  6. establish record keeping
  7. establish procedures to verify HACCP is working
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26
Q

__________ is preventing unintentional or intentional biological, chemical, or physical adulteration of food during production, storage, transport, or retail.

A

food protection

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27
Q

_____ is preventing unintentional adulteration of food.

A

food safety

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28
Q

_____ is preventing intentional adulteration of food.

A

food defense

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29
Q

Direct attacks on livestock, direct attacks on animal feed ingredients or water supply, cyber attacks on adulterate food supplies, cyber attacks on import inspection programs, and cyber attacks to imply disease of food supply adulteration are all examples of what?

A

agroterrorism

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30
Q

What are the elements of the CARVER + shock vulnerability assessment?

A

criticality
accessibility
recuperability
vulnerability
effect
recognizability
shock

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31
Q

Which salmonella isolate is the MOST common and is associated with poultry products (meat and eggs)?

A

salmonella enteritidis

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32
Q

which salmonella isolate is host-adapted to cattle and is found in milk and feces?

A

salmonella dublin

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33
Q

Which salmonella isolate is in infections from human contamination?

A

salmonella typhi

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34
Q

what is the typical incubation for salmonella infections?

A

8-72 hours

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35
Q

to prevent salmonella infection, how should we prepare milk and cook eggs, poultry, and ground meat?

A

milk and eggs – pastuerize
eggs - boil for 9 min or cook until yolk is solid
poultry - cook to 165 F
ground meat – cook to 160 F
cook until juices run CLEAR.

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36
Q

what are the reservoirs for staphylococcal aureus food poisoning?
(2)

A

humans (skin, resp tract) and cattle mammary glands

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37
Q

What is the incubation for staph aureus food poising?

A

30 min - 8 hours

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38
Q

T/F: food can become contaminated with staph aureus by human handling and preparation.

A

true

preformed toxin is in food at the time of consumption.

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39
Q

how can we control staph aureus food poison?

A

proper maintenance of food at refrigeration temp or higher temps to inhibit growth
educate food handlers

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40
Q

what are the reservoirs for clostridium perfringens?
(3)

A

soil
water
intestinal tracts of animals and humans

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41
Q

what is the incubation for c. perfringens food borne infections?

A

8-24 hours

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42
Q

What situations are c. perfringens induced food borne illness associated with?

A

precooking and eating as left overs (holiday meals)
improper storage of food

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43
Q

how can we control c. perfringens food borne illness?

A

adequate heating to inactivate spores or toxins
eat food while hot or refrigerate left overs quickly

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44
Q

T/F: clostridium botulsim grows in acidic foods with pH <4.5

A

false – grows in NON-acidic foods pH > 4.5

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45
Q

what are the reservoirs for clostridium botulinum?
(3)

A

soil
water
intestinal tracts of animals and fish

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46
Q

what is the incubation for c. botulinum?

A

2 hours - 8 days (avg 1-2d)

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47
Q

why should we not feed honey to babies less than 1 year old?

A

infants do not have the established bacterial flora within their GI tract to inhibit c. botulinum found within honey from colonizing the intestinal tract.

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48
Q

improper canning, improper storage, and honey are all sources of what food borne illness?

A

clostridium botulinum (botulism)

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49
Q

how can we control botulism?

A

proper canning techniques
temp above 250 F for 20 min to kill spores
cook food at 176 for 30 min or boil for 10 min

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50
Q

what pathogen is the most common cause of bacterial enteritis in humans?

A

campylobacter jejuni

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51
Q

what are the reservoirs for campylbacter jejuni?

A

cattle
poultry
shellfish
produce

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52
Q

what is the incubation period for campylbacter jejuni?

A

2-5 days

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53
Q

What pathogen is associated with reactive arthritis, hemolytic uremia syndrome, and guillain-barre syndrome?

A

campylobacter jejuni

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54
Q

how can we control campylobacteriosis?

A

be clean when handling milk and slaughtering poultry
proper cooking and pasteurization
prevent cross contamination of food stuffs

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55
Q

T/F: campylobacter jejuni has a low infectious dose (500 cells) and thus many outbreaks are associated with cross contamination of products.

A

true

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56
Q

T/F: older cattle with e. coli infections are asymptomatic, but calves (1-4 months) may develop bloody diarrhea

A

true

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57
Q

what pathogen is associated with enteritis, uremic hemolytic syndrome death, and acute renal failure in children.

