FM Case Files Combined Flashcards

0
Q

HIV category C

A

-symptomatic AIDS defining conditions

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1
Q

OTC tx of acute diarrhea

A
  • will help slow down the frequency of the stool
  • can make certain infections worse bc they prevent your body from getting rid of the organism that is causing the diarrhea
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2
Q

Tx for thyroid storm

A
  1. High doses of propothyluracil (PTU)
  2. Beta blockers –> to control tachycardia and other peripheral sx
  3. Hydrocortisone –> prevent possible adrenal crisis
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3
Q

Imaging and serologic testing for primary hypothyroidism

A

-once dx for primary hypoTH is made and the thyroid is normal on physical exam, no other tests are required

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4
Q

4 most common animal bites causing rabies in US?

A
  1. Bats
  2. Skunks
  3. Dogs
  4. Foxes
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5
Q

Antibiotics for tx of acute diarrhea

A
  • can help with bacterial diarrhea
  • quinolones are usually used (ciprofloxacin) for 1 or 2 days
  • -cannot be used in children or pregnant women
  • azithromycin as a single dose in adults and for 3 days in children
  • -can be used in prego moms
  • rifaximin can be used in diarrhea caused by noninvasive strains of e. coli (wont work for fever or blood in stool)
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6
Q

Thyroid storm

A
  • acute hypermetabolic state associated w/ sudden release of lg amnts of thyroid hormone into circulation
  • causes autonomic instability and CNS dysfunction
  • can cause altered mental status, coma, or seizures + fever, restlessness, or psychoticlike behavior
  • high mortality risk! MEDICAL EMERGENCY!
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7
Q

Chronic diarrhea

A

-present for more than 4 wks

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8
Q

What are the most common bacterial causes of conjunctivitis?

A
  1. Staph
  2. Strep
  3. H. Influenzae
  4. Morexella
  5. Pseudo
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9
Q

Causes of illness after eating a mayo containing salad w/in 6 hrs, 8-12 hrs, or w/in 12-14 hrs

A
  • < 6 hrs = s. aureus
  • 8-12 hrs = c. Perfringens
  • 12-14 hrs = e. coli
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10
Q

Anosognosia

A

-no awareness of disability

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11
Q

Tx of HTN with strokes

A
  • unless a hypertensive encephalopathy, aortic dissection, acute renal failure, or PE is present, tx of HTN should be cautious!
  • give anti-HTN meds when systolic BP is > 220 or diastolic is > 120
  • if anti-thrombolitics will be given, then decrease pts systolic P to < 185 and diastolic to < 110
  • most commonly used:
    1. Labetalol
    2. Nicardipine
    3. Sodium nitroprusside
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12
Q

Ssx of traveler’s diarrhea

A
  1. > 3 loose stools in 24 hrs
  2. Abdominal cramping
  3. Nausea
  4. Vomiting
  5. Fever
  6. Tenesmus
    * *usually occurs within first 2 wks of travel
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13
Q

Aspirin and strokes

A
  • most pts w/ non-hemorrhagic stroke should receive aspirin w/in first 48hrs
  • EXCEPT when anti-thrombolytics are given
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14
Q

What is usually the cause of prehepatic jaundice?

A
  • hemolysis of RBCs
  • they overwhelm the liver’s ability to conjugate and clear the bilirubin through its normal pthwys
  • causes hyperbilirubinemia of unconjugated bilirubin
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15
Q

Bacterial Conjunctivitis: tx

A
  • can be self-limiting in 10-14 days

- give a sulfonamide instilled locally 3x daily to clear the infection in 2-3 days

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16
Q

Causes of hepatic hyperbilirubinemia

A
  • causes either conjugated or unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
  • viruses and alcohol decrease the liver’s ability to transport bilirubin AFTER it has been conjugated, so get conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
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17
Q

P. jiroveci pnuemonia: ssx?

A
  1. Nonproductive cough
  2. Fever
  3. Dyspnea that worsens over few days to few weeks
  4. Tachypenia
  5. Hypoxic
  6. Bilateral infiltrates seen on CXR w/ “ground glass” appearance
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18
Q

Tx for diarrhea caused by c. diff?

A
  1. Metronidazole

2. Vancomycin

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19
Q

Work up for pt that presents with stroke sx?

A
  1. CT scan WITHOUT contrast –> look for hemorrhage, tumor, abcess
  2. Glucose level
  3. Drug screen
  4. Coagulation studies
  5. Serum electrolytes
  6. Renal function tests
  7. Lipid profile
  8. CBC
  9. Ekg
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20
Q

What is the tx of choice for graves dz?

A
  • radioactive iodine

- as long as the pt is not pregnant, breastfeeding, or a child

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21
Q

Hepatitis A: ssx? Incubation period? Transmission period? How long does the illness last? Tx?

A
  • ssx: jaundice, fever, malaise, abdominal discomfort
  • incubation period: 2-8 wks
  • transmission: possible for 2-3 weeks after symptoms begin
  • lasts: 4-6 wks (buts can last up to 6 mnths)
  • tx: supportive
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22
Q

Contraindications to TPA

A
  1. Stroke occurred > 3 hrs ago
  2. Recent surgery
  3. Trauma
  4. GI bleeding
  5. MI
  6. Use of certain anticoag meds
  7. Uncontrolled HTN
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23
Q

What does anti-HBcAg IgM mean?

A

-acute hep B infection

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24
Q

What are the 3 laboratory categories of HIV pts?

A
  1. CD4 cell count of 500 or more
  2. CD4 cell count of 200-499
  3. CD4 cell count of < 200 cells
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25
Q

Which antibiotics can cause c. diff?

A
  • classically associated w/ clindamycin, but ANY antibiotic can cause pseudomembranous colitis
  • most common:
    1. Clinda
    2. Cephalosporins
    3. Penicillins
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26
Q

Risk factors for breast cancer

A
  1. Having first child after age 30
  2. Family hx of breast cancer
  3. Personal hx of breast cancer or atypical hyperplasia found on previous breast bx
  4. Known carrier of BRCA-1 or BRCA-2
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27
Q

Recommendations for mammographies for general population?

A

-start at age 40 (or some sources say 50) and screen every 1-2 yrs

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28
Q

Causes of posthepatic jaundice

A
  • usually caused by obstruction to the flow of bile through the bile ducts
  • can be caused by stones, strictures, or tumors
  • get a conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
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29
Q

What disease puts children at risk for a stroke?

A

-sickle cell anemia

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30
Q

What is the definitive tx of hyperthyroidism? What in a sfx? Who is it contraindicated in?

A
  • radioactive iodine –> destroys thyroid gland
  • 40% of pts will become hypothyroid & will need thyroid hormone replacement
  • contraindicated in pregnant women, bc fetus thyroid can take it up and it will destroy their thyroid too –> creatinism
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31
Q

What are 3 medications that can be used to tx hyperthyroidism? MOA? Sfx?

A
  1. Propylthiouracil –> preferred in pregnancy
  2. Methimazole
  3. Carbimazole
    - MOA: inhibit the organification of iodine
    - sfx: most serious = agranulocytosis
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32
Q

AIDS

A
  • advanced stage of HIV infection

- opportunistic infections are required for the dx

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33
Q

5 species common in human bites?

A
  1. Staphylococci
  2. Streptococci
  3. Haemophilus species
  4. Eikenella species
  5. Anaerobes
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34
Q

Tx of graves dz in adolescents?

A

-use antithyroid drugs bc Grave’s may go into spontaneous remission for them after 6-18 mnths

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35
Q

How many postmenopausal women will have an osteoporosis related fracture in their lifetime?

A

-HALF!!

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36
Q

Residual ischemic neurological deficit (RIND)

A

-a neurologic deficit of greater than 24 hrs and less than 3 wks

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37
Q

When are grass pollens typically present?

A
  • late spring through early fall

- but can be present year-round in warner weather too

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38
Q

What should be done when a thyroid nodule is found?

A

-further work-up bc 5-6% of identified nodules are malignant

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39
Q

HIV category B

A

-have symptomatic conditions that are either indicative of a defect in cell-mediated immunity or that are complicated by HIV infections (NOT AIDS defining infections!)

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40
Q

3 Sx of oral decongestants

A
  1. Tachy
  2. Trenors
  3. Insomnia
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41
Q

“Alarm features” of GI sx

A
  1. Fever
  2. Anemia
  3. Involuntary weight loss of > 10 lbs
  4. Hematochezia
  5. Melena
  6. Refractory or bloody diarrhea
  7. Family hx of colon cancer of inflammatory bowel dz
    * *these usually point to an underlying organic etiology & may warrant further workup
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42
Q

HIV dx

A
  • standard screening test = ELISA

- positive ELISAs must be confirmed with Western Blot to rule out false positives

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43
Q

HIV clinical category A

A
  • asymptomatic
  • primary infection and generalized lymphadenopathy
  • persistent generalized lymphadenopathy = enlarged lymph nodes that involve at least 2 noncontiguous sites other than inguinal nodes
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44
Q

What is measured in the direct bilirubin?

A

-the conjugated bilirubin

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45
Q

What are the calcium and vit D recommendations for women > 50 yrs

A
  • 1200mg calcium

- 400-800 IU of vit D per day

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46
Q

Prophylaxis for P. jiroveci?

A

-TMP/SMX in HIV pts with CD4 count < 200 cells/microL

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47
Q

Tx for diarrhea-predominant IBS

A
  • Loperamide

- reduces frequency of loose stools and urgency

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48
Q

In what ots are thyroid nodules more likely to be malignant in?

A
  1. children
  2. adults younger than 30
  3. adults older than 60
  4. pts with hx of head or neck irradiation
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49
Q

Decongestants: MOA? Use? Most common one used?

A
  • can be taken orally or intranasally
  • constrict the blood vessels of the nasal mucosa and reduce the overall volume of the mucosa
  • pseudophedrine is the most commonly used
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50
Q

Tx of animal bites

A
  1. Clean wound with soap and water
  2. Irrigate the wound with saline
  3. Debridement
  4. Tetanus vaccine if needed
  5. Contact animal control about rabies
  6. 5-7 days of antibiotic prophylaxis (amoxicillin-clavulanate = augmentin), or longer if cellulitis is present
  7. Hospitalization or surgery might be necessary if severe!
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51
Q

Diarrhea from undercooked hamburger

A

-enterohemorrhagic E. coli

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52
Q

Tx for constipation-predominant IBS

A

-increase giber intake, via diet or supplement

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53
Q

Hep B vaccine recommendations

A
  • universally for all children

- adults at high risk

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54
Q

Transient ischemic attack

A

-a focal neurologic deficit lasting less than 24 hrs

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55
Q

Mycobacterium avium prophylaxis

A
  • should be initiated in HIV pts if their CD4 count falls to less than 75 cells/microL
  • azithromycin
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56
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of hyperthyroidism?

A
  1. Graves disease
  2. Autonomous nodule that secretes thyroxine
  3. Thyroiditis (usually early stage)
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57
Q

When should you begin screening women for lipid disorders?

A

-age 45

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58
Q

Poststroke cerebral edema tx

A
  • mannitol

- decompression surgery

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59
Q

How to remove a stinger

A
  • remove ASAP
  • better to scrape or brush the stinger off the skin, rather than grasp it bc grasping it at the base can compress the venom-containing sac and causes increased venom release
  • BUT its better to rapidly remove the stinger than to spend time looking around for something to scrape the stinger out with (ex credit card)
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60
Q

Delayed rxns to insect stings?

A
  • large local rxns mediated by immunoglobulins (IgE) that are reactive to the venom
  • lg (> 10 cm in diameter) area of redness and warmth–> often confused with cellulitis
  • develops 24-48 hrs later
  • tx: oral steroids
  • tetanus prophylaxis should be done!
    • a person with a lg delayed rxn to a sting is more likely to have another one in the future, but this does not change their risk or anaphylaxis
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61
Q

Risk factors for animal bites becoming infected?

A
  1. Larger
  2. Deeper
  3. Hand wounds
  4. Presence of chronic illness or immune suppression
  5. Cat & humans > dogs to become infectious
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62
Q

Diarrhea from mayo

A
  1. Staph aureus

2. Salmonella

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63
Q

Describe the abdominal pain commonly seen with fibromyalgia

A
  • usually in the lower abdomen, esp in the left lower quadrant
  • cramping pain of intermittent frequency and variable intensity
  • pain often improves or is relieved with defication
  • pain will NOT wake a person up from sleep
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64
Q

Osteoporosis screening recommendations

A

-women > 65 & > 60 in higher risk women

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65
Q

Which bilirubin is excreted in the urine? What does a high level mean?

A
  • conjugated

- high urine level = conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

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66
Q

Tx of abdominal pain with IBS?

A
  1. Antispasmodics –> dicyclomine and hyoscyamine as needed

2. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants –> when pain is frequent and severe

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67
Q

Which bilirubin can be high in Gilbert’s syndrome?

A

-unconjugated

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68
Q

Allergic shiners

A

-dark circles around the eyes related to vasodilation or nasal congestion

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69
Q

Desensitization tx

A
  • used in pts who remain symptomatic despite mac medical tx
  • steps:
    1. Test to figure out specific antigens
    2. Inject pt with highly diluted antigen
    3. Inject weekly or bi-weekly while gradually increasing the concentration of the antigen
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70
Q

In what 2 groups of women apis cervical cancer seen in?

A
  1. Women not screened in over 5 yrs

2. Women who had an abnormal pap and did not follow-up on it

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71
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhea? Tx?

A
  • viral

- tx: rehydration, antibiotics WONT help!

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72
Q

3 most common causes of hypothyroidism?

A
  1. Hashimoto thyroiditis
  2. Post-Graves dz thyroid ablation and surgical removal of thyroid gland
  3. Secondary hypoTH related to hypothalamic or pituitary dysfunction
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73
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis for traveler’s diarrhea

A
  • not indicated unless the pt is at incased risk for complications from diarrhea or dehydration (ex inflammatory bowel dz, renal dz, or immunocomp)
  • fluoroquinolones are used
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74
Q

Most common cause of chronic liver dz in the US?

