Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

TKE-P > FMGS NAVIGATION > Flashcards

FMGS NAVIGATION Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What does it mean when the ADR fault light illuminates steady on then ADIRS CDU?
    a. a fault is detected in air data reference
    b. no present position entry after 10 min.
    c. alignment has been completed
A

a. a fault is detected in air data reference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. On the pedestal mounted switching panel, the ATT HDG and Air Data selectors are at NORM, meaning:

a. ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD1, ND1
ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD2, ND2

b. ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD1, ND1 and DDRMI
ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD2, ND2

c. ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD1
ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD2

A

b. ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD1, ND1 and DDRMI

ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD2, ND2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Tuning of VOR/DME and ILS is provided by:

a. Automatic tuning
Manual tuning
Back up tuning

b. Automatic tuning
Manual tuning

c. Automatic tuning
Back up tuning

A

a. Automatic tuning
Manual tuning
Back up tuning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. In case of failure of FMGC 1 and 2:
    a. VOR, ILS and ADF receivers 1 and 2 can be tuned through RMP1
    b. VOR, ILS and ADF receivers 1 can be tuned through RMP1

c. RMP1 controls VOR, ILS DME and ADF receivers 1
RMP2 controls VOR, ILS DME and ADF receivers 2

A

c. RMP1 controls VOR, ILS DME and ADF receivers 1

RMP2 controls VOR, ILS DME and ADF receivers 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. The ALIGN light flashes:
    a. within five minutes of NAV mode selection when present position has not been entered
    b. during the alignment phase in case of IRS alignment fault
    c. when alignment has been completed
A

b. during the alignment phase in case of IRS alignment fault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. The FMGS consist of the following main components:
    a. 2 FMGS – 2 MCDU – 2 FAC – 2 FCU control panels
    b. 2 FMGS – 2 MCDU – 2 FAC – 1 FCU control panel
    c. 2 FMGS – 2 MCDU – 2 FAC – 2 ECAM
    d. 2 FMGS – 2 MCDU – 2 ECAM – 1 FCU control panel
A

b. 2 FMGS – 2 MCDU – 2 FAC – 1 FCU control panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Normal electrical power supplies the A/C and the MCDU CRT is dark, without any other warning. It means:
    a. the FMGC is off
    b. the FMGC has failed
    c. the MCDU CB is pulled
    d. the MCDU “BRT” knob is dimmed
A

d. the MCDU “BRT” knob is dimmed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. On the ground, when electrical power is initially supplied to the A/C, the MCDU will automatically display:
    a. Airport page
    b. INIT A page
    c. Data Index page
    d. A/C Status page
A

d. A/C Status page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. You press “ALIGN IRS” prompt on INIT A page. On the ADIRS CDU the ALIGN lights flash but no message is displayed on the CDU:
    a. the system can only be used in ATT mode
    b. the system is unable to enter NAV mode to compute coordinates: switch it off
    c. make a second “present position” entry
A

c. make a second “present position” entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. These messages appear on copilot side ND:
    “SET OFFSIDE RNG/MODE” & “MAP NOT AVAIL”:

a. the IRS’s have not reached complete alignment
b. the F-PLN entered in captain’s FMGC has not been transferred into copilot’s FMGC

c. single FMGC operation and the two EFIS control panels are not set at
the same range & mode

A

c. single FMGC operation and the two EFIS control panels are not set at
the same range & mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Engines running, ready to taxi, a message appears: “CHECK GW”. Access to INIT B
    page is no longer available. On which page is it possible to insert the correct GW:

a. T/O performance page
b. Progress page
c. Fuel prediction page

A

c. Fuel prediction page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Aircraft on RWY centerline, ready for take-off. To preset a HDG of 233 degrees:

a. pull HDG knob to disarm NAV mode
Set 233 degree and press HDG knob to engage

b. Turn HDG knob, set 233 degree and pull to engage

c. Turn HDG knob, set 233 degree
Pull HDG knob when ATC clears to turn to 233 degree

A

c. Turn HDG knob, set 233 degree

Pull HDG knob when ATC clears to turn to 233 degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. One of the SRS disengagement conditions is not true:
    a. disengages automatically at FCU alt
    b. disengages automatically at acceleration altitude
    c. disengages manually by pulling the speed knob
    d. disengages by setting a new FCU altitude
A

d. disengages by setting a new FCU altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Control of the A/C can be automatic or manual. Guidance of the A/C can be managed or selected.
    How do you understand this situation. Managed guidance – manual control – selected speed:

a. FMGC computes and sends steering orders for navigation purpose. The pilot flies through the sidestick. Speed is adjusted in the FCU window
b. The audio pilot follows the F – PLN The pilots set the necessary data for longitudinal and lateral control of the A/C. The target speed is computed and displayed by the FMGC