A

e. coli 0157:H7

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58
Q

what is the incubation for e coli food borne illness?

A

48 hours

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59
Q

What are e. coli food borne illness often associated with?

A

improperly cooked meat (esp. hamburger), contaminated vegetables/salad, raw cookie dough, fecal contamination (milk, meat, veggies, sprouts, apple cider), person to person transmission, petting zoos/fairs

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60
Q

how can we control e coli induced food borne illness?

A

pasteurization
cook meat to 160
wash veggies and fruit
wash hands after handling animals
dont eat where animals are
vaccinate feedlot cattle

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61
Q

T/F: the infectious dose for e. coli is high

A

false – extremely low (10 orgs)

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62
Q

what food-borne illness pathogen is associated with romaine lettuce, ground beef, and bear jerky?

A

shiga toxin producing E. coli (non-0157)

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63
Q

How do humans acquire listeriosis?

A

milk
veggies
poultry
processed meats (hot dogs, lunch meat)

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64
Q

which individuals are MOST at-risk for listeriosis?

A

individuals taking antacids
pregnant women (can cause abortion)
children < 1 yo
people older than 60 yo

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65
Q

how can we control listeriosis?

A

pasteurization and proper cooking
prevent cross contamination of products.

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66
Q

what is the incubation for listeria monocytogenes?

A

3-47 days

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67
Q

what is the incubation for vibrio parahaemolyticus?

A

4 hours - 4 days

68
Q

what is the reservoir for vibrio parahaemolyticus?

A

shellfish

69
Q

how do humans acquire vibrio parahaemolyticus?

A

uncooked or improperly refrigerated shellfish

shellfish are more likely to be infected when the water temps are above 68 F, so not recommended to eat shellfish during warmer months.

70
Q

how do we control vibrio parahaemolyticus infections?

A

cook thoroughly (>149 F)
refrigerate after cooking or eat quickly

71
Q

What symptoms do humans infected with vibrio vulnificus have?

A

fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, abd. pain.

those who are immunocompromised (hepatic disease, etc.) may develop septicemia with a high rate of mortality.

72
Q

how do we treat vibrio vulnificus infections in humans?

A

tetracyclines

73
Q

how do we control vibrio vulnificus infections in humans?

A

proper cooking and cold storage of raw products
avoid raw products
harvest from safe sources

74
Q

what condition is caused by a histamine-like substance and leads to a histamine-release-type reaction?

A

scombroid toxicity

75
Q

what is the biggest influencing factor in scombroid toxicity?

A

lack of refrigeration from time of harvesting to prep
gives time for bacteria to proliferate and break down the tryptophan of fish into histamine.

76
Q

what agent causes paralytic shellfish poisoning?

A

dinoflagellates (think red tide) consumed by shellfish and heat-stable toxins are accumulated within.

77
Q

what are the 3 types of disease in humans infected with paralytic shellfish poisoning?

A
  1. paralytic – 30 min after ingestion
  2. erythematous
  3. GI – nausea, v/d
  4. respiratory – allergy-type reaction

overall, symptoms develop in 0.5-2 hours after consumption

78
Q

how can we control paralytic shellfish poisoning?

A

avoid shellfish from FL coat and gulf of mexico where cases are reported.

79
Q

what agent causes ciguatera fish poisoning?

A

dinoflagellate toxin, ciguatoxin

80
Q

what are the symptoms of ciguatera fish poisoining?

A

GI symptoms, burning/prickling sensation, muscles aches, weakness, ataxia, death from resp paralysis

81
Q

T/F: cooking inactivates dinoflagellate toxins

A

false

82
Q

what is the source of trichinellosis?

A

ingestion of raw or undercooked infected meat products

rodents maintain org in endemic areas
carnivorous animals feed on infected rodents and become infected themselves

83
Q

what are the symptoms of trichenollosis in humans versus animals?

A

animals - asymptomatic
humans – flu-like illness

84
Q

how do we prevent trichenellosis?

A

do not allow pigs or wild animals to eat uncooked meat, scraps, or carcasses of any animals

freeze pork at 5 F for 20 days, -9.4 F for 10 days, or -22 F for 6 days.

cook pork to 137-145 F to kill organism, if ground up then 160 F

85
Q

what are the reservoirs for bacillus cereus food poisoining?

A

soil
water
vegetation

86
Q

what is the incubation for bacillus cereus food poisoning?