A

-hepatitis C

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75
Q

3 causes of diarrhea in daycare settings?

A
  1. Shigella
  2. Giardia
  3. Rotavirus
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76
Q

Hep B and hepatocellular carcinoma

A

-hep B causes 80% of the hepatocellular carcinoma cases worldwide

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77
Q

Diarrhea from raw seafood

A
  1. Vibrio
  2. Salmonella
  3. Hep A
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78
Q

Lubiprstone: MOA? Use? Sfx?

A
  • MOA: activates intestinal chloride channels and increases fluid secretion
  • use: for IBS in women with constipation
  • sfx: nausea
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79
Q

What is the LDL goal for a pt that had a stroke?

A

-less than 100

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80
Q

Antihistamines: MOA

A

-competitively antagonize the receptors for histamine, which is released from the mast cells

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81
Q

Tx for pts with IBS and depression or anxiety?

A

-SSRIs

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82
Q

Acute diarrhea

A

-present for less than 2 wks

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83
Q

Risk factors for cervical cancer (4)?

A
  1. Early onset of sexual intercourse
  2. Multiple sex partners
  3. HPV infections
  4. Tobacco use
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84
Q

Leukotriene inhibitors: use?

A
  • indicated for both allergic rhinitis and maintenance tx for persistent asthma
  • especially useful in pts with both asthma and allergies or in pts whose asthma is triggered by allergies
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85
Q

Diarrhea from undercooked chicken

A

-salmonella or shigella

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86
Q

Nephritic

A

-hematuria

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87
Q

Common cause of diarrhea in campers

A

-giardia

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88
Q

What is the most common bacteria involved in human bites that cause a closed fist injury?

A

-eikenella species

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89
Q

Tx of acute Hep B v. Chronic Hep B? Acute –> chronic?

A
  • acute = supportive
  • chronic = antiviral tx
  • the younger the pt = the more likely an acute infection is to become chronic
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90
Q

Subacute diarrhea

A

-present for 2-4 wks

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91
Q

Noninfectious causes of conjunctivitis: tx

A

-oral antihistamines or topical antihistamines or anti-inflammatory eye drops

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92
Q

Tx of anaphylaxis

A
  1. injection of aqueous epi 1:1,000 in a dose of 0.2 to 0.5 mL (0.2-0.5 mg) –> given subcutaneously or IM ASAP, can be repeated in 10-15min if needed
  2. Fluid replacement –> lots of fluid moves into interstitial space
  3. Antihistamines –> if severe
  4. Steroids –> if severe
  5. Bronchodilators –> if severe
    * *should be observed in hospital for 12-24 hrs bc sx can reoccur!!
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93
Q

Risk factors for a stroke?

A
  1. HTN –> most important!
  2. DM
  3. Age
  4. Male sex
  5. Family hx
  6. Dyslipidemia
  7. Smoking
  8. Certain CV conditions –> a fib, MI, endocarditis, carotid stenosis, rheumatic heart dz, presence of mechanical valve, advanced dilated cardiomyopathy, patent foramen ovale or AsD
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94
Q

Hymenoptera

A
  • order of insects that cause the most insect stings
  • includes:
    1. Wasps
    2. Yellow-jackets
    3. Hornets
    4. Honeybees
    5. Bumblebees
    6. Fire ants
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95
Q

4 Most common causes of conjunctivitis?

A
  1. bacterial
  2. viral
  3. allergy
  4. chemical irritants
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96
Q

How is screening for osteoporosis done?

A
  • with a DXA scan = dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
  • this is the best predictor of a hip fracture
  • measurement is compared to that of young adults –> result reported as a T score
  • osteoporosis = at or below 2.5 SD less than than that of the young adults
  • osteopenia = at or below 1.0-2.5 SD less
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97
Q

IBS dx

A
  • in absence of structural or biochemical explanation (or “alarm features”) of sx and the Rome Criteria a pt can be dx
  • avoid expensive and unnecessary tests when possible
  • a CBC and stool Hemoccult test should be done!
  • a colonoscopy should be done in any pt > 50 yrs old!
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98
Q

Nephrotic

A

-proteinuria

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99
Q

What is the most common cause of epidemic keratoconjunctivitis? Tx?

A
  • adenovirus
  • highly contagious
  • tx:
    1. sulfonamide tx to prevent secondary infections
    2. Hot compress to reduce discomfort
    3. Weak topical steroids to tx corneal infiltrates
  • usually lasts 2 wks
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100
Q

Once HIV is dx, what should be done before tx?

A
  • report to local health authorities –> partner notification laws vary by state
  • HIV genotype testing –> to ID strains that may be resistant to tx
  • determine HIV RNA levels to help assess the disease activity
  • measure CD4 lymphocyte counts
  • CBC, metabolic panel, & urinalysis
  • screening for other STDs
  • PPD
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101
Q

Ssx of vertebrobasilar strokes?

A
  1. Motor or sensory loss of ALL 4 limbs
  2. Crossed signs
  3. Disconjugate gaze
  4. Nystagmus
  5. Dysarthria
  6. Dysphagia
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102
Q

Local rxns of insect stings: ssx? When do they occur? Tx?

A
  • ssx: redness, swelling, pain, & itching
  • occur almost immediately, last for a few hrs
  • caused by histamine release in response to the venom
  • tx: ice and anti-histamine ps for itching
  • also give TETANUS prophylaxis
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103
Q

What can happen with chronic use of nasal decongestants?

A

-rebound hyperemia and worsening of sx

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104
Q

When is ragweed present?

A

-late summer and early fall

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105
Q

Diarrhea in travler’s to Mexico

A

-caused by enterotoxigenic E. coli

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106
Q

What can be the cause of diarrhea if the stool was found to have leukocytes present in it?

A
  1. Salmonella
  2. Shigella
  3. Yersinia
  4. E. colic
  5. C. Diff
  6. Campylobacter
  7. Entamoeba histolytica
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107
Q

4 Common bacteria involved in cat and dog bites?

A
  1. Staphylococci
  2. Streptococci
  3. Anaerobic species
  4. Pasturella species
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108
Q

Status asthmaticus

A

-an airway obstruction that lasts for days or weeks and is refractory to tx

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109
Q

Dx of diarrhea?

A
  • most patients dont need work up bc disease is self limiting
  • exceptions:
    1. Fever > 100.4 *F
    2. Bloody diarrhea
    3. Severe abdominal pain
    4. Profuse diarrhea
    5. Dehydration
    6. > 48 hrs
    7. Kids, elderly, Immunoincomp pts
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110
Q

Perfect use effectiveness (w/contraceptives)

A

-efficacy of a method when always used correctly, consistent and reliable use occur

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111
Q

When should follow-up visits for pregnancy take place?

A
  • first every 4 weeks until 28 weeks
  • then every 2 weeks until 36 weeks
  • then every week from 36 wks til birth
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112
Q

Acral lentiginous melanoma: where is it commonly found? Who is it most common in?

A
  • most common melanoma in African Americans and Asians

- commonly found under nails, on the soles of feet, and on palms of the hands

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113
Q

Trichomonas: ssx?

A
  • copious amnts of thin, frothy, green-yellow or grey malidorous vaginal discharge
  • vaginal soreness or dyspareunia
  • sx start, or are exacerbated during the time of their menses
  • cervix will be “strawberry red”
  • motile trichomonads seen on wet prep
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114
Q

Postpartum depression: what is it? Ssx? Tx?

A
  • sx are the same as major depression
  • occur within 4 wks postpartum and can be seen up to 1 year later
  • severity can range from mild to sever and suicidal
  • high rate of recurrence in subsequent pregnancies
  • SSRIs = first line tx
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115
Q

Vertical transmission

A

-infectious passage of infection from mom to fetus whether in utero, during labor and delivery, or post partum

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116
Q

Strategy to enhance motivation to quit smoking (5 Rs)?

A
  1. Discuss specific Relevance to quit smoking
  2. Risks of ongoing use
  3. Rewards to quitting
  4. Roadblocks to quitting
  5. Repetition = bring it up at each visit
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117
Q

How many times a week should short-acting beta-agonists be used?

A

-no more than 2 times a week, or the asthma is considered to be poorly controlled

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118
Q

What does the triple screen test for?

A
  1. hCG
  2. Unconjugated estriol
  3. Alpha-fetoprotein
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119
Q

Uterine atony

A
  • most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage
  • failure of the uterus to contract adequately
  • results in continued bleeding from the uterine vasculature
  • risks:
    1. Prolonged labor
    2. Prolonged use of oxytocin during labor
    3. Large baby
    4. Grand multipara (5 or more previous children)
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120
Q

Dosage of nicotine nasal sprays?

A
  • each spray provides 0.5mg of nicotine

- should start by using 1-2 sprays per hour with maximum of 40 doses per day

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121
Q

Most common cause of pharyngitis?

A

-viral

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122
Q

When do most women resume sexual activity after giving birth?

A

-by 3 mnths postpartum

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123
Q

Isoimmunization

A
  • development of specific antibodies as a result of antigenic stimulation by material from the rbcs of another individual
  • ex w/ Rh positive fetus and Rh negative moms
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124
Q

What baseline heart rate is considered normal for a fetus during delievry?

A
  • 110-160 bpm
  • less than 110 = bradycardia
  • greater than 160 = tachycardia
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125
Q

When can a child stop using a booster seat in the car?

A

-when they are tall enough to sit with their back to the seat and their legs bent at the knees over the front of the seat (usually 4’9” and btwn ages 8-12).

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126
Q

What does actinic keratosis raise the risk for?

A

-squamous cell carcinomas

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127
Q

Sx of alcohol withdrawal (7)?

A
  1. Tremulousness
  2. Insomnia
  3. Anxiety
  4. Depressed mood
  5. GI upset
  6. Heart palpitations
  7. Sweating
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128
Q

RERA

A

-respiratory effort-related arousals

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129
Q

Lochia

A
  • yellow-white discharge, consisting of blood cells, decidual cells, and fibrinous products
  • usually occurs for 3-6 weeks following delivery
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130
Q

Failure rate of Rhythm method?

A

-14-47%

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131
Q

Common sx of acute bronchitis (10)?

A
  1. cough with purulent sputum production –> MOST COMMON
  2. Fever
  3. Malaise
  4. Rhinorrhea or nasal congestion
  5. Sore throat
  6. Wheezing
  7. Dyspnea
  8. Chest pain
  9. Myaligias
  10. Arthralgias
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132
Q

4 Signs that can confirm the rupture of membranes (“water broke”)?

A
  1. Visualization of amniotic fluid leaking from the cervix
  2. Presence of pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix
  3. pH above 6.5 in fluid collected from the vagina (usually vaginal secretions have a pH less than 5.5), using Nitrazine paper, or visualization of “ferning” on a sample of fluid on an air-dried microscope slide
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133
Q

What meds can reduce the effectiveness of OCPs?

A
  1. Some antibiotics
  2. Barbiturates
  3. Antifungal medications
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134
Q

What is considered a long QT interval?

A
  • > 470 msec in men
  • > 480 msec in women
  • ANY pt with an interval > 500 msec is at increased risk for dangerous dysrhythmias!
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135
Q

Possible complications of OM?

A
  1. Mastoiditis
  2. Bacterial meningitis
  3. Brain abscess
  4. Subdural empyema
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136
Q

Tx of choice for pneumonia in a healthy pt?

A
  • macrolide (clarithromycin or azithromycin)

- doxycycline

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137
Q

What should be checked in an eye exam of every newborn?

A
  • red reflexes

- can mean congenital cataracts or retinoblastoma

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138
Q

What are 2 common side effects of narcotics?

A
  1. Constipation

2. Sedation

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139
Q

What finding on a physical exam is most suggestive of obstructive sleep apnea?

A

-obesity

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140
Q

Common ssx of mitral valve prolapse?

A
  1. Palpitations
  2. Fatigue
  3. Chest discomfort
  4. Dyspnea
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141
Q

Active phase of labor

A
  • part of the first stage of labor
  • starts at 3-4cm of cervical dilation, rate of cervical dilation is at its maximum
  • contractions are strong and regular
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142
Q

Early deceleration

A
  • coincides with a contraction, fetal heart rate declines and then returns to the baseline
  • thought to be the result of increased vagal tone caused by compression of the fetal head by the contractions –> not associated with fetal hypoxia or acidemia
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143
Q

What are 4 features of benign skin lesions?

A
  1. < 6 mm
  2. Symmetric
  3. Uniform in color
  4. Well-defined borders
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144
Q

Depo-provera: what is it? How long does it last? Sfx?

A
  • injectable form of progestin = medroxyprogesterone
  • lasts for 14 wks, injected every 3 mnths
  • sfx: irregular menses, weight gain, facial/body hair growth
  • *most women develop amenorrhea after a year of use
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145
Q

4 Steps in management of CHF?

A
  1. Supplemental oxygen w/ checking ABCs
  2. Loop diuretic - furosemide is drug of choice
  3. Nitrates = to reduce oxygen demand, by reducing preload and afterload
  4. Morphine = venodilator, arterial dilator, and analgesic effects
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146
Q

What are the 4 cardinal movements of the fetal head as it descends through the birth canal?

A
  1. Flexion = fetal chin to the chest
  2. Internal rotation = fetal occiput moves anteriorly toward the maternal symphysis pubis
  3. Extension = as the head approaches the vulva
  4. External rotation = to face either the maternal right or left side
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147
Q

Pregnancy category C

A

-animal studies have shown adverse fetal effects and there are no adequate studies in humans OR no animal studies have been conducted and there are not adequate studies in humans

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148
Q

Alcohol dependence

A

-mental and physical need to consume alcohol in order to prevent the pains of withdrawl and obtain certain results, and associated with in increasing consumption to obtain the same effect

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149
Q

Neonatal benefits of breast-feeding

A
  1. Ideal nutrition
  2. Increased resistance to infection
  3. Reduced risk of GI difficulties
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150
Q

Smoking during pregnancy can cause (5)?

