FMS Week 3 Flashcards

1
Q

congenital cytomegalovirus infection

A

SNHL, chorioretinitis, microcephaly, ID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

inheritance characteristics of Fragile-X

A

most penetrant in males (only one X), female heterozygotes may have ovarian failure and ataxia, typically X-dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

general mechanism of FMR1 silencing

A

mutation leads to hypermethylation, silencing by HDACS, condensation of promoter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

situs ambiguous

A

mixed laterality or body patterning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

signs/symptoms of Angelman syndrome

A

ID/limited speech, ataxic gait, spontaneously happy affect, seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

thalidomide

A

sleep and anti-nausea med used during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

phenotypic heterogeniety

A

multiple distinct phenotypes arising from different mutations in the same gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

general indications for ACE inhibitors

A

hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the greatest cause of genetic disease?

A

multifactorial disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

inheritance of myotonic dystrophy

A

autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

teratogenic effects of anticonvulsants

A

nail hypoplasia (phenytoin), neural tube defects (valproic acid and carbamazepine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

pathogenesis of type one DM

A

autoimmune destruction of the beta cells of the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

HOX genes

A

regional selection of patterning of body from hindbrain to tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

heterotopias

A

apparently normal neurons in abnormal locations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what type of condition is associated with LIS1?

A

neuronal migration: periventricular nodular heterotopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

cause of Fragile X syndrome

A

CCG triplet expansion in FMR1 region of X-chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

general anomalies associated with 2nd and 3rd trimester?

A

IQ, developmental problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

best potential vector for SCIDs?

A

lentiviral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

teratogenic effects of tobacco

A

poor fetal growth, behavioral teratogenicity, IQ?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what type of condition is associated with FLNA?

A

neuronal migration: periventricular nodular heterotopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

teratogenic effects of Isotretinoin

A

CNS, cardiac, ear, thymic, branchial arch anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MELAS

A

mitochondrial disease: mitochondrial encephalopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cause of Angelman Syndrome

A

“silencing” of maternal genes at 15q

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

signs/symptoms of Fragile-X

A

15-20% have developmental delay, characteristic facial features (large forhead, long face, prominent chin/ears), joint laxity, enlarged testes in adults, associated with autism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

general anomalies associated with 1st trimester?

A

congenital malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

general indications for methotrexate/misoprostol

A

cancers, dermatomyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

teratogenic effects of maternal PKU

A

microcephaly, ID, cardiac defects, pregnancy loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Syndrome vs Sequence vs Anomaly

A

Syndrome: a pattern of anomalies known or thought to be related to a gene or teratogen

Sequence: one or more secondary morphologic anomalies cascading from a single malformation, disruption, or deformation

Anomaly: an anatomic phenotype substantially departing from reference population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the surmised mechanism of uniparental disomy?

A

trisomy rescue (trisomy with loss of second parent’s chromosome around fertilization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

temporal colinearity

A

3’ HOX genes expressed earliest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Waardenburg Type 1

A

mutation in PAX3, results in hypertelorism, white furlock, deafness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

treatments for mitochondrial disorders

A

No effective treatment; cofactors like coQ10, thiamine, vitamin E, and carnitine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

cause of Prader-Willi syndrome

A

results from “silencing” of paternal genes at 15q

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

number of CAG repeats associated with inormal patient (nonHD)

A

<26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is organogenesis?

A

2-9 weeks post conception; approximately the first trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

cause of Friedreich Ataxia

A

nucleotide expansion mutation in FXN gene on chromosome 9, codes for Fraxatin which removes iron in the cytoplasm around mitochondria, leads to free radical damage to mitochondrial membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the disadvantages of Lentiviral vectors?

A

potential for activating oncogenesis, potential for insertional mutagenesis (non selective and contains its own promoter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

spina bifida

A

neural tube defect, failure of fusion of vertebral arch, typically in lumbar region, varying degrees of severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe Sonic hedgehog syndrome

A

Mutation in SHH gene, Holoprosencephaly, clefting, malformed midline structures, (cyclopia, central incisor, absent frenulum etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what type of slippage would lead to trinucleotide expansion?

A

backward slippage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Waardenburg Type IV

A

Hirschsprung disease (aganglionic megacolon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe Tuberous sclerosis

A

Disease associated with TSC1, TSC2 genes. Hamartomas, cardiac thabdomyomas, ungual fibromas, facial angiofibromas, ashleaf spots, and seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

teratogenic effects of gestational diabetes

A

(“abundant fuel”) macrosomia, high insulin levels, hypoglycemia, polycythemia, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, microcolon

44
Q

CFTR gene

A

associated with CF, membrane bound protein associated with Cl- channels

45
Q

teratogenic effects of ACE inhibitors

A

renal failure, skull defects

46
Q

what are the 2 most common congenital anomalies?

A

undescended testes and heart defects

47
Q

CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing involves what repair mechanism?

A

homologous recombination

48
Q

what is the role of PAX genes?

A

transcription regulators, initiate and orchestrate eye development

49
Q

signs/symptoms of Prader-Willi syndrome

A

neonatal hypotonia & cryptorchidism, hypothalamic dysfunction: lack of satiety & obesity, hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, growth hormone deficiency: short stature & hypotonia, congnitive/behavioral impairment

50
Q

teratogenic effects of thalidomide

A

stunted growth, phocomelia (“seal limbs”)

51
Q

what is “Anticipation”?

A

worsening of triplet repeats in subsequent generations

52
Q

teratogenic effects of lithium

A

ebstein’s anomaly of tricuspid valve

53
Q

teratogenic effects of lead

A

impaired CNS function

54
Q

antisense RNA therapy

A

oligoribonucleotides that pair to mRNA, can block translation/splicing

55
Q

what tissues are most affected by mitochondrial diseases?

A

neuro, muscular, and cardiac

56
Q

teratogenic effects of 1st trimester diabetes

A

(insulin dependent), cardiac/sacral defects, neural tube defects, pregnancy loss

57
Q

number of CAG repeats associated with juvenile HD

A

60+

58
Q

situs inversus

A

mirrored laterality or body patterning

59
Q

general teratogenic effects of TORCH infections

A

IUGR, prematurity, hypo/hypertonia, seizures, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, cataracts, glaucoma, hearing loss, pneumonia, strucural cardio defects, hepatosplenomegaly, petechiae/purpura, rash, jaundice

60
Q

teratogenic effects associated with methotrexate/misoprostol

A

multiple organ systems/structures, most within the 1st trimester

61
Q

uniparental disomy

A

both members of a chromosome pair are inherited from one parent

62
Q

MERRF

A

mitochondrial disease: myclonic epilepsy and ragged red fibers

63
Q

teratogenic effects of cocaine

A

pregnancy loss, placental abruption, intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR), microcephaly

64
Q

what are the disadvantages of Adenovirus vectors?

A

high immune response (because they are so infectious) and not stably integrated

65
Q

gene associated with CF

A

CFTR, large gene, associated with thousands of mutations

66
Q

heteroplasmy

A

When a cell contains multiple mitochondrial lines (mitochondrial “mosaicism”)

67
Q

teratogenic effects of methylmercury

A

microcephaly, ID, cerebral palsy, minamata disease

68
Q

what is a gene vector?

A

an engineered piece of DNA derived from a naturally occurring human virus

69
Q

teratogenic effects of ACE inhibitors

A

decreased renal blood flow, renal failure, hypotension, anuria, skull hypoplasia, morbidity

70
Q

Causes of nucleotide repeat expansions

A

hypermethylated regions/stable hairpins, mistakes during replication/repair, unequal crossing over during meiosis (gene conversion)

71
Q

qualitative traits vs quantitative traits

A

qualititative: traits either present or not

quantitative traits: measurable physiological/biochemical quantities

72
Q

signs/symptoms of Friedreich Ataxia

A

muscle weakness in arms/legs, loss of coordination, vision/hearing/speech impairment, scoliosis, high plantar arches, diabetes, heart disorders

73
Q

describe SCIDs

A

severe combined immunodeficiency; due to adenosine deaminase deficiency, leads to build up of doxyadenosine and S-adenosylhomocysteine which are toxic to immune cells

74
Q

periventricular nodular heterotopia

A

involves clusters of neurons that never begin migration, involved in 15+ syndromes

75
Q

what are the disadvantages of Adenovirus-associated vectors?

A

small payload, infected cells are recognized by immune system and compromised

76
Q

signs/symptoms of Myotonic Dystrophy

A

myotonia and wasting of smooth/skeletal/cardiac muscles, cardiac conduction defects, hypersomnia, cognitive changes, dementia

77
Q

teratogenic effects of Zika virus

A

severe microcephaly, neurological complications, eyes and ears

78
Q

mechanism of defect in myotonic distrophy

A

regions are “decoys” for CUG RNA binding proteins for mRNA metabolism, build up of non-degraded DMPK transcripts

79
Q

what tissues are most affected by HD?

A

brain and testes

80
Q

small interference RNA

A

siRNA, essentially artificial microRNAs that can target mRNAs using the RISC pathway, can be sent into the cell in engineered liposomes

81
Q

cause of Noonan syndrome

A

a syndrome that arises from mutations in various proteins/enzymes related to the RAS-MAPK pathway

82
Q

types of “silencing” in Prader-Willi/Angelman syndromes

A

At 15q: deletion, UPD, repression from imprinting defect, UBE3 mutation in Angelman

83
Q

CPEO

A

mitochondrial disease: chronic progressive external opthalmoplegia

84
Q

signs of fetal alcohol symptom

A

growth deficiency, microcephaly, learning disability, mild/moderate ID, behavioral (ADHD, impulsiveness, poor memory, conduct disorder), characteristic facial features

85
Q

most common mutation class in cystic fibrosis

A

F508del (phenylalanine deletion)

86
Q

situs solitus

A

normal laterality or body patterning

87
Q

what are the 2 types of RNA-based therapies?

A

antisense RNAs and RNA interference

88
Q

factors affecting teratogenicity?

A

timing, dose, predisposition (metabolism, genetics, physiology)

89
Q

congenital rubella syndrome

A

IUGR, microcephaly, cataracts, hearing loss, chorioretinitis, meningoencephalitis, ID

90
Q

NARP

A

mitochondrial disease: neurogenic ataxia and retinitis pigmentosa

91
Q

when is a fetus/embryo most sensitive to teratogens?

A

organogenesis

92
Q

what is the difference between malformation, deformation, and disruption?

A

malformations are intrinsic abnormalities in programs driving development.

deformations are from extrinsic forces on otherwise normally developing tissues

disruptions are when normal tissues are subjected to a destructive problem causing breakdown or loss (vascular, infection, etc.)

93
Q

describe WAGR

A

Aniridia-wilms tumor association

PAX-6 deletion leads to aniridia, WT1 gene leads to Wilms tumor

94
Q

inheritance of Friedreich Ataxia

A

autosomal recessive (25% recurrence)

95
Q

anencephaly

A

anterior neural tube defect, 2/3 are female, typically stillborn or death shortly after birth

96
Q

Type 1 vs Type 2 myotonic dystrophy

A

type 1: expansion in 3’ UTR of DMPK gene on chromosome 19q

type 2: expansion in zinc finger 9 (ZNF9) gene on chromosome 3

97
Q

cause of Huntington Disease

A

CAG repeat expansion at HTT of 4p

98
Q

what type of condition is associated with DCX?

A

neuronal migration: periventricular nodular heterotopia

99
Q

spatial colinearity

A

3’ HOX genes expressed more anteriorly

100
Q

number of CAG repeats associated with adult onset HD

A

40-60

101
Q

TORCH

A
Toxoplasmosis
Other (Varicella, syphilis, Zika)
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes
102
Q

FMRP

A

protein associated with FMR1 gene (fragile-X); participates in RNA transport/function in neural cells

103
Q

origination of cleft lip/palate

A

failure of fusion of frontal process with maxillary process early on (35th day of gestation), most common in males

104
Q

MHC locus

A

major genetic factor in type 1 diabetes

105
Q

what are the potential issues with CRISPR-cas9 systems?

A

unintentional editing, unpredictable effects on progeny, designer medicine

106
Q

most common anomaly of folic acid deficiency during pregnancy

A

NTD (reduced blood folate and elevated homocysteine)

107
Q

characteristic trait of Van der Woude syndrome (VWS)

A

bilateral lower lip pits