A

a. FMGC computes and sends steering orders for navigation purpose. The pilot flies through the sidestick. Speed is adjusted in the FCU window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. A hold has been entered in the F-PLN, speed and NAV are managed. You want to leave this hold:
    a. Use the CLR key
    b. Hold is automatically cancelled when overflying the fix
    c. Activate IMM “EXIT*” prompt
A

c. Activate IMM “EXIT*” prompt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. For A/C position determination, FMGC uses data from:
    a. DME, VOR or ILS systems
    b. Clocks + Ground Speed Computation
    c. 3 ADIRS
    d. a. and c.
A

d. a. and c.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. In flight, following a manual position up-dating of the FMGC:
    a. it is also necessary to up-date the IRS position
    b. an IRS cannot be up-dated during A/C motion
A

b. an IRS cannot be up-dated during A/C motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. The Expedite mode is active. To disengage it, one of these statements is not correct:
    a. pull the V/S – FPA knob
    b. pull the SPD knob
    c. pull the ALT knob
    d. press again the EXPD PB to cancel this mode
A

d. press again the EXPD PB to cancel this mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. What are the basic modes of the AP/FD:
    a. Pitch and Roll
    b. HDG and VS
    c. ALT and NAV
    d. SPD and HDG
A

b. HDG and VS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. The engagement of both autopilots is possible:
    a. when “LAND” illuminates green on FMA
    b. when A/C is stabilized at G/S interception altitude
    c. as soon as the LOC has been intercepted
    d. after APPR pb switch is pressed and illuminates
A

d. after APPR pb switch is pressed and illuminates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Can you read the HDG on the PFD:
    a. yes
    b. no
A

a. yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. A/C is in clean configuration and in Normal Law. When the FAC detects a too high angle of attack:
    a. stall warning is activated
    b. THR LK flashes on FMA
    c. Alpha floor function operates
A

c. Alpha floor function operates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. During ILS approach, LAND 3 Fail Passive (also called CAT 3 single), one engine fails below 100 feet RA: This causes a landing capability down grading
    and you must go around:

a. true
b. false

A

b. false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. During an ILS approach the NAV mode will be deactivated at:
    a. Glide Slope capture
    b. Localizer capture
    c. a. + b.
A

b. Localizer capture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Can you display FD bars and FPV at the same time, for cross-checking on different PFDs;
    a. yes
    b. no
A

b. no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Certified FMGS limitations. Max wind conditions for CAT III automatic approach performed in managed speed guidance with A/THR:

Head wind Tail wind Cross wind

a. 30 KT 10 KT 20 KT
b. 40 KT 10 KT 15 KT
c. 20 KT 10 KT 20 KT

A

Head wind Tail wind Cross wind

a. 30 KT 10 KT 20 KT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. The continuous cavalry charge audio identifies only one of the following situations:
    a. Over speed for the actual A/C configuration
    b. Fire or oil low press on one engine
    c. Autopilot Disengagement
    d. Excessive cabin altitude
    e. Auto land warning, requiring a Go Around
A

c. Autopilot Disengagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Setting the thrust levers at idle will disengage the A/THR mode. A/THR will reengage:
    a. as soon as the thrust levers position is changed
    b. when A/THR pb is pressed on the FCU
    c. provided the levers are set in CLB gate
    d. provided the levers are moved from idle position and A/THR pb is pressed
A

b. when A/THR pb is pressed on the FCU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. In one of the cases listed below, A/THR does not disengage:
    a. when the two thrust levers are set at idle position
    b. pressing the A/THR pb on the FCU
    c. when the aural warning announces “RETARD!”
    d. pressing the instinctive disconnect button
A

c. when the aural warning announces “RETARD!”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. The LOC pb, on the FCU, is pressed to ARM LOC mode. This mode is used for:
    a. performing a published localizer approach
    b. tracking a VOR beam during an approach
    c. performing those non-precision approaches: VOR-ADF-R NAV
    d. approaching on an ILS with no G/S
    e. a and d
A

d. approaching on an ILS with no G/S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. What does a triple click mean, during an ILS approach:
    a. a level 3 warning to the crew
    b. a primary failure is occurring, prepare for Go Around
    c. flaps are set at 3 and the landing gear is not down
    d. landing capability down grading warning
A

d. landing capability down grading warning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. The active F-PLN is erased when:
    a. the pilot calls the A/C status page
    b. the wheels touch the runway at landing
    c. the A/C has been on ground for 30 seconds following the landing
    d. one engine is shut down at parking place
A

c. the A/C has been on ground for 30 seconds following the landing

33
Q
  1. Following a dual engine generator failure, EMER GEN supplies the A/C:
    a. FMGC 1 is available (NAV function only)
    b. FMGC 2 only is available
    c. both FMGCs are available
    d. no FMGC is available
A

a. FMGC 1 is available (NAV function only)