A
  1. Prematurity
  2. Interuterine growth restriction
  3. Stillbirth
  4. Spontaneous abortion
  5. Infant death
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151
Q

Strabiusmus

A

-ocular misalignment

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152
Q

What are the 2 nonnicotine medications that can be used for smoking cessation?

A
  1. Bupropion = zyban

2. Varenicline = chantix

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153
Q

3 most common causes of acute bacterial sinusitis in children?

A
  1. S. pneumoniae
  2. H. Influenzae
  3. Morzxella catarrhalis
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154
Q

When should a 12-lead EKG be done on a pt presenting with palpitations?

A
  • always!!

- even if they are symptom free at the time of the exam

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155
Q

Trichomonas: tx?

A
  • oral metronidazole to BOTH partners

* * also make sure to screen for other STDs

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156
Q

Tx for pt with v-tachy who is stable? Unstable? Allergic to iodine?

A
  • stable = amioderone
  • unstable = electrically cardioverted
  • allergic to iodine = lidocaine
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157
Q

What is the onset of action, time to peak, and how long do short-acting beta-agonists last?

A
  • onset in 5 min or less
  • peak in 30-60 min
  • last 4-6 hrs
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158
Q

What do “minipills” contain?

A

-only progestrin

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159
Q

What labs are recommended at initial prenatal visit?

A
  1. CBC
  2. Hep B surface antigen
  3. HIV testing
  4. Syphyllis screening
  5. Urinalysis
  6. Urine culture
  7. Rubella antibody
  8. Blood type and Rh status w/antibody screen
  9. Pap smear
  10. Cervical swab for gonorrhea and chlamydia
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160
Q

What is the failure rate for the minipill? For combination OCPs?

A
  • minipill = 1-3%

- combination = 1-2%

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161
Q

What does Atypical pneumonia usually look like on xray?

A

-bilateral, diffuse infiltrates (rather than focal)

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162
Q

Gonorrhea: tx?

A
  • ceftriaxone IM

- empiric tx should be considered in areas of high prevalence of infection or when follow-up is unlikely

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163
Q

Risk factors for endometrial carcinoma

A
  1. Hx of anovulatiry menstrual cycles
  2. Obesity
  3. Nuliparity
  4. > age 35
  5. Use of tamoxifen or unopposed exogenous estrogen
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164
Q

What test should be done if a pheo is suspected?

A

-24 hr urine collection for catecholamines and metanephrines

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165
Q

What are the two long-acting beta agonists? When are they used?

A
  1. Salmeterol = serevent
  2. Formoterol = foradil
    - act for more than 12 hrs
    - can be used with SABAs
    * *should NEVER be used as monotx
    - consider increasing dose of ICS before adding a LABA
    - increase in sever exacerbations and deaths with use of LABAs
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166
Q

Dosing for nicotine gum?

A
  • 2mg pieces for pts who smoke less than 25 cigarettes a day

- 4mg pieces for pts who smoke more than 25 cigarettes a day

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167
Q

6 Common causes of menorrhagia:

A
  • bc the bleeding is regular it means that ovulation is occur and that the endocrine pthwys are intact
    1. Leiomyomata = fibroids (common cause) –> cause an increased endometrial surface area = increased menstrual bleeding
    2. Endometrial polyps (similar mechanism to ^^)
    3. Coagulopathy –> most commonly von Willebrands
    4. Medications –> ex warfarin
    5. Liver dz
    6. Thrombocytopenia
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168
Q

Bupropion: MOA

A

-blocks uptake of norepi and/or dopamine

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169
Q

What are the 6 etiologies of palpitations (in order of most to least common)?

A
  1. Primary rhythm disturbance
  2. Underlying mental health problem - anxiety or panic disorder
  3. No identifiable cause
  4. Drugs/meds
  5. Noncardiac cause
  6. Intrinsic structural problem with heart
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170
Q

How does pneumonia caused by pneumocystis jiroveci usually look on xray? Who commonly gets this kind of pneumonia?

A
  • bilateral, “ground glass” appearing infiltrate

- commonly seen in AIDS pts

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171
Q

What is the leading cause of death in children < 1 yr old? What can be done to reduce these risks?

A
  • SIDS

- risk reducers: “back to sleep”, sleeping on a firm mattress, nothing else in the crib

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172
Q

Apnea hypopnea index (AHI)

A

-number of apneas and hypopneas per hour of sleep

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173
Q

Tx of substance-induced depression?

A
  • antidepressant meds can be ineffective and even harmful

- refer to substance abuse tx first and then reassess depression 1 month postabstinence

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174
Q

Cyst

A

-closed saclike, membranous capsule containing a liquid or semisolid material

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175
Q

What is the most prognostic factor in melanoma?

A
  • the thickness of the tumor

- less than 1-mm thick = low rate of metastasis

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176
Q

Legg-Calve-perthes (LCP) disease: what is it? Who is it seen in? Ssx? Dx? Tx?

A
  • avascular necrosis of the femoral head
  • typically seen in kids age 4-8
  • boys > girls
  • etiology of the disruption of blood flow is unknown
  • ssx: gradual onset of hip, thigh, or knee pain, and limping over a few months
  • dx: xray may appear normal at first, then see collapsed, flattened, and widened femoral head
  • tx: conservative, protect the joint and maintain ROM
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177
Q

Contraindications to breast feeding?

A
  1. HIV infection bc of vertical transmission
  2. Acute & active hep B (chronic hep B & C can breastfeed)
  3. Previous Breast-reduction surgery with nipple transplantation
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178
Q

When shoukd emergency treatment for asthma be considered?

A
  1. Peak flow < 40% of the predicted normal
  2. Failure to respond to beta agonist
  3. Severe wheezing or coughing
  4. Extreme anxiety due to breathlessness
  5. Gasping for air, sweaty, cyanotic
  6. Rapid deterioration over a few hours
  7. Severe retractions and nasal flaring
  8. Hunched forward
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179
Q

What are standard drink measurements for: beer? Wine? Shot?

A
  • beer = 12 oz
  • wine = 5 oz
  • shot = 1.5 oz
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180
Q

Transient synovitis

A
  • self- limited inflammatory response that often follows a viral infection
  • common cause of hip pain in children
  • occurs typically in kids ages 3-10
  • boys > girls
  • sx: gradually increasing hip pain that results in a limp or refusal to walk, low grade fever or no fever, normal WBC count, and normal ESR
    • if not better in a few days, consider septic joint
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181
Q

OCP use in non-breastfeeding women?

A
  • wait 3 weeks postpartum, risk of thromboembolic dz if start earlier
  • use combines OCPs
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182
Q

When and how should women be tested for gestational DM? What is considered positive? What should be done with a pt that tests positive?

A
  • at 24-28 weeks
  • w/ 1hr 50g glucose challenge test, a value >135 mg is abnormal, >200 mg is diagnostic
  • positive 1hr –> do fasting 3 hr challenge test
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183
Q

2 most common antibiotics used for acute sinusitis?

A
  1. Amoxicillin
  2. Trimethroprim-sulfamethoxazole
    * *usually 10-14 day prescriptions
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184
Q

Contraindications to ACEi?

A
  1. Pregnancy
  2. Hypotension
  3. Hyperkalemia
  4. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
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185
Q

Intermittent asthma

A
  • symptoms of asthma that occur less than 2 times a week
  • nocturnal awakenings that occur less than 2 times a month
  • need for oral corticosteroids less than 2 times a year
  • no limitations in normal activities
  • spirometry is normal btwn exacerbations
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186
Q

Monoamine oxidate inhibitors: MOA

A

-increase the amnts of serotonin and norepi to be released during nerve stimulation

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187
Q

What lab tests should be done to rule out noncardiac causes of palpitations?

A
  1. CBC
  2. Chemistry panel
  3. TSH
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188
Q

How many rads until a fetus is at risk from radiation exposure?

A

-greater than 5 rads

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189
Q

What is an acceleration in the fetal heart rate? What can it be in response to? What does it mean?

A
  • increase in the fetal heart rate of 15 bpm or more for 15 sec or longer
  • this is a reassuring finding
  • can occur spontaneously or in response to a contraction
  • ensures that the fetal arterial pH is greater than 7.2
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190
Q

What is the most common mechanism that triggers pneumonia?

A

-upper airway colonization by pathogenic organisms that are aspirated

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191
Q

Which 2 newborn screening tests are required by ALL states?

A
  1. PKU

2. Congenital hypothyroidism

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192
Q

Bacterial vaginosis: definition

A

-excessive anaerobic bacteria in the vagina that leads to a discharge that is alkaline

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193
Q

Severe sx of chronic alcohol use withdrawal?

A
  1. Tonic-clonic seizures w/in 6-48 hrs
  2. Hallucinations w/in 12-48 hrs
  3. Delerium tremens w/in 48-72 hrs
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194
Q

Sore throat with rhinorrhea and cough is most likely to be?

A

-more likely to be viral

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195
Q

What are the 3 short-acting beta-agonists that are used for tx of asthma?

A
  1. Albuterol
  2. Levalbuterol = xopenex
  3. Pirbuterol = maxair
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196
Q

Plaque

A

-a small plateaulike, raised, solid area on the skin that covers a large surface area in relation to its height above the skin

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197
Q

What position do children with a septic hip joint usually assume?

A

-laying with their hip flexed, abducted, and externally rotated

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198
Q

Diaphragm: use? Failure rate?

A
  • use: flexible rubber disk that is inserted to cover the cervix, must use spermicide too, & must be properly fitted by a dr
  • must be left in for at least 6hrs after intercourse
  • failure: 6-18%
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199
Q

What are the top 2 leading causes of death in children over the age of 1?

A
  1. Accidents

2. Injuries

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200
Q

In which asthmatic patients can anticholinergic bronchodilators be used?

A
  • such as ipratroprium = atrovent
  • can be used in combination with a SABA for tx of severe asthmatic attacks or those induced by beta blockers in the urgent care setting
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201
Q

GAS causes what percentage of pharyngitis in adults? Kids?

A
  • 15% in adults

- 30% in kids

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202
Q

Chlamydia: tx?

A
  • doxycycline orally for a week or one dose of azithromycin orally when compliance is a concern
  • empiric tx should be considered in areas of high prevalence of infection or when follow-up is unlikely
  • tx other partner too!
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203
Q

Macule

A

-discoloration on the skin that is neither raised nor depressed

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204
Q

What is the gold standard for dx of GAS pharyngitis infections?

A
  • throat cultures
  • they take 24-48 hrs
    • can do rapid antigen test in the office, it has high specificity, but low sensitivity
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205
Q

SCFE: tx? Prognosis?

A
  • tx:surgical w/ pinning

- prognosis: follow closely bc 1/3 develop avascular necrosis and 1/3 develop SCFE on contralateral side

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206
Q

Nodule

A

-small mass of rounded or irregular shape that is greater than. 1.0 cm in diameter

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207
Q

How can beta-blockers be used for palpitations?

A
  • they can be used for sx that are short lived or episodic

- act as short-acting negative chronotrophs

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208
Q

Labor: when does it usually occur? What is preterm? What is posterm?

A
  • labor begins spontaneously and occurs normally within 2 wks of the estimated date of confinement (= 280 days after the first day of the last menstrual period)
  • preterm = onset of labor more than 3 wks before the estimated date of confinement (EDC)
  • postterm = labor that does not spontaneously start by 2 weeks after the EDC
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209
Q

What sx does legionella commonly cause with pneumonia?

A

-diarrhea

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210
Q

What is the gold standard for pneumonia diagnosis?

A

-infiltrated on chest xray

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211
Q

What is the most important risk factor for the development of skin cancer?

A

-exposure to UV radiation

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212
Q

Trisomy screen: when is the optimal time? When can the screen be done?

A
  • optimal = 16-18 weeks gestation

- can be done = 15-20 wks

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213
Q

Otitis externa tx?

A
  1. Irrigation
  2. Topical antibiotics
  3. Steroids
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214
Q

Which polio vaccination is used today?

A

-inactivated, injected vaccine (rather than the oral one)

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215
Q

Can vaccines be given to a child with a minor illness? With a low-grade fever?

A
  • yes and yes!

- so acute illness visits can be used to update immunizations too!

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216
Q

Failure to thrive

A
  • weight below the third or fifth percentile for age
  • OR decelerations of growth that have crossed 2 major growth percentiles in a short period of time
  • significant loss or gain of weight should be investigated
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217
Q

Dosage of nicotine cartridge inhalers?

A
  • one cartridge has 4mg of nicotine in 80 inhalations

- recommended dose is 6-16 cartridges per day

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218
Q

What should routinely be addressed at well-child visits?

A
  1. Injury prevention
  2. Nutrition
  3. Development
  4. Discipline
  5. Exercise
  6. Mental health issues
  7. Need for ongoing care - ex vaccines, etc.
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219
Q

How long does breast feeding provide natural contraception?

A
  • 6 mnths postpartum

- after 6 mnths menses restarts & alternative contraception is needed

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220
Q

Dysthymic disorder

A

-chronic depression of mood which does not meet the criteria for major depression, in terms of either severity or duration of individual episodes, yet the patient still has loss of interest, lack of appetite or pleasure, and low energy

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221
Q

Palpitations association with what are pathologic?

A
  • palpitations associated with syncope

- consider hospitalizations

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222
Q

Which types of condoms are effective against preventing STDs?

A

-of the 3 types (latex, rubber, or natural skin) ONLY latex condoms are highly effective in preventing STDs

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223
Q

When is the MMR vaccination recommended?

A

-at 12-15mnths and 4-6 yrs

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224
Q

Pregnancy category B

A

-animal studies have shown no harm to fetus, but human studies are not available OR animal studies have shown harm to fetus, but studies in pregnant women have not shown harm

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225
Q

Long QT syndrome: ssx?

