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A320 > FOM Questions > Flashcards

FOM Questions Flashcards

1
Q

After a fuel emergency is declared, what procedures must be followed?

A
  • declare the emergency with ATC by saying, “Mayday, Mayday, Mayday, fuel” and then provide a conservative estimate, in minutes, of the fuel on-board.
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2
Q

No flight shall continue an approach and landing past the 500 foot AAE Arrival Gate, unless the 1,000-foot gate requirements continue to be met, and;

A
  • Airspeed stabilized +10/-5kts
    • Thrust stabilized
    • Rate of descent stabilized, not abv 1000’ a min.
    • Final ldg check complete
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3
Q

This type of landing indicates a condition exists that requires a high alert level. The Cabin Crew remains ready for a possible emergency situation by completing silent reviews, being alert to all PA announcements, and being ready to evacuate on the Pilot-in-Command’s command. In this case passengers, will not be briefed on the brace positions for landing. What type of landing is this?

A

Abnormal

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4
Q

If an emergency develops requiring cessation of pushback, but communication is still available who shall the Pilot-in-Command advise and what shall they communicate?

A
  • ‘’Emergency, emergency, stop pushback, stop pushback’’
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5
Q

During an approach, below what altitude must the PF have one hand on the flight controls and one hand on the thrust levers, regardless of automation?

A
  • 1000 AAE
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6
Q

If the level of turbulence is anticipated to exceed light turbulence, the Pilot-In-Command shall,

A
  • Instruct the cabin crew to discontinue the service, secure the cabin, occupy a seat and fasten their seatbelt
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7
Q

The Flight Crew shall advise the Station and Maintenance that the aircraft has hot brakes when the following occurs:

A
  • Brake temperature exceeds 500ºC
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8
Q

During Urgent Communications to Flight Attendants, what communication shall be made from the Flight Crew to flight attendants to initiate evacuation?

A

Evacuate, evacuate

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9
Q

When the RVR or reported visibility is less than 2600 feet or 1/2 statute mile respectively, how should Flight Crews positively identify the assigned runway?

A
  • VISUALLY VERIFY CORRECT RUNWAY NUMBER, TUNE LOC AND VERIFY CENTRED
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10
Q

When, having committed to land at a specific aerodrome (i.e. operating NAIFR or having dropped the alternate), the pilot calculates that any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than planned Reserve fuel, what statement shall the PIC use to advise ATC?

A

‘Minimum fuel’

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11
Q

Refer to the pictures below (Emergency Hand Signals) to answer the following. Which of the following emergency hand signals are to recommend a stop (halt evacuation or measure in process)?

A

arms crossed in an X

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12
Q

When shall an altitude cross-check between Flight Crew members NOT be made?

A
  • If the FAF is too far back to be a useful or appropriate cross check
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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT a required visual reference according to the FOM Approach Definitions section?

A
  • RWY or RWY marking
    • RWY threshold or threshold marking
    • Touchdown zone or touchdown zone marking
    • Approach light
    • Approach slope indicator : VASI, PAPI
    • RWY identification light
    • Threshold & RWY end light
    • Touchdown zone light
    • Parallel rwy edge light
    • Runway centreline light
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14
Q

Upon exposure to ground-based lasers, Flight Crew members should NOT:

A
  • Look at laser source, or rub eyes
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15
Q

Although flight over the top of thunderstorms is not recommended, if it is necessary, how high should crews overfly the storm?

A
  • 5000’

* If Wind abv storm 100kts or greater: 10000’

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16
Q

A flight crew member incapacitation alert condition exists if:

A
  • Crew does not respond intelligently to two communications
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17
Q

If a major fuel spill occurs, the Flight Crew shall advise Flight Dispatch, ATC, the Cabin Crew and ____________.

A
  • Passengers: ‘’Deplane immediately and leave your personal belonging’’ Stop fueling, shut down APU, deplane passenger
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18
Q

True or false? Reduced thrust (assumed or flex temperature method) take-offs are not permitted on contaminated runways.

A

True

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19
Q

Flights will NOT take-off or conduct an approach at a station experiencing what type of environmental conditions? _____.

A
  • Moderate/heavy freezing rain, Hail, Ice pellets, Microburst, downburst
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20
Q

A PDI (Post Deicing Inspection) is required whenever the aircraft is deiced outside North America and _________?

A
  • Deice with one truck
    • Commence with 2 trucks finish with one
    • There is doubt about effectiveness of de icing
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21
Q

The lateral boundaries of RVSM airspace are shown on High-Level charts and generally exists between FL ____ and FL ______.

A
  • 290 and 410
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22
Q

At a minimum, how many hours prior to flight time shall Air Canada flight crew members abstain from consuming alcohol?

A

12

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23
Q

True or False. For Ice Pellets and Small Hail Conditions, a PCI may be used to extend any allowance time

A
  • False. These precipitation types can penetrate the fluid and contaminate the wing underneath.
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24
Q

Critical actions include those items that if performed incorrectly would cause an aircraft limitation to be exceeded, or an ATC clearance to be breached, or an irreversible change to an aircraft system. Some of the critical actions that shall be cross-checked by Flight Crew members include:

A
  • Configuration change
    • HDG, alt, altimeter & airspeed setting
    • Transfer of control
    • Change to FMS/FMGS, MCDU & radio nav aids, during departure or approach
    • Perf. Calc. Including entries in FMS/FMGS, MCDU
    • Actuation of system switch/control that may cause irreversible change to system
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25
Q

To initiate a rapid deplanement the flight crew shall PA:

A
  • ’’deplane immediately & leave your personal belongings’’
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26
Q

The primary altimeters must be serviceable and agree within _____ feet before entry into RVSM airspace

A

200

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27
Q

When is a Take-Off Alternate required?

A
  • Vis. Less than standard

* Report WX below landing minima (ceiling & vis)

28
Q

True or False? If the “Unstabilized” call is made on an approach, the approach may continue if the PIC determines it is safe to continue.

A

False

29
Q

True or false. It is permissible to disembark passengers onto the bridge, while waiting for ground power or an APU, with engines running and brakes set?

A

True

30
Q

The weather requirements to conduct circling approaches at Air Canada require a ceiling of _____ feet and visibility of ______ statue miles.

A
  • 1500’ and 5SM
31
Q

During De-icing operations, if the crew is notified of a “tusk out” and “no damage found” report from the De-icer, the crew should:

A
  • Continue their flight as per normal
32
Q

True or False? After landing, applying reverse thrust eliminates the option of a go-around.

A

True

33
Q

Fill in the blanks. A major fuel spill is a fuel spill exceeding ______ meters in any direction or exceeds ______ millimeters in depth.

A
  • 1.5 metres, 12mm
34
Q

The PF shall comply within _____ seconds to a TCAS RA command

A

5

35
Q

An ATC clearance in US airspace containing the phrase “CLIMB AND MAINTAIN” means:

A
  • Climb without consideration to restrictions
36
Q

Regarding the CVR, on any flight which a Transportation Safety Board of Canada reportable incident or accident has occurred,

A
  • Pull the CVR CB to deactivate it upon termination of flight
37
Q

Cabin doors and compartments shall not be opened and left unattended without the use of an approved passenger entry door barrier or in accordance with the following guidelines:

A
  • An approved Passenger entry barrier, is in place, that is capable to support all load that may be brought to bear on it.
    • Aircraft access stands in place
    • A watch person to guard opening while MTC activieties are being performed
38
Q

If the total passenger count indicates more passengers than the LDF but within tolerance, crews shall:

A
  • adjust the TOW, by adding 80KG, per extra Px
39
Q

If Flight Crews are planning to depart 10 or more minutes early, the Pilot-In-Command shall:

A
  • Confirm with dispatch that early departure is approved
40
Q

Under normal conditions, what are the (Canadian) guidelines for wake turbulence?

A
  • 4nm Heavy behind heavy
    • 5nm medium behind heavy
    • 3min after super
41
Q

True or False. Unless precluded by regulation, or when required for terrain clearance or safety reasons, no turns are permitted below 400 feet AGL.

A

True

42
Q

Flight Crews shall advise ATC of manoeuvring for a TCAS RA. What call is made to ATC?

A
  • ‘Air Canada XXX, TCAS RA’
43
Q

Aircraft being operated into or out of an airport with high terrain in the departure, arrival, or missed approach area shall have what information displayed, if capable?

A
  • EGPWS information on at least one instrument display from top of descent to LDG and from T/O to cruise
44
Q

In matters of urgency where immediate contact with the In-Charge Flight Attendant is required, the Flight Crew members shall use the PA system and announce:

A
  • “In charge flight attendant [call or report to] the flight deck”
45
Q

For a P-EFB, PED or Laptop Fire in the flight deck the Flight Crew shall make the following PA:

A
  • ‘’ Back up to the flight deck, back up to the flight deck’’
46
Q

Flight Crews operating in, or cleared to enter, controlled airspace in accordance with IFR and experiencing a communications failure shall:

A
  • Squawk 7600, listen out on the appropriate frequencies for control messages and attempt contact on any ATC freq and/or other aircraft and relay message
47
Q

A user-defined waypoint is:

A
  • Any waypoint that is not resident in the FMS/FMGS database
48
Q

For all instrument approaches in IMC at the FAF crossing, a go-around shall be initiated if the difference between the Captain and FO altimeters is greater than ___ feet

A

100

49
Q

Regarding acknowledgement of taxi clearances,

A
  • Flight crew shall acknowledge all hold shorts instruction and clearance to cross or enter all runway
50
Q

True or False. During a CAT II/III approach, a go around shall be initiated when inside the FAF (or where no FAF exists, when established on the glideslope), RVR drops or fluctuates below charted minima prior to reaching DH, or AH.

A

True

51
Q

In case the PF is not satisfied with the Autothrust operation, it must be disengaged using the Instinctive Disconnect Pushbutton located on the Thrust Levers.

A

TRUE

52
Q

The Autothrust active range with 2 engines operating is just above IDLE to CL, and with one engine inoperative the Autothrust active range is _____________.

A

Just above idle to MCT

53
Q

To prevent contaminants from entering the air conditioning system on runways treated with anti-icing chemicals (potassium acetate), select and maintain idle reverse if operationally acceptable; or select PACKS OFF on short final.

A

True

54
Q

Engine oil temperature must be greater than ____ degrees C before setting take off power.

A

10C

55
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing?

A

38 knots (company limit)

56
Q

After a rejected takeoff, if the aircraft comes to a complete stop using autobrake MAX, release the brakes before taxi by ____________.

A

Disarming the spoilers

57
Q

How long must the take over push button on the side stick be held down to lock out the opposite side stick?

A

More than 40S

58
Q

If during the take-off, the N1 is 1% or more below that of the rated limit prior to ___ KIAS, the PM will call “________” and the Captain will ___________ the take-off.

A

Low power; reject

59
Q
  1. Use of the assumed (FLEX) temperature method for reduced thrust is allowed and should be applied on wet runways. 

A

True

60
Q

For normal configuration landings, a margin of 1.15 is applied to the in-flight landing distance to account for operational variability and flying technique. For landing with an abnormal, no factor is included nor is required.

A

True

61
Q

The FADEC has_____idle modes?

A

3

62
Q

Which FADEC idle mode is regulated according to aircraft altitude, regardless of bleed demand? It is selected in flight, when the flaps are extended (FLAPS lever not at zero position) and allows the engine to accelerate rapidly from idle to go-around thrust.

A

Approach idle

63
Q

Which FADEC idle mode is regulated according to bleed system demand and ambient conditions? It is selected in flight when the flaps are retracted (FLAPS lever at zero position) and on the ground when reverse is not selected.

A

Modulated idle

64
Q

True or False? Exceeding the EGT red line or nose gear vibration should not result in the decision to reject takeoff above 100 kt.

A

True

65
Q

A landing is planned and briefed using Reverse Idle. What conditions would prompt you to change your selection to Reverse Max if they occurred anytime during the landing?

A 
– An emergency
– The deceleration is not as expected
 – A failure affects the landing performance
– A long flare or a long touchdown
– An unexpected tailwind.

A320 (4 decks)

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