34
Q
  1. The mandatory parameter used by the alpha floor detection is:
    a. A/C minimum speed
    b. A/C weight
    c. A/C maximum speed
    d. A/C angle attack
A

d. A/C angle attack

35
Q
  1. Rudder travel limitation is a function of:
    a. FAC only
    b. FAC in normal and ELAC in alternate
    c. ELAC only
    d. ELAC in normal and FAC in alternate
A

a. FAC only

36
Q
  1. When the two YAW damper functions are engaged:
    a. YAW damper 1 has priority, YAW damper actuator 2 is slaved
    b. YAW damper 2 has priority, YAW damper actuator 1 is slaved
    c. YAW damper 1 and 2 are active, the two actuators pressurized
    d. a hydraulic device gives priority to YAW damper 1
A

a. YAW damper 1 has priority, YAW damper actuator 2 is slaved

37
Q
  1. The safety tests are automatically performed:
    a. on ground, at computer power up
    b. in case of discrepancy between 2 computers
    c. in flight when a failure occurs
    d. in flight at autopilot engagement
A

a. on ground, at computer power up

38
Q
  1. When the two rudder trim functions are engaged:
    a. Rudder trim 1 and 2 control their motors together
    b. Rudder trim 1 controls the single trim motors
    c. Rudder trim 1 controls its motor, rudder trim 2 is in standby
    d. A mechanical device gives priority to rudder trim 1
A

c. Rudder trim 1 controls its motor, rudder trim 2 is in standby

39
Q
  1. The FMGC functions are:
    a. flight guidance and flight envelope protection
    b. flight management and flight envelope protection
    c. flight management and flight guidance
    d. flight envelope protection and yaw axis control
A

c. flight management and flight guidance

40
Q
  1. The trim function of the FAC is:
    a. A Pitch Trim
    b. A Rudder Trim
    c. An Aileron Trim
    d. A Pitch Trim and Rudder Trim
A

b. A Rudder Trim

41
Q
  1. In flight, in case of temporary loss of electrical power on FAC 2, FAC 2 pb “FAULT” comes on and:
    a. it will be automatically reset
    b. it can be manually reset and the safety tests are performed
    c. it can be manually reset and the safety tests are not performed
    d. there is no way to reengage FAC 2
A

c. it can be manually reset and the safety tests are not performed

42
Q
  1. The AFS computers are:
    a. FMGC and ELAC
    b. FMGC and SEC
    c. FMGC and FAC
    d. ELAC and SEC
A

c. FMGC and FAC

43
Q
  1. With AP1 and AP2 not engaged, FD1 and FD2 engaged and A/THR active:
    a. FMGC1 controls engine 1, FMGC 2 controls engine 2
    b. FMGC1 control both engines
    c. FMGC2 controls both engines
    d. flight controls and engines are controlled by only one FMGC
A

b. FMGC1 control both engines

44
Q
  1. The autopilot does not disengaged in case of override on: (in flight)
    a. the sidestick in roll
    b. the sidestick in pitch
    c. the rudder pedals
    d. a rudder pedal deflection less than 10° out of trim
A

d. a rudder pedal deflection less than 10° out of trim

45
Q
  1. In normal operation, with the two MCDU showing the same page, a modification made by the pilot on MCDU 1 is sent to MCDU 2:
    a. directly
    b. via FMGC 1
    c. via FMGC 1 and FMGC 2
    d. via FMGC 1, FMGC 2 and RMP 2
A

c. via FMGC 1 and FMGC 2

46
Q
  1. The flight guidance function are:
    a. Autopilot, Flight plan, Autothrust
    b. Autopilot, Performance, Flight plan
    c. Autopilot, Flight director, Autothrust
    d. Flight Management, Autopilot, Autothrust
A

c. Autopilot, Flight director, Autothrust

47
Q
  1. The position of the aircraft, used in the flight plan is computed by:
    a. FG part of the FMGC
    b. FM part of the FMGC
    c. the DMC
    d. the MCDU
A