A
  • palpitations and/or syncope

- have family hx of syncope or sudden death

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226
Q

Papule

A

-small circumscribed ELEVATED lesion of the skin that is less than 0.5cm in diameter

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227
Q

What are two leukotriene receptor antagonists? When are they used?

A
  1. Montelukast = singulair
  2. Zafirlukast = accolate
    - use in ots who are unwilling or unable to use inhaled corticosteroids
    - can be used in mild persistent asthma
    - indicated in exercise-induced asthma
    * *tx of choice for aspirin-sensitive asthma!
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228
Q

Otitis media: causes (3)?

A
  • caused by upper respiratory tract pathogens, promoted by obstruction to drainage via swelling of congestion of eustachian tubes
    1. S. pneumo
    2. H. Influenzae
    3. M. Catarrhalis
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229
Q

What pregnancy category are buproprion and varenicline?

A

-C

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230
Q

Second stage of labor: what is it? How long does it last in a nulliparous and parous woman?

A
  • from complete cervical dilation (10 cm) through the delivery of the fetus
  • normally lasts less than 2 hrs in a nulliparous woman and less than 1 hr in a parous patient
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231
Q

Valvovaginal candidiasis: ssx?

A
  • present with thick, whitish discharge that has no odor
  • significant puritus of the external and internal genitalia
  • vaginal area is edematous and erythema is often present
  • discharge pH is 4.0-5.0
  • pseudohyphae or budding yeast are seen on KOH prep
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232
Q

Respiratory disturbance index (RDI)

A

-number of apneas, hypopneas, and respiratory effort-related arousals (RERAs) per hour of sleep

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233
Q

Complications of pneumonia (3)?

A
  1. Bacteremia
  2. Pleural effusions
  3. Empyema
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234
Q

Maternal benefits of breast feeding?

A
  1. More rapid return of uterine tone w/ reduced bleeding and a quicker return nonpregnant size
  2. More rapid return to pre-pregnancy body weight
  3. Reduced incidence of ovarian and breast cancer
  4. Connivence of always having food supply
  5. Lower cost
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235
Q

What are 3 reasons to get a chest x-ray on a pt that is acutely ill with a cough?

A
  1. Dullness to percussion
  2. History of fever
  3. Clinical suspicion
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236
Q

Emergency contraception

A
  • if combined high dose oral contraceptives are taken within 72hrs of unprotected intercourse, risk of pregnancy is 74%
  • *only RU-486 is effective after 72 hrs!
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237
Q

Sx of bacterial rhinosinusitis?

A
  1. 7 days of sx in adults and 10 days of sx in children
  2. Purulent nasal discharge
  3. Maxillary tooth or facial pain
  4. Unilateral maxillary sinus tenderness
  5. Worsening of sx after initial improvement
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238
Q

What are the 3 “Ps” in the progress of labor?

A
  1. Power = strength of contractions and mom’s pushing, contraction strength can be measured
  2. Passenger = fetus, its size, lie, presentation, and position in the birth canal
  3. Pelvis = shape and size of the pelvis can result in a delay or failure of descent of the fetus bc of the relative disproportion btwn the fetal and pelvic size
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239
Q

What is the first line tx in pts w/ CHF and reduced left ventricular function?

A
  • ACEi = reduce preload, reduce afterload, improve CO, and inhibit-RAS
  • reduce sx & mortality
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240
Q

Common complications of breast feeding?

A
  1. Sore or cracked nipples
  2. Mastitis = obstruction of milk glands, sometimes secondarily infected w/ bacteria
    - tx = continues feeding or pumping + oral antibiotics (cephalexin or dicloxacillin) –> dont discontinue nursing!!
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241
Q

Fetal lie

A
  • the relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother
  • either longitudinal or transverse
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242
Q

What are the 5 As?

A
  1. Ask
  2. Advise - tell pt about their specific risks
  3. Assess
  4. Assist
  5. Arrange - follow-up and support
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243
Q

Vesicle

A

-small blister less than 0.5 cm

244
Q

Late deceleration

A
  • gradual reduction in the fetal heart rate that starts at or after the peak of contraction and has a gradual return to the baseline
  • the result of uteroplacental insufficiency
  • can be caused by:
    1. Maternal hypotension = (most common) can be caused by epidural and oxytocin use
    2. Conditions that impair placental circulation = maternal hypertension, DM, prolonged pregnancy, placental abruption
245
Q

Which drugs/meds can cause palpitations?

A
  1. Alcohol
  2. Caffeine
  3. Street drugs (esp cocaine)
  4. Tobacco
  5. Decongestants –> often in otc and herbal weight loss drugs
  6. Diuretics –> cause electrolyte disturbances
  7. Digoxin
  8. Beta agonists (ex albuterol)
  9. Theophylline
246
Q

Pregnancy category D

A

-human studies have shown potential adverse fetal effects, however the benefits of therapy outweight the potential risks

247
Q

Nedocromil: MOA? Use? Sfx?

A
  • stabilizes the mast cells and interferes with chloride channel fctn
  • can be used for tx of mild persistent asthma
  • have few side effects, but must be used multiple times per day
248
Q

Tx of insulin resistance in PCOS?

A

-metformin and thiazolidinediones

249
Q

Superficial spreading melanoma: what is it? How does it grow? Common sites?

A
  • most common type of melanoma in both men and women
  • spreads superficially along the top layers of skin before penetrating into deep layers
  • superficial spreading is slower than the vertical spreading –> can invade dermis and metastasize
  • men more commonly affected on upper toso
  • women are more commonly affected on legs
250
Q

When is the varicella vaccination recommended?

A

-ages 12-15 mnths and 4-6 yrs

251
Q

What should be done before a cardioversion and why?

A
  • TEE

- to look for thrombus that might dislodge with cardioversion

252
Q

4 Ts of postpartum hemorrhage (causes)?

A
  1. Tone = uterine atony
  2. Trauma = cervical, vaginal, or perineal lacerations; uterine inversion
  3. Tissue = retained placenta or membranes
  4. Thrombin = coagulopathies
253
Q

Metrorrhagia

A

-bleeding that occurs at irregular intervals

254
Q

What is considered “moderate” drinking?

A
  • men = 2 or less drinks per day
  • women = 1 or less drinks per day
  • over 65yrs = less than one drink per day
255
Q

IUD: sfx?

A
  • short term sfx, esp at time of insertion
    1. Bleeding
    2. Cramps
    3. Backache
    4. Dizziness
    5. Longer/heavier periods at first
256
Q

Symptoms of depression (9)?

A
  • dx need at least 5 out of the 9, and they must occur during the same 2-week time period
    1. Depressed mood
    2. Diminished interest or pleasure
    3. Significant weight loss or weight gain
    4. Insomnia or hypersomnia
    5. Psychomotor agitation or retardation
    6. Fatigue or loss of energy
    7. Feeling of worthlessness
    8. Diminished ability to think or concentrate; indecisiveness
    9. Recurrent thoughts of death, suicidal ideation, suicide attempt, or specific plan
257
Q

Intravaginal ring contraceptive: what is it? Use? Sfx?

A
  • NuvaRing = flexible transparent ring that delivers etonogestrel and ethinyl estradiol
  • woman inserts the ring herself and wears it for 3 weeks, removes it and discards it
  • week off = withdrawal bleeding + insertion of new ring
  • sfx = similar to OCPs
258
Q

Vulvovaginal candidiasis: tx?

A
  • short-term intravaginal preparations

- or single dose oral therapies of fluconazole

259
Q

Mucopurulent cervicitis: characterizations

A
  • characterized by purulent or mucopurulent discharge from the endocervix
  • can be associated with vaginal discharge and/or cervical bleeding
260
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants: MOA

A

-affect the reuptake of both norepi and serotonin

261
Q

When do l

Early postpartum hemorrhages occur? Late?

A
  • early = within 24hrs

- late = btwn 24hrs and 6 wks after delivery

262
Q

When should a child be drinking whole cows milk?

A
  • whole milk from age 12mnths-2yrs old

- then switch to reduced fat milk

263
Q

Abscess

A

-closed pocket containing pus

264
Q

Yuzpe method?

A
  • method of emergency contraception

- take combined OCPs

265
Q

Failure rates of male condoms?

A

-15%, which is usually due to improper use

266
Q

Ulcer

A

-lesion through the skin or mucous membrane resulting from loss of tissue

267
Q

What is the most common cause of ventricular arrhythmias?

A

-ischemia

268
Q

MAOi: sfx

A
  • serotonin syndrome w/ hypertensive crisis, need to be on reduced tyramine-diet to avoid this, can be fatal!
  • interact with many other medications, including SSRIs and meperidine (demerol)
269
Q

What is the tx goal for afib? What meds are used?

A
  • want to keep ventricular rate below 100 bpm
  • can use either Bbs or CCBs
  • **usually require anticoagulation with warfarin too!
270
Q

ABCD acronym for skin lesions?

A
  • A = asymmetry is more likely malignant
  • B = borders - ragged or blurred are more likely malignant
  • C = color - nonuniform color is more likely malignant
  • D = diameter - > 6cm is more likely malignant
  • E = elevation - raised surface is more likely malignant
271
Q

Operative vaginal deliveries: when can the be performed? How?

A
  • only when the cervix is completely dilated, membranes are ruptured, the presenting part is the vertex of the scalp, and there is no disproportion btwn the size of the fetal head and the maternal pelvis
  • can be done with either forceps or vacuum assistance
272
Q

What type of oral contraceptive should be used in a breast-feeding woman?

A

-progestin only “minipill” –> a combined hormonal contraceptive can interfere with milk supply

273
Q

What are the features of benign PVCs and who are they commonly seen in?

A
  • occur at rest and disappear with exercise

- commonly seen in athletes

274
Q

3 causes of atypical pneumonia?

A
  1. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  2. Chlamydia pneumonia
  3. Legionella pneumophillia
275
Q

Bipolar: dx

A
  • manic episodes that last longer than 1 week that come on abruptly, not continuous
  • single episode of mania is sufficient for the dx of bipolar disorder
276
Q

Otitis media: ssx!

A
  1. Red TM

2. Decreased membrane mobility or fluid behind the TM –> necessary for dx!

277
Q

Dx of obstructive sleep apnea

A
  • AHI or RDI > or = to 15 per hour (at least 15 obstructive events per hour), with or without sx
  • severe: > 30 per hr
  • moderate: 15-30 per hr
  • mild: 5-15 per hr
278
Q

Bipolar: tx

A
  • mood stabilizers:
    1. Valproate
    2. Carbamazepine
    3. Lithium
  • *use of antidepressants can precipitate acute manic behaviors
279
Q

How can digoxin be used with arrythmias?

A

-can slow down rapid ventricular rhythms that occur with a fib and flutter

280
Q

What do you do for contractions that are inadequate in frequency or power? What negative effect can it cause?

A
  • can be augmented with an oxytocic agent
  • IV oxytocin is the drug of choice
  • can cause uterine hyperstimulation = 6 or more contractions in a 10-min period that cause abnormalities in the fetal heart rate –> reduce or take off the oxytocin, reposition the patient, and give oxygen via face mask!
281
Q

Failure rate of sterilization (male & female)

A
  • <1 %

- sterilization should be considered irreversible!

282
Q

Most common causes of otitis external (3)?

A
  1. Staphylococci
  2. Streptococci
  3. Pseudo = swimmers ear
283
Q

What are 3 most common cause of fetal tachy?

A
  1. Maternal fever –> most common!
  2. Medications
  3. Fetal arrhythmias
284
Q

What is the Barlow test?

A
  • with the child’s hip and knee flexed at 90*, hold the knee and attempt to displace the thigh posteriorly
  • assesses for congenital hip deformities
285
Q

Most common cause of acute bronchitis? Tx?

A
  • viral –> so antibiotics are not helpful

- bronchodilator tx (ex albuterol) & antitussive agents

286
Q

What is Naegele’s rule for determining the delivery date?

A

-take the first day of the last menstrual period, subtract 3 months, add 7 days

287
Q

2 most common bacteria that cause acute bacterial sinusitis in adults?

A
  1. S. pneumoniae

2. H. Influenzae

288
Q

Trichomoniasis: 3 things that can predispose to infection?

A
  1. Multiple sexual partners
  2. Pregnancy
  3. Menopause
289
Q

Trichomonas vaginitis: definition

A
  • infection of the vagina caused by the protozoa trichomonas vaginalis
  • usually associated with a frothy green discharge and intense inflammatory response
290
Q

Contraindications for IUDs (6)?

A
  1. Current or recent endometritis
  2. PID
  3. STD
  4. Pregnancy
  5. Anatomically distorted uterine cavity
  6. Suspected or known HIV
    * *also, not ideal for multiple partners
291
Q

Brugada syndrome: how does it present on EKG? What can it cause?

A
  • can present as ST-segment elevation in leads v1-v3

- can cause dangerous arrhythmias that can cause death

292
Q

What is a common leg fracture seen in toddlers?

A
  • spiral fractures of tibia –> from twisting on a planted foot
  • spiral fractures of other long bones (ex. Femur or humerus) are suspicious for child abuse
293
Q

Bacterial vaginosis: tx?

A
  • oral and topical vaginal preparations of metronidazole or clindamycin
  • dont need to tx partner
294
Q

First stage of labor

A
  • from onset of labor until the cervix is completely dilated
  • can be divided into:
    1. Latent phase
    2. Active phase
295
Q

What pregnancy category are nicotine patches?

A

-C

296
Q

Which 3 toxic compounds increase a pts risk for developing skin cancer?

A
  1. Creosote
  2. Arsenic
  3. Radium
297
Q

Candida vulvovaginitis: definition

A
  • vaginal and/or vulvar infection caused by Candida species

- usually with discharge and inflammation

298
Q

What are common non-cardiac causes of palpitations (10)?