A

1-16 hours

87
Q

how do we control bacillus cereus food poisoning?

A

proper maintenance of cooked food

(rice, vanilla pudding, creams)

88
Q

what is the agent that causes cholera?

A

vibrio cholerae

89
Q

what are the reservoirs for vibrio cholerae?

A

oysters
human fecal contamination

the organism is shed in feces (veggies, fish, pork products)

90
Q

what is the incubation for cholera?

A

2-3 days

91
Q

how do we control cholera infections?

A

proper sanitation
clean veggies
proper cooking

92
Q

what is the incubation for infectious hepatitis type A?

A

15-50 days

93
Q

what is the source of infectious hepatitis type A?

A

dairy products
shellfish
homemade bakery goods
poor hygiene
poor sanitation

94
Q

how do we control infectious hepatitis type A?

A

personal hygiene
food preservation – thermal processing (cooking, pasteruzation, sterilization), dehydration, refrigeration and freezing (below 45 F), control chemical environment

95
Q

T/F: no food poisoning bacteria are able to grow below pH of 4.5

A

true

96
Q

what is the course milk takes from the udder to your cup?

A

teat end –> inflation –> bowl –> long milk tube –> milk line –> receiver jar –> milk sock –> bulk tank -> milk hose –> milk truck –> milk silo –> processing equipment –> product truck –> store –> home fridge –> cup

97
Q

what is the purpose of a milk sock/filter?

A

filters milk before it goes into the bulk tank
allows for regular inspection and mastitis detection

98
Q

What are the 3 components of milk?

A
  1. butter fat
  2. SNF (solids non-fat) – protein, carbs, lactose, ash
  3. water
99
Q

what 2 types of milk are NOT added to the bulk tank?

A
  1. colostrum
  2. transitional milk
100
Q

what causes cow-barny flavored milk?

A

poor ventilation or improperly cleaned milking equipment

101
Q

what causes rancid flavored milk?

A

its due to the presence of free fatty acids because of
excessive milk agitation or proteolytic and lipolytic enzymes in raw milk breaking down milk fat

102
Q

what criteria is met to be classified as “grade A” milk?

A

has no objectionable odors
bacterial count < 100,000 cells/mL
no drug residues
SCC < 750,000 cells/mL
bulk tank temp < 40 F within 2 hours of milking and during storage

103
Q

what is the legal maximum of bacteria on a standard plate count (performed monthly)?

A

100,000/mL

104
Q

what is the “preliminary incubation count”?

A

it is a shelf-life estimator and relates to the sanitary conditions on the farm

incubated for 18 hrs at 55 F
max 100,000 cells/mL, goal = 20,000 or less

105
Q

what bacteria are common in raw milk and survive pasteurization?

A

thermoduric bacteria
(lactobacilli, enterococci)

106
Q

what bacteria grow in colder temperatures, do not survive pasteurization, and produce off-flavors?

A

psychrotropic bacteria

107
Q

T/F: spore-formers do not survive pasteurization

A

false - they do.

108
Q

what are the top 8 bacteria in milk that are zoonotic?

A
  1. brucella
  2. campylobacter
  3. coxiella
  4. e. coli 0157:H7
  5. listeria
  6. Q fever
  7. salmonella
  8. tuberculosis
109
Q

what are 4 sources of bacteria in milk?

A
  1. cow cleanliness
  2. milking practices
  3. milk equipment
  4. bulk tank
110
Q

T/F: if milk equipment and bulk tanks are not cleaned properly with alkaline cleansers (soil) or acids (milk stone) , PI counts are increased.

A

true

111
Q

how do you keep the bulk tank clean and prevent bacteria from accumulating?

A

cool to 40 F
agitator

112
Q

What is pasteurization and in what 3 ways can it be performed?

A

frees milk of pathogens for safe human consumption
heat milk to suff. temp for suff. time to kill pathogens
145 F for 30 minutes (traditional)
161 F for 15 seconds (High temp short time)
280 F for 2 seconds (ultra high temp)

113
Q

what test can you perform to ensure pasteurization worked?

A

alkaline phosphate test

these enzymes are deactivated in the process of pasteurization

114
Q

What is a high SCC in milk indicative of?

A

infection

150,000-500,000 = possible infection
>500,000 = probable infection
max = 750,000

115
Q

T/F: every milk truck is tested for beta lactams through immunologic or bacteriologic tests

A

true

116
Q

what type of diet suppresses fat content in milk?