b. FM part of the FMGC

48
Q
  1. The flight director is engaged:
    a. by pressing the FD pb on the FCU
    b. automatically at system power up
    c. by selecting a mode on the FCU
    d. by selecting the INIT page on the MCDU
A

b. automatically at system power up

49
Q
  1. With autopilot engaged, the rudder is normally controlled by:
    a. the FMGC
    b. the FAC
    c. the ELAC
    d. the SEC
A

b. the FAC

50
Q
  1. The normal FMGC operation is:
    a. only one FMGC can operate at a time
    b. FMGC 1 has priority, FMGC 2 is in standby
    c. FMGCs operate according to master/slave principle
    d. FMGCs operate independently
A

c. FMGCs operate according to master/slave principle

51
Q
  1. The FCU allows:
    a. modification of the flight plan of FM part
    b. selection of FG function modes
    c. selection RADIO-NAV frequencies
    d. IRS alignment
A

b. selection of FG function modes

52
Q
  1. In cruise, lateral AP orders are executed by:
    a. ailerons and spoilers
    b. ailerons and rudder
    c. rudder and spoilers
    d. ailerons, spoilers and rudder
A

d. ailerons, spoilers and rudder

53
Q
  1. With the aircraft in flight, AP engaged and A/THR active, the A/THR mode:
    a. can be chosen by the pilot on the FCU
    b. can be chosen by the pilot on the MCDU
    c. depends on the AP lateral mode
    d. depends on the AP longitudinal mode
A

d. depends on the AP longitudinal mode

54
Q
  1. With the aircraft in flight, A/THR not engaged, thrust levers on CLB gate, an alpha-floor is detected:
    a. A/THR does not get engaged because the engines are already in CLB thrust
    b. A/THR automatically engages, but is not active
    c. A/THR automatically engages and controls the engines with CLB thrust
    d. A/THR automatically engages and controls the engine with TO/GA thrust
A

d. A/THR automatically engages and controls the engine with TO/GA thrust

55
Q
  1. The FAC computes rudder travel limit:
    a. only when AP is engaged
    b. only at low speed
    c. only in case of ELAC failure
    d. at any time
A

d. at any time

56
Q
  1. With AP engaged in LAND mode, the YAW damper actuator is controlled by:
    a. a yaw order computed by the FAC
    b. a dutch roll damping order computed by the FAC
    c. a turn coordination order computed by the FAC
    d. an AP yaw order computed by the FMGC, via the FAC
A

d. an AP yaw order computed by the FMGC, via the FAC

57
Q
  1. On the FMA, on the second line of the longitudinal zone:
    a. ALT can be only in green or magenta
    b. ALT in cyan indicates that ALT mode is active
    c. ALT in cyan indicates that ALT mode is armed
    d. ALT in cyan indicates that ALT mode is active or an FM altitude constraint
A

c. ALT in cyan indicates that ALT mode is armed

58
Q
  1. With the thrust levers in the CLB gate, A/THR disengages; the engines thrust:
    a. equals CLB thrust limit
    b. is frozen at the existing thrust
    c. corresponds to the thrust levers position
    d. progressively becomes equal to the thrust lever position
A

b. is frozen at the existing thrust

59
Q
  1. When TAKE-OFF mode is engaged:
    a. A/THR automatically engages and is active
    b. A/THR automatically engages but is not active

c. A/THR does not automatically engage and the
engines are controlled by the thrust levers

d. A/THR does not automatically engage and the engines are controlled by the last thrust target

A

b. A/THR automatically engages but is not active

60
Q
  1. ADIRU 3 can supply information to:
    a. DMC 1 and DMC 2 only
    b. DMC 1 and DMC 3 only
    c. DMC 2 and DMC 3 only
    d. DMC 1, DMC 2 and DMC 3
A

d. DMC 1, DMC 2 and DMC 3

61
Q
  1. Air data modules (ADM) supply pressure information to the ADIRUs from:
    a. all pilot probes and static ports
    b. the pilot probes only
    c. the static ports only
    d. the captain and first officer pitot probes and static ports only
A

a. all pilot probes and static ports

62
Q
  1. ADIRS 3 receives TAT information from:
    a. the captain’s TAT sensor
    b. the first officer’s TAT sensor
    c. the captain and first officer’s TAT sensors
    d. the stand-by TAT sensor
A

a. the captain’s TAT sensor

63
Q
  1. The BARO correction or reference selected is sent to each ADIRU via:
    a. the master FMGC
    b. the FCU
    c. the RMPs
    d. the DMCs
A

b. the FCU

64
Q
  1. Each ADIRU receives two analogue inputs. They are:
    a. angle of attack (AOA) and total air temperature (TAT)
    b. angle of attack (AOA) and barometric correction or reference
    c. total air temperature (TAT) and barometric correction or reference
    d. FMGC status and barometric correction reference
A

a. angle of attack (AOA) and total air temperature (TAT)