A
  1. Anemia
  2. Electrolyte disturbances
  3. Hyperthyroidism
  4. Hypothyroidism
  5. Hypoglycemia
  6. Hypovolemia
  7. Fever
  8. Pheo
  9. Pulmonary dz
  10. Vasovagal syncope
299
Q

Most common bacterial causes of community-aquired pneumonia (3)?

A
  1. Strep pneumonia
  2. H. Influenzae
  3. Moraxella catarrhalis
300
Q

Advanced maternal age?

A

-pregnant women who will be 35+ at the estimated delivery date

301
Q

What is the most common cause for a false positive serum in triple or quad screening? When are these tests usually done?

A
  • incorrect gestational age dating

- usually done at weeks 10-14 gestation

302
Q

“Maternity blues” or AKA “baby blues”

A
  • occurs in 30-70% of deliveries
  • develops within the first week after delivery and usually resolves by the 10th postpartum day
  • ssx: tearfulness, sadness, emotional lability
303
Q

Alcohol abuse

A
  • harmful use of alcohol which can be either physical or mental harm
  • abusers drink despite recurrent social, interpersonal, and legal problems as a result of alcohol use
304
Q

What is an antalgic gait?

A
  • occurs when the “stance” (weight-bearing) phase is shortened because of pain during weight bearing
  • the “stance” phase usually occupies 60% of the gain, while the “swing” (non-weight bearing) phase lasts for the rest
305
Q

5 components to an office-based intervention abut alcohol use? How long does it have to be?

A
  • 5-10 min is effective
    1. Establish rapport
    2. Ask permission to discuss alcohol use
    3. Provide feedback
    4. Assess readiness
    5. Enhance motivation, negotiate, and advise
306
Q

When should folic acid be started for prenatal health? What is the recommended dose?

A
  • should be taken starting at least 1 month prior to conception
  • low-risk women should be taking 400 micrograms daily
  • higher risk women (w/ DM or seizures) should take 1mg a day
  • highest risk women (w/ child w/ neural tube defect) should take 4 mg a day
307
Q

What should be kept in mind with a pt > 50 who presents with palpitations?

A

-consider coronary artery disease

308
Q

What age do kids start saying “mama” and “dada”?

A
  • start btwn ages 6-9mnths nonspecifically

- becomes specific btwn ages 8-12 mnths

309
Q

Fetal presentation

A

-the part of the fetus that is either foremost in the birth canal or in the closest proximity to the birth canal

310
Q

When should group B strep testing be offered to pregnant women?

A

-35-37wks via vaginorectal culture

311
Q

Who are oral contraceptives contraindicated in?

A

-women > 35 yrs old that smoke cigarrettes

312
Q

What is the AUDIT-C for? What are the questions? What is a positive screen?

A
  • screening for at-risk, hazardous, or harmful drinking
  • questions: points assigned for each answer (0-4)
    1. How often do you have a drink containing alcohol?
    2. How many drinks containing alcohol do you have on a typical day when you do drink?
    3. How often do you have more than 6 drinks on one occasion?
  • score of 3+ is positive
313
Q

When can a booster car seat start being used?

A
  • when the child is > 40 lbs

- need lap and shoulder seatbelt too

314
Q

What is the tx of choice for GAS pharyngitis?

A
  • penicillin

- cephalosporin and macrolides for pts allergic to penicillin

315
Q

What are 3 types of decelerations?

A
  1. Early
  2. Late
  3. Variable
316
Q

Anovulatory bleeding tx?

A
  • combined estrogen and progestin oral contraceptives or progestin alone
  • if no response, hysterectomy or endometrial ablative procedures can be done
317
Q

Latent phase of labor

A
  • part of the first stage of labor

- contractions become stronger, longer, and more coordinated

318
Q

Tx for painful diabetic neuropathy?

A

-gabapentin = anti-convulsant

319
Q

Antenatal testing

A

-procedure that attempts to identify whether the fetus is at risk for uteroplacental insufficiency and perinatal death

320
Q

When can IUDs be replaced postpartum?

A
  • at 6 wk postpartum visit

- earlier placement is associated with increased rate of exoulsion

321
Q

What ear condition are diabetics at risk for? Tx?

A
  • invasive otitis externa caused by pseudo

- tx = surgical debridement of necrotic tissue + 4-6 wks of IV antibiotics if cranial bones are involved

322
Q

What is the most common cancer over all?

A

-basal cell carcinoma

323
Q

Flu shots and pregnancy

A
  • women in their 3rd trimester should be offered the flu shot
  • safe for any stage of pre, if not allergic
324
Q

What is considered “at-risk” drinking?

A
  • men = > 14 drinks per week or more than 4 drinks per occasion
  • women = > 7 drinks per week or more than 3 drinks per occasion
325
Q

What dies hip pain usually present with?

A

-pain in the groin, thigh, or even the knee

326
Q

SSRIs: sfx?

A
  • sexual dysfunction
  • weight gain
  • GI disturbance
  • fatigue
  • agitation
327
Q

Cervical cap: use? Failure rate?

A
  • use: dome shaped rubber cap that fits over cervix, must be used with spermicide, & must be properly fitted
  • harder to insert than diaphragm, may be left in place for up to 48 hrs
  • failure: 18%
328
Q

When should OM be tx with antibiotics and which are the 1st choice?

A
  • tx when the infection is prolonged, recurrent, or severe
  • amoxicillin is the first choice
  • trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole or cephalosporins can be alternates
329
Q

Endometritis

A
  • polymicrobial infection of the endometrium of the uterus, usually caused by ascending infection from the vagina
  • can occur postpartum
330
Q

What are 4 causes of fetal bradycardia?

A
  1. Maternal hypothermia
  2. Certain medications given to the mother
  3. Congenital heart block
  4. Can be a sign of significant fetal distress
    * *usually anything bad that can happen to a fetus will cause a DECREASE in the fetal heart rate
331
Q

What are the expected rates of dilation in a woman without an epidural for a nulliparous woman and a parous woman?

A
  • nulliparous = 1.2 cm per hour

- parous = 1.5 cm per hour

332
Q

Shoulder dystocia

A
  • when the anterior shoulder will not readily pass below the pubic symphysis
  • this is an OBSTETRICAL EMERGENCY, it needs to be reduced via:
    1. Hyperflexion if the hips
    2. Suprapubic pressure
    3. Episiotomy
    4. Rotation of the fetal body in the vaginal canal
333
Q

What are patients with anxiety at high risk for developing?

A

-comorbid depression

334
Q

Spermicides: use? Failure rates?

A
  • use: should be inserted into vaginal within 1 hr of intercourse & should be repeated if intercourse is repeated
  • failure: 20-30% failure rates, but when used with condoms, failure rate decreases to that of OCPs
335
Q

What is the gold standard for CHF dx?

A
  • echocardiogram
  • can identify regional or global wall motion abnormalities, cardiomyopathy, ventricular or septal hypertrophy, and cardiac ejection fraction, etc.
336
Q

What does the quad screen test for?

A
  1. hCG
  2. Unconjugated estriol
  3. Alpha-fetoprotein
  4. Inhibin-A
337
Q

Mitral valve prolapse murmur?

A
  • mid systolic click + late systolic murmur

- most common valvular defect in the US

338
Q

Varicella and rubella vaccinations and pregnancy?

A
  • not advised during pregnancy

- rubella should be given to the infant after delivery if mom was nonimmune

339
Q

Bulla

A

-blister greater than 0.5 cm in diameter

340
Q

What 5 things do combination oral contraceptives offer protection against?

A
  1. Ovarian cancer
  2. Endometrial cancer
  3. Iron-deficiency anemia
  4. PID
  5. Fibrocystic breast disease
341
Q

What are 3 signs of more severe pneumonia?

A
  1. Tachycardia
  2. Hypotension
  3. Altered mental status
342
Q

What blood test can help determine if CHF is the cause of acute dyspnea?

A

-elevated BNP (>500)

343
Q

What legs pains are suspicious for malignancy in kids?

A

-pain that wakens the child at night

344
Q

What is the tx of choice for aspirin-sensitive asthma?

A
  • leukotriene receptor antagonists:
    1. Montelukast = singulair
    2. Zafirlukast = accolate
345
Q

Third stage of labor: what is it? How long does it last?

A
  • begins after the delivery of the baby and ends with the delivery of the placenta and membranes
  • typically lasts less than 3@ min, if longer = prolonged
346
Q

Billing’s method

A

-method of contraception in which a woman keeps track of the changes in her cervical mucus to know when ovulation occurs

347
Q

What is considered “binge drinking”?

A
  • pattern of drinking that brings the BAC to 0.08% in the past month
  • usually 5 or > drinks for a male or 4 or > drink for a female in approximately 2 hrs
348
Q

3 most common causes of pharyngitis is teens and you adukts?

A
  1. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  2. Chlamydia pneumoniae
  3. Arcanobacterium haemolyticus
349
Q

What is the CO2 level usually during an asthmatic attack?

A
  • usually CO2 is low because of an increased respiratory rate
  • normalization of CO2 during an attack can be a sign of sever exacerbation
350
Q

What screening should be done on a pt with a malignant skin cancer hx?

A

-annual derm evaluations

351
Q

How can an undiagnosed congenital dysplasia of the hip present?

A

-a painless limp that is present from the time that the child learns to walk

352
Q

SNRIs: MOA

A
  • inhibit the re-uptake of both serotonergic and noradrenergic systems
  • act on serotonergic systems at low dose
  • act on noradrenergic at higher dose
353
Q

Dx of PCOS

A
  • need to have 2 of:
    1. Hyperandrogenism
    2. Chronic anovulation
    3. Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
354
Q

Lentigo maligna: what is it? Who is it commonly found in and where?

A
  • most often found in elderly
  • usually on chronic sun-damaged skin, such as face, ears, arms, and upper trunk
  • least common melanoma, but most common in Hawaii
355
Q

What is the minimum SPF of sunscreen that should be worn?

A

-15

356
Q

Sick sinus syndrome: what is it? What can it lead to? Ssx?

A
  • dysfunction of SA node
  • can lead to:
    1. Bradycardia –> ssx = fatigue and syncope
    2. Tachycardia-bradycardia –> ssx = palpitations and angina pectoris, caused by the SVTs
357
Q

Transdermal contraceptive: name? Hormones? Use? Sfx?

A
  • name = ortho evra
  • hormones = norelgestromin (active metabolite of norgestimate) & ethinyl estradiol
  • use = 3 wks of 1 patch per week, then 1 patch free week to allow for withdrawal bleeding
  • sfx & efficacy = similar to OCPs
358
Q

Why would you test a child for hyperlipidemia?

A

-if there is a family history of hyperlipidemia or premature coronary artery disease

359
Q

Bacterial vaginosis and pregnancy?

A

-tx of asymptomatic BV in a pregnant woman can help reduce incidence of preterm labor

360
Q

What is the tx for a septic joint?

A
  1. Urgent surgical irrigation and debridement, and antibiotics
361
Q

Variable deceleration

A
  • abrupt decrease in fetal heart rate, usually followed by an abrupt return to the baseline
  • occurs variably in its timing, relative to a contraction
  • most commonly due to umbilical cord compression during contraction
362
Q

Which blood tests should be done in the initial workup for CHF (5)?

A
  1. CBC
  2. Electrolytes
  3. Renal function tests
  4. Liver function tests
  5. Cardiac enzymes
363
Q

What is the antibiotic used for GBS prophylaxis?

A
  • penicillin

- alternatives = ampicillin, cephalothin, erythromyocin, clinda, and vanco

364
Q

Mucopurulent cervicitis: dx?

A
  • gold standard = culture of the cervical discharge

- take cultures even if asymptomatic bc 50-70% can be asymptomatic!

365
Q

Tx for alcohol withdrawal?

A

-benzodiazepines or phenobarbital

366
Q

When can a child ride in the front seat of a car?

A
  • 13 yrs or older!
367
Q

Amblyopia

A
  • reduction or loss of visions in one eye from lack of use

- strabismus is the most common cause of amblyopia

368
Q

Long QT syndrome: genetics? Who is it more common in?

A
  • autosomal dominant
  • mutations in multiple genes
  • more common in females
369
Q

Bacterial vaginosis: dx?

A
  • based on 3 of these 4 critera:
    1. Thin homogenous discharge
    2. Vaginal pH more than 4.5
    3. Positive KOH “whiff” test (fishy odor present after addition of KOH to a sample of the discharge)
    4. Presence of clue cells in a wet mount prep
370
Q

Asherman syndrome: sx? Cause?

A
  • reduced vol of menstrual bleeding w/ REGULAR ovulation or even no menstration, with normal hormonal fctn
  • scarring w/in uterus caused by trauma from uterine curettage
  • not as common
371
Q

Acute management of asthma?

A
  1. Immediate tx w/ a SABA + Monitor vitals and PEF
  2. If in 20 min there is incomplete response, give 3 more SABA tx in 1 hr
  3. If there is poor response, add oral or IV corticosteroids
  4. Consider inpatient management if their continues to be an inadequate or poor response
372
Q

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis: what is it? Causes? Dx?

A
  • what: separation of the growth plate that connects the metaphysis (femoral head) to the diaphysis (shaft of femur)
  • causes: can be caused by trauma, but often not
  • dx: early xrays = widening of the epiphysis, later xrays = slippage of head in relation to the shaft
373
Q

How long should a baby stay in a rear-facing car seat?

A

-until they weight at least 20lbs and are at least 1 yr old

374
Q

Omalizumab: name? MOA? Use?

A
  • Xolair
  • monoclonal antibody
  • use only in colobo w/ asthma specialist
  • use in highest risk pts 12 yrs or older as additive tx for pts with severe persistent asthma that is sensitive to inhaled allergens
  • given subcutaneously every 2-4 wks
375
Q

Side effects of short acting beta-agonists?

A
  1. Tremor
  2. Anxiety
  3. Heart pounding
  4. Tachycardia (but not HTN)
376
Q

What are 2 antitussives that can be used to tx the cough in acute bronchitis?

A
  1. Dextromethrophan

2. Codeine

377
Q

Bupropion: sfx

A
  • risk of seizures, avoid in pts with seizure hx or in bulimics
  • has less sexual sx
378
Q

Findings most commonly seen with GAS infections?

A
  1. Abrupt onset of sore throat and fever
  2. Tonsillar and/or palatal petechiae
  3. Tender cervical adenopathy
  4. Absence of cough
379
Q

What pregnancy category are the nicotine inhalers, nasal spray, and gum?

A

-category D

380
Q

What are minor sfx of OCPs?

A
  1. Nausea
  2. Headaches
  3. Breast swelling
  4. Fluid retention
  5. Weight gain
  6. Irregular bleeding
  7. Depression
381
Q

What is safer, tubal ligation or vasectomy?

A
  • vasectomy!

- done only under local anesthetics too!

382
Q

How do you tx moderate to severe asthma with steroids?

A
  • inhaled corticosteroids are insufficient bc of their delayed onset of action
  • instead use oral steroid tx:
  • -1-2mg/kg per day for 3-10 days in kids
  • -40-60 mg per day for 5-10 days in adults
383
Q

What can reduce the absorption of the nicotine in both the gum and inhalers?

A
  • acidic beverages

- should be avoided for 15 min after use

384
Q

“Growing pains” dx?

A
  • diagnosis of exclusion
  • pain only at night
  • pain is bilateral
  • not present during the day
  • no other pathology is found
385
Q

What should be considered when a pt presents with multiple unrelated physical symptoms?

A

-depression!

386
Q

Which 5 meds can cause prolonged QT?

A
  1. Quinidine
  2. Procainamide
  3. Sotalol
  4. Amioderone
  5. TCAs
387
Q

Brugada syndrome: what is it? Who is it most common in?

A
  • ion channel disorder

- most common in Asian males

388
Q

What can prolonged rupture of membranes in pregnancy cause?

A

-can predispose to infection, especially if left ruptured for over 24hrs

389
Q

What is the diuretic of choice in CHF and why?

A
  • furosemide = lasix

- acts as both a diuretic and immediately vasodilates the bronchial vasculature

390
Q

Theophylline: MOA? Use?

A
  • mild to moderate bronchodilator

- used as an alternative, adjunctive tx w/ ICS, used as an add on

391
Q

How long does acute bronchitis usually last? How long does the cough usually last?

A
  • usually lasts 2 weeks

- cough can last for 2 mnths or more

392
Q

Menometrorrhagia

A

-heavy menstrual flow or prolonged duration of flow (>7 days) that occurs at IRREGULAR intervals

393
Q

What are 3 common findings of a slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

A
  1. Overweight adolescent male
  2. Pain with internal rotation
  3. External rotation on passive flexion of the affected hip
394
Q

6 complications of untreated GAS infections? Which can occur regardless of the infection being treated?

A
  1. Rheumatic fever
  2. Glomerulonephritis –> can occur regardless of tx!!
  3. Toxic shock syndrome
  4. Peritonsillar abscess
  5. Meningitis
  6. Bacteremia
395
Q

Mallampti score: what is it? What is it used for?

A
  • When the pt opens mouth and says “ahh”:
    1. Entire tonsil visible
    2. Upper half of tonsil fossa visible
    3. Soft palate and hard palate visible
    4. Only hard palate visible
  • score of 3 or 4 is suggestive of obstructive sleep apnea
396
Q

What medications can be used to stop SVTs?

A
  • IV adenosine can be used, if it works, then the rhythm was due to a reentrant SVT
  • if the adenosine doesnt work, then use either Bb or CCB & consult to cardio!
397
Q

How can a pt self treat SVTs?

A
  1. Carotid sinus massage
  2. Valsalva maneuver
  3. Cold application to the face
    * *all trigger vagal nerve stimulation
398
Q

Most common causes of postpartum fever?

A
  1. especially if associated with uterine tenderness and foul smelling lochia = sign of endometritis
    - seen in 10% of all c-sections
  2. UTI
  3. All other common causes of infection post surgery = atelectasis, wound infections, venous thromboembolic dz, etc.
399
Q

How long is the postpartum period?

A

-starts after the delivery of the placenta and lasts 6-12 wks

400
Q

What should be assessed in all pts complaining of depressive sx?

A

-substance abuse,esp of alcohol, cocaine, and methamphetamine

401
Q

What is the effect of an epidural on the times of labor?

A

-can prolong the times

402
Q

What are the CAGE questions?

A
  1. Have you ever felt the need to Cut down on your drinking?
  2. Have people Annoyed you about your drinking?
  3. Have you ever felt bad or Guilty about your drinking?
  4. Have you ever had a drink first thing in the morning to steady your nerves or get rid of a hangover (Eye-opener)?
    * *yes to two or more = positive screen
403
Q

Sponge: use? Failure rate? Sfx?

A
  • donut shaped sponge that has spermicide on it and is inserted into vagina before intercourse
  • OTC, one time use only
  • failure: 18-28%
  • sfx: TSS (rare!!)
404
Q

What 3 test should be done in the initial work up of menstrual irregularities?

A
  1. Pregnancy test
  2. TSH
  3. Prolactin levels
405
Q

TCAs: sfx?

A
  1. Sedation
  2. Dry mouth
  3. Dry eyes
  4. Urinary retention
  5. Weight gain
  6. Sexual disturbance
    * * fatal if overdose!!
406
Q

What is the first priority in CHF and how do you achieve that?

A
  • optimize oxygen exchange
    1. Administer o2 via nasal cannula
    2. Dilate pulmonary vasculature
    3. Decrease cardiac preload and afterload
407
Q

Postpartum psychosis

A
  • rare
  • manic and frank delusional behaviors that present within a few days to a few weeks after delivery
  • tx: hospitalization & co management with a psychiatrist
  • high risk of suicide and infanticide without tx!
408
Q

What drugs can OCPs prolong the effects of?

A
  1. Theophylline
  2. Benzodiazepines
  3. Caffeine
409
Q

Varenicline: sfx?

A
  • associated w/ neuropsychic sx, ex. Changes in behavior, agitation, depression, and suicidal behaviors
  • use with caution in pts with hx of psych disorders
  • monitor pts closely
410
Q

When is a TDaP recommended?

A

-at ages 2, 4, 6, and 12-15 mnths, and at age 4-6yrs

411
Q

Pneumococcal vaccine recommendations?

A
  1. All pts over 65 yrs and older
  2. All adults with chronic cardiopulmonary diseases
  3. All immunocompromised persons
    - revaccinate every 5 years in pts that have a decline in antibody titers
412
Q

Aspirates in septic joint v transient synovitis

A
  • Septic joint = Purulent aspirate, with WBC count > 50,000

- transient synnovitis = yellow/clear aspirate w/ WBC count < 10,000

413
Q

What is the most common cause of anemia in children? What helps reduce these incidences?

A
  • iron deficiency

- iron containing formula and cereals have helped reduce these incidences

414
Q

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)

A
  • unpredictable bleeding
  • abnormality present in the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis
  • common shortly after menarche and before menopause, when it occurs other times can mean anovulation –> evaluate with prolactin and LH levels!
415
Q

When is bereavement considered major depression?

A

-when the sx last for more than 2 mnths and involve suicidal ideations, morbid preoccupations, or psychosis

416
Q

Which cardiac or structural problems can lead to palpitations (7)?

A
  1. Cardiomyopathy
  2. Atrial or ventricular septal defects
  3. Congenital heart disease
  4. Mitral valve prolapse
  5. Pericarditis
  6. Valvular heart dz
  7. CHF
417
Q

What should be done on physical exam for a pt presenting with palpitations?

A
  1. Vitals
  2. Orthostatic bp if necessary
  3. Thyroid exam (also look for resting tremor or brisk reflexes)
  4. PMI
  5. Rate/rhythm/murmurs
418
Q

Varencline: MOA

A
  • nicotinic receptor partial agonist

- can reduce cravings for nicotine, reduce withdrawl sx, and block binding of some of the nicotine from cigarettes

419
Q

Nodular melanoma: characteristics?

A
  • most aggressive melanoma

- usually invasive at time of diagnosis

420
Q

Female condom: use? Protection against STDs? Failure rate?

A
  • use: one ring inserted into vagina, the other remains outside
  • STDs: may offer some protection, but male condoms must be used for highly effective protection
  • failure rate: 21-26%
421
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease: what is it?

A
  • inflammation of the upper genital tract
  • includes pelvic peritonitis, endometritis, salpingitis, and tuboovarian abscess caused by infection with gonorrhea, chlamydia, or vaginal and bowel flora
422
Q

Apnea

A

-in adults = breathing pauses that last at least 10 sec and are accompanied by 90% or more drop in airflow

423
Q

Uterine atony: tx?

A
  • first give IV oxytocin and do a bimanual uterine massage
  • if those fail, give methylergonovine IM (dont give to pt w/ HTN)
  • if that fails, give prostaglandin F2a (dont give to pts with asthma)
424
Q

Menorrhagia

A

-excessive menstrual flow, or prolonged duration of flow (>7 days) that occurs at REGULAR intervals

425
Q

What are the3 major long-acting agents that can be used to tx asthma?

A
  1. Inhaled corticosteroids = ICS
  2. Leukotriene receptor antagonists = LRA
  3. Long-acting beta2-agonists
426
Q

How does basal cell carcinoma present? Prognosis? Tx?

A
  • pearly papules with central ulceration or multiple telangiectasias
  • present with growing lesions that sometimes bleed or itch
  • rarely metastasize, but grow large and can be locally destructive
  • tx = excision
427
Q

When is an ultrasound indicated in pregnancy?

A
  • not mandatory in routine, low-risk prenatal care
  • indicated for evaluation of:
    1. uncertain gestational age
    2. Size/date discrepancies
    3. Vaginal bleeding
    4. Multiple gestations
    5. Other high-risk situations
428
Q

What should infants less than 1yr old be fed?

A
  • breast-fed or given an iron-containing formula

- cereals and other baby foods can be introduced btwn ages 4-6mnths

429
Q

Exercise-induced asthma

A

-10% lowering of FEV1 when challenged with exercising

430
Q

What are 2 major contraindications to giving a vaccine?

A
  1. Anaphylactic rxn to a specific vaccine in the past, or a component of the vaccine
  2. Current severe illness
431
Q

PID: dx?

A

-lower abdominal tenderness with both adenexal and cervical motion tenderness without another explanation = enough to dx PID

432
Q

Which percentage of fetuses with down syndrome are born to women under age 35?

A

-75%!!

433
Q

Delerium tremens sx?

A
  1. Hallucinations
  2. Agitation
  3. Tremor
  4. Sleeplessness
  5. Sympathetic hyperactivity
    * *can result in fatal arrhythmias or infections!
434
Q

Bupropion: contraindications?

A
  • pts with eating disorder = electrolyte imbalances can lead to seizures bc seizure threshold is decreased
  • pts on MAOis w/in last 2 wks
  • pts w/seizure dissorders
435
Q

What are two tests for strasbismus? What should be done when strabismus is detected?

A
  1. Asymmetric light reflexes off corneas
  2. Cover-uncover test = have child focus on an object with both eyes, cover one of their eyes, if the uncovered eye deviates to focus on the object, then strabismus is suggested
    * *ot should be referred to a pediatric ophthalmologist as soon as strabismus is detected!
436
Q

Bacterial vaginosis: STD?

A
  • NOT an STD, but associated with having multiple sex partners
  • overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria and G vaginalis
437
Q

How do you use bupropion?

A
  • start 1-2 weeks before quit date
  • start at 150 mg a day for 3 days, then increase to 150mg twice a day
  • usually used for 7-12 weeks, but it can be used for up to 6 mnths
  • can be used alone or with nicotine replacements
438
Q

Typical use effectiveness (w/comtraceptives)

A

-overall efficacy in actual use, when forgetfulness and improper use occur

439
Q

What test is recommended once a dx of MVP is made?

A

-echo to look for complications, such as: mitral regurg or LVH

440
Q

Cromolyn sodium: MOA? Use? Sfx?

A
  • stabilizes the mast cells and interferes with chloride channel fctn
  • can be used for tx of mild persistent asthma
  • have few side effects, but must be used multiple times per day
441
Q

Two types of IUDs available? MOA? How long do they last for? Failure rates?

A
  1. ParaGard
    - MOA: copper
    - lasts: 10 yrs
    - failure: 4-5%
  2. Mirena
    - MOA: progestin
    - lasts: 5 yrs
    - failure: < 1%
442
Q

What does squamous cell carcinoma look like? Prognosis? Tx?

A
  • irregularly shaped plaques or nodules with raised borders. Can be scaly, ulcerated, and can bleed easily
  • higher rate of mets than basal cell
  • tx = complete excision
443
Q

What are the 4 most common reasons for cesarean deliveries?

A
  1. Prior cesarean
  2. Breech presentation
  3. Arrest of labor or descent
  4. Fetal distress that needs immediate delivery
444
Q

Hypopnea

A
  • 50% reduction in airflow that lasts at least 10 sec with a 3% drop in oxygen sat
  • or a 30% reduction in airflow lasting at least 10 sec with a 4% drop in oxygen sat
445
Q

Otitis externa s/sx?

A
  • pain can be severe
  • itching
  • inflamed, swollen, external ear canal
  • often see exudates and discharge
446
Q

At what age can a modified snellen chart be used to test a child’s vision?

A

-age 3

447
Q

What should be done with an evolving lesion or one that has ABCDE features?

A
  • should be excised completely with a 2mm to 3mm margin around the lesion
  • shave biopsies can be done for raised lesions
  • punch biopsies for flat lesions
  • if lesion is too large to excise, do a bx through the most suspicious looking section
448
Q

What are pts with long QT syndrome at risk for?

A
  1. Ventricular arrhythmias

2. Sudden cardiac death

449
Q

Risk factors for Hospital-acquired pneumonia (4)?

A
  1. Intibation
  2. NG tube
  3. Preexisting lung disease
  4. Multisystem failure
450
Q

What is the target for HDL?

A

-60 or greater

451
Q

Sulfonylureas: sfx

A
  1. Weight gain

2. Hypoglycemia

452
Q

Partner notification for STDs: Mandatory? How reported?

A
  • yes, it is mandatory
  • either the patient notifies the partner, or if they refuse to the department of health will notify the partner
  • health care provider has legal and ethical obligation to inform the partners that they are at risk
453
Q

Pramlinitide: sfx

A
  1. Hypoglycemia

2. Nausea & diarrhea

454
Q

How is HTN and the risk CV disease related?

A

-risk of CV dz doubles with each increase in bp of 20/10 mmHg above 115/75 mmHg

455
Q

DPP-4 inhibitor: sfx?

A
  1. upper respiratory syndromes

2. severe hypersensitivity (ex. Anaphylaxis)

456
Q

LDL goal for pts with very high risk of CHD? AKA “therapeutic option”

A

-70 mg/dL or less

457
Q

Reccomendations for measuring lipid levels?

A
  • every 5 years in all adults over the age of 20

- can be fasting or nonfasting

458
Q

LDL goal for pt with zero to one risk factor?

A
  • 160 mg/dL or less
459
Q

Effects of statins?

A
  • vv LDL **
  • ^^ HDL
  • vv TGs
460
Q

Lachman test: describe? what structure does it test? what injury does it identify?

A
  • with pt knee in 20* flexion, pull forward on the upper tibia while stabilizing the upper leg
  • tests: ACL
  • positive: excessive translation with no solid endpoint = ACL tear
461
Q

What is a normal GFR for a woman?

A

-btwn 100 and 120

462
Q

What blood tests should be drawn on any obese pt?

A
  1. Fasting glucose - to look for DM and impaired glucose tolerance
  2. Fasting lipids - to look for metabolic syndrome and to determine CV dz risks
  3. TSH - screen for hypoTH
  4. Liver enzymes - look for fatty liver dz
463
Q

Ottawa knee Rules:

A
  • knee x-rays should be performed when any of these are present:
    1. age 55+
    2. isolated patella tenderness
    3. tenderness of head of the fibula
    4. inability to flex the knee to 90*
    5. inability to bear weight for four steps immediately and in the exam room (regardless of limping)
464
Q

What is the most common cause of low back pain? What is the possible physiology?

A
  • lumbar strain is the most common
  • probably caused by an incomplete tear in the annulus fibrosus that leaks fluids that cause local inflammation and irritation
465
Q

Ottawa Ankle Rules

A
  • have very high sensitivity for ruling out significant malleolar and midfoot fractures
  • X-rays of the ankle should be performed if:
    1. bony tenderness of the posterior edge or tip of the distal 6 cm of either the medial or lateral malleolus
    2. patient unable to bear weight immediately or when examined
  • foot X-rays should be performed if:
    1. bony tenderness over the medial midfoot, base of 5th metatarsal (lateral midfoot)
    2. pt is unable to bear weight
466
Q

What is cardiogenic nausea and vomiting associated with?

A

-larger MI

467
Q

What 7 tests should be done in a pt with diagnosed with HTN?

A
  1. Blood glucose
  2. Serum potassium
  3. Creatinine
  4. Ca levels
  5. Hematocrit
  6. Urinalysis - to look for proteinuria or cells
  7. EKG
468
Q

Bile acid sequestrants: sfx?

A
  1. GI distress, constipation

2. Decreased absorption of other meds

469
Q

What 3 common types of drugs can cause dyslipidemia?

A
  1. Progestins
  2. Anabolic steroids
  3. Corticosteroids
470
Q

Alpha-glucosidase inihibitors: sfx

A
  • GI side effects, including gas and bloating

- contraindicated in ketoacidosis and in hepatic disorders

471
Q

What 4 drugs can be used to suppress tics in tourettes?

A
  1. Haloperidol
  2. Pimozide
  3. Trifluoperazine
  4. Fluphenazine
472
Q

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors: MOA

A
  • delay carbohydrate absorption via inhibiting alpha glucosidase
  • decreases postprandial hyperglycemia
  • can be beneficial to pts with erratic eating habits bc hypoglycemia will not occur if meals are skipped
473
Q

Cholesterol absorption blockers: name

A

-ex. Ezetimibe

474
Q

Nicotinic acids: contraindications?

A
  1. Absolute: chronic liver dz & severe gout

2. Relative: DM, hyperuricemia, & peptic ulcer dz

475
Q

Inversion stress test: describe? what structure does it test? what injury does it identify?

A
  • invert pts ankle with one hand while stabilizing the lower leg with the other hand
  • tests: calcaneofibular ligament
  • positive: excessive mvmnt or palpable “chunk” or talus on tibia = ligament tear
476
Q

Where are thiazolidinediones metabolized?

A
  • in the liver!

* *so they can be used in pts with renal dz!

477
Q

What is the maximum target bp for diabetics?

A

-130/80

478
Q

When should imaging be done for a herniated disc? Which is best?

A

-an MRI should be done AFTER 4 weeks

479
Q

What is the gold standard for an obesity tx plan?

A
  • combination of:
    1. Dietary restrictions
    2. Increased physical activity
    3. Behavioral therapy
480
Q

What are the 4 tx of acute mechanical back pain?

A
  1. NSAIDS
  2. Muscle relaxants
  3. Heat
  4. Early mobility –> NO more than 2 days of bed rest!
481
Q

What is the most common cause of ankle sprains? What is more common, medial or lateral sprains? Why?

A
  • inversion of an ankle that is plantar flexed

- lateral is more common than medial, because the lateral ligaments are relatively weaker

482
Q

Which pts are potential candidates for bariatric surgery?

A

-pts with BMI > than 40, or greater than 35 with comorbid conditions

483
Q

What EKG changes can be seen with an MI and what labs are also seen?

A
  • EKG: also see ST-segment elevation or depression &/or T-wave inversion
  • *NOT all MIs will have EKG changes!!
  • labs: elevated CK-MB &/or elevated troponin levels
484
Q

Cauda equina syndrome sx (4)

A
  1. Increasing neurological deficits and leg weakness
  2. Bowel and urinary incontinence
  3. Sensory loss in a saddle distribution
  4. Bilateral sciatica
485
Q

Fibric acids: contraindications?

A
  1. Severe renal dz

2. Severe hepatic dz

486
Q

What is preHTN?

A

-bp btwn 120-139 systolic and 80-89 diastolic

487
Q

What does unequal carotid pulses or upper extremity pulses indicate?

A
  • aortic dissection

* *but most patients with dissection will not have uneven pulses!

488
Q

Cholesterol absorption blocker: effects?

A
  • vv LDL **
  • ^^ HDL
  • vv TG
489
Q

Drop-arm rotator cuff test: describe? what injury does it identify?

A
  • pt is unable to lower his arm slowly from raised position

- positive = large rotator cuff tear

490
Q

Drop-arm rotator cuff test: describe? what injury does it identify?

A
  • pt is unable to lower his arm slowly from raised position

- positive = large rotator cuff tear

491
Q

Further testing to be done with initial workup of hyperlipidemia? (4)

A
  1. Blood glucose
  2. Creatinine
  3. Liver function tests
  4. TSH
492
Q

Varus stress test: describe? what structure does it test? what injury does it identify?

A
  • with the pts leg in full extension and at 30* flexion, add lateral-directed force on the knee and medial-directed force on the ankle
  • tests: lateral collateral ligament
  • positive: excessive translation = tear
493
Q

What EKG changes make the dx of an MI most difficult?

A

-Left bundle branch block

494
Q

Initial tx of spinal stenosis?

A
  1. NSAIDS
  2. Physical therapy
  3. Epidural corticosteroids
495
Q

Anterior drawer ankle test: describe? what structure does it test? what injury does it identify?

A
  • pull forward on the pt’s heel while stabilizing the lower leg with the other hand
  • tests: anterior talofibular ligament
  • positive = ATFL tear
496
Q

What BMI is considered underweight? Normal? Overweight? Obese? Extremely obese?

A
  • underweight: < 18.5
  • normal: 18.5-24.9
  • overweight: 25.0-29.9
  • obese: I-30-34.9 II-35-39.9
  • extreme obesity III: > 40
497
Q

What kind of anemia can be seen with kidney disease and why?

A
  • normocytic anemia

- decreased epo from the kidneys

498
Q

Why are ACEi given after an MI?

A
  • reduce short-term mortality when started w/in 24 hrs of acute MI
  • prevent left ventricle remodeling and recurrent ischemic events
499
Q

Best tx for sprained ankle?

A

“PRICE”

  • Protection
  • Rest = to promote healing, but early rehab is necessary
  • Ice = minimizes swelling
  • Compression = reduces swelling
  • Elevation = reduces swelling
  • plus NSAID or acetaminophen as needed for the pain
500
Q

Sulfonylureas: MOA

A

-act as insulin secretagogues, stimulate beta cells to secrete insulin

501
Q

Cholesterol absorptiom blocker: sfx?

A
  1. Abdominal pain

2. Diarrhea

502
Q

What are the exercise recommendations for weight loss?

A

-at least 30 min a day of moderate to vigorous physical activity for 5 days a week

503
Q

What does the straight-leg-raise test for? What else can be used?

A
  • sciatica

- contralateral leg raise test can also be used

504
Q

How many elevated bps to diagnose HTN?

A

-two properly taken bps at 2 different visits

505
Q

Bile acid sequestrants: contraindications?

A

-dybetalipoproteinemia = TG > 400

506
Q

Lift off test: describe? what structure does it test? what injury does it identify?

A
  • pt places dorsum of hand on lumbar back and attempts to lift hand off back
  • tests: subscapularis
  • positive = rotator cuff injury or tear
507
Q

Thiazolidinediones: MOA

A
  1. Improve insulin sensitivity in muscle and in adipose tissue
  2. Decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis and increase peripheral glucose utilization
    Also:
  3. Decrease TGs
  4. Increase HDL
508
Q

Outflow murmur that increases in intensity when lying down?

A

-functional outflow murmur that can be common in athletes

509
Q

What does metformin do?

A
  1. Acts on liver to decrease glucose output during gluconeogenesis
  2. Also improves insulin sensitivity in the liver and muscle
    In addition:
  3. Reduces insulin levels
  4. Potential for weight loss
  5. Decrease in TGs
  6. Decrease in LDL
    ** doesnt cause hypoglycemia!!
510
Q

What can be used to tx levadopa-related motor complications in parkinsons?

A
  • dopamine agonists:
    1. Catechol O-methyltransferase inhibitors
    2. MAOis
511
Q

What are common psych probs seen with parkinsons?

A
  1. Depression
  2. Dementia
  3. Psychosis
512
Q

Why can pts with kidney disease have vomitting?

A
  • due to the build up of urea and other toxins

- persistent vomiting = need tx!

513
Q

What to do if you suspect the pt has limited ROM bc of pain?

A

-inject lidocaine into the joint to numb it then repeat the exam

514
Q

Which 4 strains does the HPV vaccine work against?

A
  • 6 & 11 = genital warts

- 16 & 18 = cervical dysplasia and cancer

515
Q

What should all sexually active adolescents be screened for?

A
  • chlamydia and gonorrhea via cervical sampling in females and a leukocyte esterase test in males
  • all should also be offered HIV testing
516
Q

Tx for volume overload associated with chronic renal failure?

A
  1. Sodium restriction

2. Loop diuretics

517
Q

12 Red Flag sx of low back pain?

A
  1. Unrelenting night pain
  2. Unrelenting pain at rest
  3. Neuromotor deficit
  4. Fever
  5. Loss of bowel or bladder control
  6. Suspicion of ankylosing spondylitis
  7. Trauma
  8. History or suspicion of cancer
  9. Osteoporosis
  10. Chronic corticosteroid use
  11. Immunosuppression
  12. Drug or alcohol abuse
518
Q

What is the most common cause of persistently stiff, painful, or unstable joints following sprains?

A

-inadequate rehab

519
Q

What changes seen in EKG indicate angina?

A
  • ST elevation or depression

- T-wave inversion

520
Q

What are 4 sx of pulmonary edema?

A
  1. Shortness of breath
  2. Lower-extremity edema
  3. JVD
  4. Abnormal lung sounds (ex. Rales)
521
Q

Cholesterol absorption blockers: contraindictaions?

A
  1. Hepatic insufficiency

2. Active liver dz

522
Q

What cardiac problem can hypoMg cause?

A

-torsades de pointe ventricular tachy

523
Q

What are the 2 most common cause of chest pain in the outpatient setting?

A
  1. musculoskeletal causes

2. GI cause

524
Q

What are patients with Chronic kidney disease most likely to die of?

A

-more likely to die of CV dz before they develop ESRD and need dialysis

525
Q

What is the target HbA1C for diabetics usually?

A

-6.5% or less

526
Q

Sprain

A

-stretching or tearing injury of a ligament

527
Q

Stage 1 HTN bp?

A
  • systolic 140-159

- diastolic 90-99

528
Q

What is the target for total cholesterol?

A

-less than 200

529
Q

What are the 9 risk factors for CAD?

A
  1. DM
  2. Dyslipidemia
  3. Age
  4. HTN
  5. Smoking
  6. Family hx of early CAD
  7. Male gender or postmenopause women
  8. LVH
  9. Homocystinemia
530
Q

What are the 3 ankle sprain grades? What are their associated sx?

A
  1. grade 1 - stretching of ATFL = pain and swelling, but NO mechanical instability and little to NO functional loss, can bear weight with mild pain
  2. grade 2 - partial tear of ATFL = more severe pain, swelling, and BRUISING + mild-moderate joint instability + loss of range of motion
  3. grade 3 - complete tear of ATFL and CFL with partial tear of PTFL = significant joint instability, LOSS of function + INABILITY to bear weight
531
Q

Empty can test: desribe? what structure does it test? what injury does it identify?

A
  • arm abducted, elbow extended, thumb pointing down, pt elevates arm against resistance
  • tests: supraspinatus
  • positive = rotator cuff injury or tear
532
Q

LDL goal for pt with CHD or CHD equivalent?

A

-100 mg/dL or less

533
Q

Stage 2 HTN bp?

A
  • systolic: > 160

- diastolic: > 100

534
Q

What is metabolic syndrome?

A
  • insulin resistance
  • characterized by:
    1. Abdominal obesity = waist circumference > 102 cm in men and > than 88 cm in women
    2. Dyslipidemia = TG > 150 mg/dL & HDL < 40 in men and < 50 in women
    3. Elevated bp = > 130/85
    4. Impaired fasting glucose = > 110 mg/dL
535
Q

Nicotinic acids: effects

A
  • vv LDL
  • ^^ HDL
  • vv TG **
536
Q

Nicotinic acids: sfx?

A
  1. Flushing
  2. Hyperglycemia
  3. Hyperuricemia
  4. Upper GI distress
  5. Hepatotox
537
Q

What makes sciatica worse?

A
  • valsalva
  • sneezing
  • coughing
538
Q

What can happen to the bp if the cuff is too small?

A

-falsely elevated

539
Q

Varus stress test: describe? what structure does it test? what injury does it identify?

A
  • with the pts leg in full extension and at 30* flexion, add lateral-directed force on the knee and medial-directed force on the ankle
  • tests: lateral collateral ligament
  • positive: excessive translation = tear
540
Q

External shoulder rotation test: describe? what structure does it test? what injury does it identify?

A
  • elbows at sides and flexed at 90*, pt externally rotates against resistance
  • tests: infraspinatus Teres minor
  • positive = rotator cuff injury or tear
541
Q

Empty can test: describe? what structure does it test? what injury does it identify?

A
  • arm abducted, elbow extended, thumb pointing down, pt elevates arm against resistance
  • tests: supraspinatus
  • positive = rotator cuff injury or tear
542
Q

What 2 drugs are indicated for long term tx of obesity?

A
  1. Orlisat

2. Sibutramine

543
Q

What typically happens to murmurs with the valsalva maneuver?

A
  • most decrease in intensity

- murmurs from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy will INCREASE with the valsalva though!

544
Q

What is the conservation tx for sciatica?

A
  1. NSAIDS
  2. Short-course steroids
  3. Avoidance of sitting
545
Q

Pramlitide: MOA

A
  • amylinomimetic agent that is similar in action to human amylin
  • inhibits inappropriately high glucagon secretion during hyperglycemia (ex. After meals)
  • works in both type 1&2 DM
  • does not impair physiologic response to hypoglycemia
546
Q

Chest pain with angina v. MI?

A
  • chest pain with angina usually resolves in less than 5 min with rest
  • chest pain with an MI should be suspected when the pain lasts longer than 20-30 min
547
Q

Ottawa Ankle Rules

A
  • have very high sensitivity for ruling out significant malleolar and midfoot fractures
  • apply to adults who have normal mental status, dont have any other painful injuries, and are seen w/in 10 dyas of their injury
  • X-rays of the ankle should be performed if:
    1. bony tenderness of the posterior edge or tip of the distal 6 cm of either the medial or lateral malleolus
    2. patient unable to bear weight immediately or when examined
  • foot X-rays should be performed if:
    1. bony tenderness over the medial midfoot, base of 5th metatarsal (lateral midfoot)
    2. pt is unable to bear weight
548
Q

What are the 5 factors used to determine the LDL goal?

A
  1. Cigarette smoking
  2. HTN
  3. Low HDL –> high HDL = negative risk factor (so subtract 1 from total risk factors)
  4. Age (45+ for men and 55+ for females)
  5. Family Hx of premature CHD (male < 55 or female < 65)
549
Q

Systolic murmur that decreases in intensity when the pt is lying down?

A
  • hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

- lying down increases ventricular filling = decreases obstruction

550
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of chronic kidney disease?

A
  1. Diabetes
  2. HTN
  3. Glomerulonephritis
551
Q

Which 5 groups of pts should get a hep A vaccine?

A
  1. Live in areas with high infection rates
  2. Travel to high-risk areas
  3. Have chronic liver dz
  4. Use IV drugs
  5. Men who have sex with men
552
Q

What is the first-line primary tx for HTN?

A

-thiazide diuretics

553
Q

What does it mean when small kidneys are seen on imaging?

A
  • reflects irreversible disease

- they should rarely be biopsied bc the results will not alter the tx

554
Q

What is the target bp for HTN in average pts? In diabetics and pts with kidney dz?

A
  • 140/90 in “normal pts”

- 130/80 in diabetics and pts with kidney dz

555
Q

What do Q waves mean?

A
  • can indicate cardiac pathology, but usually mean there is an old infarct
  • when Q waves are present the benefits of thrombolytic tx is uncertain
556
Q

What are the alcohol reccomendations for a pt with HTN?

A

-no more than 2 a day for men and no more than 1 a day for females

557
Q

What are the 4 ways to assess a patient’s volume status?

A
  1. Skin turgor
  2. Mucous membranes
  3. Specific gravity of urine
  4. Orthostatic bp
558
Q

Best tx for sprained ankle?

A

“PRICE”

  • Protection
  • Rest
  • Ice
  • Compression
  • Elevation
  • plus NSAID or acetaminophen as needed for the pain
559
Q

What are the 6 risk factors for gestational diabetes?

A
  1. > 25 yrs old
  2. High-incidence race = native american, african american, hispanic, south or east asian, or pacific islander
  3. BMI > 25 or more
  4. History of glucose intolerance
  5. Previous history of gestational diabetes
  6. History of DM in a first degree family member
560
Q

Nicotinic acids: name

A

-ex. Niacin

561
Q

LDL goal for pt with 2+ risk factors?

A

-130 mg/dL or less

562
Q

What 3 medications can be used to tx an essential tremor?

A
  1. Propanol
  2. Primidone
  3. Gabapentin
563
Q

Spinal stenosis: ssx?

A
  1. lower back pain
  2. Leg pain
  3. Leg weakness
  4. Pseudoclaudication = occurs after walking various distances while the vascularity in the legs remain intact.
    * * Pain is relieved by bending over or sitting.
564
Q

Disadvantages of thiazolidinediones?

A
  1. Slight increase in LDL
  2. Weight gain
  3. Slow onset of action
  4. Can cause water retention
565
Q

Strain

A

-stretching or tearing injury of a muscle or tendon

566
Q

In which 4 groups of patients is a BMI not an accurate assessment of lean body mass to body fat ratio?

A
  1. Highly muscled people (ex. Body builders, weight lifters, athletes)
  2. Pregnant women
  3. Patients with symptomatic congestive heart failure
567
Q

Common side effects of metformin? How can they be reduced?

A
  • nausea and diarrhea and other GI sfx are common

- can be decreased by giving smaller doses and taking meds with meals

568
Q

Metlitinides: MOA

A
  • short acting secretagogues, increase insulin secretion from the pancreas
  • taken no more than 1 hr before meals
  • have rapid onset and short duration of action
  • useful in pts that have have blood sugars that vary with meal time but have constant sugars throughout the day
569
Q

Definition of End Stage Renal Disease

A
  • irreversible loss of kidney function
  • the patient is permanently dependent on renal replacement therapy (either dialysis or transplant)
  • GFR < 15
570
Q

When are complete physical examinations in adolescents reccommended?

A

-once during early adolescence, once in mid adolescence, and once in late adolescence

571
Q

Disadvantages of meglitinides?

A
  1. Risk of hypoglycemia
  2. Expensive
  3. Should not be used in pts with hepatic dysfunction
572
Q

What is the imaging study of choice for musculoskeletal injuries?

A
  • plain x-rays –> must do at least 2 views that are at 90* to each other
  • if normal and sx continue, then do an MRI
573
Q

What is the minimal decrease in BMI that can provide benefit to the patient?

A

-5% decrease

574
Q

Statins: sfx

A
  • myopathy & myalgia

- increased liver enzymes

575
Q

What is used to monitor ots at risk for kidney disease?

A
  1. Serum creatinine to estimate GFR

2. Random urinalysis for albuminuria

576
Q

Bile acid sequestrants: names

A
  1. Cholestyramine
  2. Colestipol
  3. Colesevelam
577
Q

Squeeze test: describe? what structure does it test? what injury does it identify?

A
  • compresses tibia and fibula at midcalf
  • tests: syndesmosis
  • positive: pain at anterior ankle joint (below where squeezing) = syndesmotic injury
578
Q

What 3 medications are known to cause or enhance a physiologic tremor?

A
  1. Inhaled Beta-agonist (ex. albuterol)
  2. Levothyroxine
  3. Lithium
579
Q

What can be a cause of tremor in a pt younger than 40?

A

-wilson’s dz

580
Q

Athletes with which 4 types of murmurs should be held from participation?

A
  1. Systolic murmur with an intensity greater than 3/6
  2. Diastolic murmur
  3. Holosystolic murmur
  4. Continuous murmur
    * * or any other suspicious murmur!
581
Q

What is sciatica a classic sign of?

A

-a herniated disc

582
Q

Diagnostic criteria for DM?

A
  1. Random glucose of 200 mg/dL or more along w/ classic sx that include polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, frequent infections, and weight loss
  2. Fasting glucose > 125 mg/dL on at least 2 occasions
  3. 2-hr plasma glucose of 200 mg/dL or more after a 75g glucose load
583
Q

Bile acid sequestrants: effects

A
  • vv LDL **
  • ^^ HDL
  • no effect on TG
584
Q

Fibric acids: sfx?

A
  1. Dyspepsia
  2. Gallstones
  3. Myopathy
585
Q

Fibric acids: name?

A
  1. Gemfibrozil
  2. Fenofibrate
  3. Clofibrate
586
Q

What is the target LDL in a pt with a hx of CAD and at high risk for future cardiac events?

A

-70 mg/dL

587
Q

What are the recommendations for HTN screening?

A

-annual screening in all adolescents via bp measurements

588
Q

GLP-1 Agonists: MOA

A

-synthetic peptide that stimulates insulin release

589
Q

NY Heart Association Functional Classification of Angina

A
  1. Class I = angina only with unusually strenuous activity
  2. Class II = angina with slightly more prolonged or slightly more vigorous activity than usual
  3. Class III = angina with usual daily activity
  4. Class IV = angina at rest
590
Q

What is the first priority when treating a pt with a possible MI?

A

-getting an ECG and chest X-ray while giving meds to decrease damage to heart and to reduce bp = nitro and beta blockers

591
Q

GLP-1 Agonist: sfx

A

-nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and acute pancreatitis

592
Q

What are the recommendations for Tdap?

A

-the childhood series, plus a booster at ages 11-12, and then once every 10 years after that

593
Q

What risks are present for a fetus of a diabetic mother as opposed to a fetus of a mother with gestational DM?

A

-fetal malformations bc the increased serum levels of glucose are present earlier in the pregnancy (5-10 weeks) during the critical organogenesis stages, versus gestational DM where the increased serum glucose usually doesnt occur until 20 weeks when the fetal organs have already formed

594
Q

What is the most common cause of HTN in children? What tests should be done?

A
  • renal parenchymal dz

- tests: urinalysis, urine culture, and renal ultrasound

595
Q

Statins: contraindications

A
  1. Active or chronic liver dz

2. When pt is taking p450 inhibitor

596
Q

What is a dangerous sfx of metformin?

A
  • lactic acidosis
  • the risk of lactic acidosis is increased by renal insufficiency
  • contraindicated in: women with creatinine > 1.4 and > 1.5 mg/dL in men, hepatic insufficiency, congestive heart failure
597
Q

4 Common Secondary causes for dyslipidemia?

A
  1. DM
  2. Hypothyroidism
  3. Obstructive liver dz
  4. Chronic renal failure
598
Q

Next step in therapy for unstable angina w/ possible MI that presents to ER?

A

“MONA”

  • Morphine = pain relief & decrease circulating catecholamines –> reduces hearts oxygen consumption
  • Oxygen
  • Nitro
  • Aspirin
  • plus: beta-blocker to reduce MI damage & GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors to reduce morbidity and mortality
599
Q

Sciatica

A
  • pain along the path of the siatic nerve that radiates to the butt and the back of the thigh
  • usually caused by a herniated disk of the lumbar region of the spine
600
Q

Ddx for chest pain

A

See pg 233 of case files!

601
Q

What are 4 cancers that commonly involve the spine?

A
  1. Multiple myeloma
  2. Metastatic prostate cancer
  3. Metastatic breast cancer
  4. Metastatic lung cancer
602
Q

What is the oral drug of choice for DM?

A

-metformin!

603
Q

What is the target LDL range for a diabetic?

A

-70 to 100

604
Q

What is the primary tx for Parkinsons? What are some long term use sfx?

A
  • levadopa, best for motor sx

- sfx: drug-induced dyskinesia and psychosis w

605
Q

What is the DASH diet plan high in?

A
  1. Potassium

2. Calcium

606
Q

What is spinal cord stenosis? Who is it commonly seen in?

A
  • spinal canal narrowing that puts pressure on the spinal cord
  • can be congenital or acquired
  • more common in pts over 65 yrs old
607
Q

DPP-4 inhibitor: MOA? How is it used?

A
  • ex. Januvia
  • inhibits DDP-4 = enzyme that inactivates incretin hormones like GLP-1 and GIP, which both stimulate the release of insulin from beta cells
  • Uses:
    1. As monotx in pts that cant control DM with diet and exercise alone
    2. In combo with metformin, sulfonylurea or thiazolidinedione as second-line tx