A

high grain diet

fiber diets have higher fat content

117
Q

what is the cryoscope test used for?

A

normal milk has a freezing point slight below water due to the sugars and salts.
load samples of milk are tested for added water if the results are above the normal freezing point of milk (-0.54 C)

118
Q

how can we ensure milk is free from foreign materials?

A

– particulate matter is kept from milk by milk sock
– sedimentation tests can be used too

119
Q

why do we inspect meat? (2 reasons)

A
  1. to detect and protect public from communicable disease and harm
  2. ensure wholesomeness and proper labeling
120
Q

what are the 6 functions of meat inspection?

A
  1. detect and destruct diseased meat
  2. assure clean and sanitary handling of products
  3. prevent adulteration
  4. prevent false labeling
  5. application of inspection insignia
  6. disease monitoring
121
Q

what are the contents of the meat inspection act of 1906?

A
  1. antemortem inspection req for all slaughtered animals
  2. disposition of animals – passed, condemned, suspects
  3. postmortem exam of viscera and carcasses
  4. destroy condemned carcasses
  5. all employees of meat inspection division have access to plant
  6. sec of ag could destroy all unfit products
  7. no deception of sales
  8. sanitary regulations of plant established
  9. only applied to interstate trade and export
122
Q

what are the 5 methods of humane slaughter?

A
  1. captive bolt pistol (non-penetrating vs penetrating)
  2. gunshot
  3. carbon dioxide
  4. electrical stunning
  5. kosher slaughter
123
Q

what is custom slaughter?

A

custom plants slaughter animals for the owner and all the meat is returned to the owner for personal use – ensuring that they are stamped with “not for sale”.
these plants are subject to sanitation and equip inspection

124
Q

For antemortem inspection, all animals are inspected on the day of slaughter either within the holding pen or on the truck. They are examined at rest and in motion. Suspect animals and condemned animals are tagged. When are suspect animals killed?

A

at the END of the day (seperate from the healthy animals)

125
Q

If an animal is “condemned” during a antemortem inspection, what does this mean?

A

animal has a condition that does not allow it to be consumed
(dead, dying, drugged, downer)
these animals will be destroyed.

126
Q

what is the purpose of a postmortem meat inspection?

A

detect internal lesions that would cause the carcass to be “unfit” for human consumption
also an opportunity for a more thorough exam on suspect animals

127
Q

What lymph nodes of the head are examined during post mortem inspection?

A
  1. parotid
  2. atlanto-occipital
  3. mandibular
  4. retropharyngeal

looking for TB and squamous cell metaplasia

128
Q

for the following condition, state what status you would deem an animal on antemortem inspection:
multiple abscesses

suspect, condemn, pass

A

condemn because indicates a generalized condition

129
Q

for the following condition, state what status you would deem an animal on antemortem inspection:
epithelioma or ocular SCC

suspect, condemn, pass

A

suspect or condemn

130
Q

for the following condition, state what status you would deem an animal on antemortem inspection:
Lumpy jaw (actinomycosis)

suspect, condemn, pass

A

suspect because this is typically a localized condition
condemn if cachexia

131
Q

for the following condition, state what status you would deem an animal on antemortem inspection:
downer cow

suspect, condemn, pass

A

condemn

132
Q

for the following condition, state what status you would deem an animal on antemortem inspection:
pneumonia

suspect, condemn, pass

A

if advanced and generalized -condemn
if less severe (no fever) - suspect

133
Q

for the following condition, state what status you would deem an animal on antemortem inspection:
CNS damage

suspect, condemn, pass

A

condemn, unless chronic in nature (ex. head tilt)

134
Q

for the following condition, state what status you would deem an animal on antemortem inspection:
retained placenta

suspect, condemn, pass

A

animal can be slaughtered AFTER passage of the placenta

135
Q

for the following condition, state what status you would deem an animal on antemortem inspection:
fever (cattle, sheep > 105, swine > 106)

suspect, condemn, pass

A

suspect – rest and retemp
if fever during retemp – condemn

136
Q

what does a “US retained” postmortem disposition mean?

A

the animal product is placed in a holding area until tests come back for anything (ex. residues). final disposition will be made after the test results come back.

137
Q

for the following condition, state what status you would deem an animal on antemortem inspection:
mastitis

suspect, condemn, pass

A

pass if normal temp

138
Q

for the following condition, state what status you would deem an animal on antemortem inspection:
injected sclera

suspect, condemn, pass

A

condemn

139
Q

for the following condition, state what status you would deem an animal on antemortem inspection:
injection site abscess

suspect, condemn, pass

A

suspect or pass
it will likely be cut out

140
Q

for the following condition, state what status you would deem an animal on antemortem inspection:
salmonella infection (poor BCS, retained placenta)

suspect, condemn, pass

A

condemn

141
Q

for the following condition, state what status you would deem an animal on antemortem inspection:
prolapsed vagina

suspect, condemn, pass

A

pass

142
Q

for the following condition, state what status you would deem an animal on antemortem inspection:
lymphoma (tumors on multiple places of the body)

suspect, condemn, pass

A

condemn because generalized

143
Q

A ______________ is the quantity of drug or chemical that remains or accumulates in cells

A

tissue residue

144
Q

____________ is the concentration of a drug or chemical that will be permitted in feed or food

A

tolerance

145
Q

______________ is the concentration of a drug or chemical that will not cause any adverse effect

A

no effect level

146
Q

_________________ is the time required for a drug or chemical to be metabolized or excreted from body
systems before slaughter or consumption to reach tolerance levels

A

withdrawal time

147
Q

do we eat and drink items that contain drugs?

A

yes

148
Q

What 6 classes are we having residue concerns with?

A
  1. antimicrobials
  2. insecticides, herbicides, fungicides
  3. industrial and env. chemicals
  4. heavy metals
  5. growth promotants and coccidiostats
  6. hormones
149
Q

What are the 5 reasons we have concerns about residues with regard to human health?

A
  1. allergic reactions
  2. adulterated products
  3. loss of market
  4. inhibition of dairy processing
  5. removal of approved/extralabel drugs
150
Q

what are the 3 biggest causes of residues?

A
  1. failure to observe withdrawal times
  2. unapproved drugs
  3. poor medical records
151
Q

T/F: veterinarians are responsible for 76% of residues.

A

false – producers are responsible for 76% and vets only 1%

152
Q

what route of admin is used in the most cases of residues?

A

injectable
because the label will say “dont give more than 3 cc in 1 injection site” but in reality, they are not switching sites.

153
Q

What all should be included on an animal record to avoid residues?

A
  1. ID animal
  2. animal species
  3. # of animals
  4. condition being treated
  5. name of drug and active ingredient
  6. dosage prescribed or used
  7. duration of treatment
  8. specified withdrawal
154
Q

how long should records be kept?

A

2 years

155
Q

T/F: purchased animals should be regarded as being treated until proven otherwise for residue purposes

A

true

156
Q

how can we avoid residues sourced from feeding systems and holding facilities?

A

flush them!

157
Q

T/F: you only need to discard milk from treated quarters to avoid residues

A

false – discard from all quarters

158
Q

What is Bovine Somatotropin (BST)?

A

a protein hormone that is naturally produced by the pituitary gland. it stimulates the liver to produce insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1) and regulates the conversion of dietary nutrients to milk.

159
Q

What is posilac (rBST)?

A

recombinant BST produced by fermentation technology
it is injected into the tailhead of cows after 63 days in milk every 14 days. Its purpose is to increase milk production by 10%.

160
Q

is milk from BST-treated cows the same as non-BST-treated cows milk?

A

yes - contents are the same. the concentrations of BST are also the same. Therefore, it is NOT a public health concern.

161
Q

Naturally occurring hormones (estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone) as well as synthetic hormones (zeranol, melangestrol, trenbolone acetate) can be formulated into implantable pellets that release a constant amount of that hormone over time. Where are they placed?

A

middle third of the ear

162
Q

T/F: hormone implants do not have withdrawal period

A

true – hormone levels are within normal ranges of untreated animals. the amount of hormone is negligible compared to the amount normally found in tissues of untreated animals or naturally produced by the consumers body.

163
Q

T/F: the FDA limits the amount of residues from hormone implants in treated meat to NO more than 1% the daily amount produced by a person in the highest natural hormone producing segment of the population (pregnant women)

A

true

164
Q

which drug is the MOST well known for being prohibited for extralabel use in food animals?

A

chloramphenicol

165
Q

what are potential methods to detect residues?

A
  1. bacteriologic testing (CAST, LAST, STOP, Delvo-P test)
  2. chemical tests (thin-layer chromatography)
  3. immunologic tests (Penzyme, CITE)

HP Exam 3 (8 decks)

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