65
Q
  1. In normal operation the ADIRUs aligned using information from:
    a. the ADIRS CDU
    b. the CFDS
    c. the FCU
    d. the MCDU
A

d. the MCDU

66
Q
  1. If ADIRU 2 fails, the correct action is:
    a. set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to CAPT/3
    b. set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to F/O/3
    c. set ATT HDG selectors to CAPT/3, AIR DATA selector to F/O/3
    d. set ATT HDG selectors to F/O/3, AIR DATA selector to CAPT/3
A

b. set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to F/O/3

67
Q
  1. In normal operation ADIRU 1 supplies information to:
    a. the captain’s PFD and the first officer’s ND
    b. the captain’s ND and the first officer’s PFD
    c. the captain’s PFD and ND
    d. the first officer’s PFD and ND
A

c. the captain’s PFD and ND

68
Q
  1. In rose NAV mode with VOR 1 selected, the ND displays what VOR information:
    a. Deviation bar, selected course and the bearing pointer
    b. Bearing pointer only
    c. Deviation bar and selected course only
    d. Deviation bar and bearing pointer only
A

b. Bearing pointer only

69
Q
  1. In ROSE ILS mode, the ND displays what ILS information:
    a. G/S and LOC scales
    b. Deviation bar and selected course
    c. Deviation bar, selected course and G/S scale
    d. Deviation bar, selected course, G/S and LOC scales
A

d. Deviation bar, selected course, G/S and LOC scales

70
Q
  1. In the event of no ADF1 reception, with ADF1 selected on ND:
    a. the bearing pointer goes out of view and ADF flag is displayed
    b. the bearing pointer goes out of view and station ID is replaced by red crosses
    c. the bearing pointer goes red and station ID is replaced by frequency
    d. the bearing pointer goes out of view and station ID is replaced by frequency
A

d. the bearing pointer goes out of view and station ID is replaced by frequency

71
Q
  1. In ROSE VOR mode, in the event of VOR receiver failure:
    a. the VOR information and the course pointer becomes red
    b. the VOR information becomes red and the course pointer disappears
    c. the VOR information and the course pointer disappear
    d. the VOR information flashes and the course pointer disappears
A

d. the VOR information flashes and the course pointer disappears

72
Q
  1. During Take-Off and Go Around, the speed window on the FCU displays:
    a. the speed manually inserted by the crew into the FCU and the light is out
    b. the speed manually inserted by the crew into the MCDU and the light is illuminated
    c. dashes and the light is illuminated: managed speed such as V2 or memorized VAPP are automatically used by the FMGS
A

c. dashes and the light is illuminated: managed speed such as V2 or memorized VAPP are automatically used by the FMGS

73
Q
  1. In approach, “LAND” illuminates green on FMA when radio altitude is:
    a. 700 feet
    b. 400 feet
    c. 1,000 feet
    d. 200 feet
A

b. 400 feet

74
Q
  1. On the ground, the engagement of the autothrust function:
    a. must be carried out manually by the crew before take off
    b. is performed automatically upon the second engine start
    c. is performed automatically at the engagement of the take off mode
A

c. is performed automatically at the engagement of the take off mode

75
Q
  1. Climbs and descents are always limited:
    a. by flight plan (T/C) and (T/D) points
    b. by the altitude manually selected on the FCU
    c. by the aircraft weight calculated by the FMGC
A

b. by the altitude manually selected on the FCU

76
Q
  1. In flight, the FMGS position can be updated:
    a. whenever a DME station is selected by the pilot
    b. using data from the selected NDB, VOR or DME stations
    c. automatically with the DMEs through the autotuning function
A

c. automatically with the DMEs through the autotuning function

77
Q
  1. ON the ND, in the event of VOR receiver failure:
    a. the red VOR flag is displayed, the course pointer disappears
    b. the VOR bearing becomes red and the course pointer disappears
    c. the VOR bearing and the course pointer disappear
    d. the VOR bearing flashes and the course pointer disappears
A

c. the VOR bearing and the course pointer disappear

78
Q
  1. In flight, the FMGS position is automatically updated:
    a. using data from the selected NDB, VOR or DME stations
    b. whenever a DME station is selected by the pilot
    c. by the DMEs through the autotuning function
A

c. by the DMEs through the autotuning function

TKE-P (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions