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MS3 - Shelfs > FM > Flashcards

FM Flashcards

1
Q

Infants born to Hep B SURFACE ANTIGEN POSITIVE moms should recieve

A

Hep B vacc and Hep B Ig

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2
Q

tdap booster is given every

A

10 yrs

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3
Q

Non tetanus immunized individuals with high risk wounds require

A

Tetanus Ig (TIg)

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4
Q

Herpes zoster vacc is given at age

A

60 - regardless of prior VZV infection or vacc

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5
Q

PPV is recommended for

A

Al pts over 65 and pts over 2 with chronic ilnesses

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6
Q

HPV vacc covers strains

A

16,18 (cervical cancer) and 6,11 (genital warts)

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7
Q

Vaccs CI in immunocompromised and pregnant pts

A

VZV, HZV, MMR

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8
Q

Modifiable risk factors for osteoporosis

A

Smoking, menopause, sedentary lifestyle, heavy etoh or caffeine use, low Ca intake

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9
Q

Cholesterol screening is recommended every 5 years in men and women when they turn

A

35 and 45 respectively

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10
Q

DM screening is recommended every

A

3 years starting at 45 yo

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11
Q

If you have a first deg relative with a dx of colon cancer screening should be

A

Every 5 to 10 yr starting at 40 yo

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12
Q

Beta-blockers CI in

A

Asthma, >1st deg heart block, bradycardia - caution in heart failure

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13
Q

Tx of choice for mod-severe allergic rhinitis

A

Intranasal steroids

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14
Q

Murmur heard with aortic dissection

A

Aortic regurg/insufficiency

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15
Q

Diffuse ST segment elevation on ECG

A

Pericarditis

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16
Q

CK-MB or troponin should be elevated within how many hr of an MI?

A

8

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17
Q

Troponin remains elevated for how long?

A

5 to 14 days

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18
Q

MCC of cardiac chest pain

A

MI, angina pectoris, pericarditis, aortic dissection

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19
Q

MCC of pulmonary chest pain

A

PE, pneumothorax, pneumonia, traceobronchitis

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20
Q

MCC of GI chest pain

A

Esophageal spasm, GERD, cholelithiasis

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21
Q

Suspected MI pt allergic to ASA should get what instead?

A

Clopidogrel

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22
Q

CI to thrombolytics

A

Active internal bleeding, hx of CVDz, recent surgery, intracranial neoplasm,AV malformation, bleeding diathesis, severe uncontrolled htn

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23
Q

Osmotic laxative CI in renal failure

A

Mg salts

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24
Q

Chronic nitrofuratoin use can lead to

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

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25
Q

Arnold reflex

A

Reflex cough d/t cerumen impaction

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26
Q

Centrally acting antitussive agents

A

Codeine, dextromethorphan

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27
Q

Blood test for celiac dz

A

Anti transglutaminase ab, endymysial ab

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28
Q

Tx of c.diff

A

Metro

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29
Q

Tx of giardia

A

Metro

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30
Q

Tx of shigella, salmonella, e.coli

A

Fluroquinolones

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31
Q

Features of menieres dz (endolymphatic hydrops)

A

Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss

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32
Q

H pylori PUD or gastritis tx

A

Triple therapy: omeprazole (ppi), H2 blocker, and clarith/ammox or metro for 7-14d

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33
Q

HA in occipital/frontal areas

A

tension

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34
Q

severe HA, periorbital localization

A

cluster HA

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35
Q

WHAOML

A

SA hemmorage

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36
Q

triptans are CI i

A

CAD, PVD, uncontrolled HTN

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37
Q

primary medication used to abort migraine HA

A

serotonin receptor agonists (triptans)

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38
Q

elderly pt with TTP over temple

A

temporal arteritis, dx with biopsy!

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39
Q

Transaminases elevated out of proportion (5x norm) to the alk phos

A

Liver dysfunction

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40
Q

Alk phos elevated (3x norm) out of proportion to the transaminases

A

Liver obstruction

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41
Q

Useful in confirming elevated alk phos

A

Gamma glutamic transpeptidase

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42
Q

Centrally acting anti-emitics

A

Phenergan, compazine

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43
Q

type of HSN - asthma

A

type I HSN rxn

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44
Q

pleural fluid with low pH (less than 7.2) and low glucose (less than 60) is indicative of

A

empyema

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45
Q

3 criteria for dx of DM

A

1) fasting BG >126 on 2 or more separate occasions 2)random BG >200 with polyuira, polydypsia, polyphagia 3)2 hr postprandial BG >200

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46
Q

HbA1c reflects BG control over

A

past 2-3 mo

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47
Q

pre-DM fasting BG levels

A

100-125

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48
Q

DM2 drug that stimulated insulin release from pancreatic beta cells

A

sulfonureas

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49
Q

CI sulfonureas

A

pregnancy, renal dysfxn, allergy

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50
Q

AE sulfonureas

A

wt gain, hypoglycemia

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51
Q

DM2 drug that works by inhibiting hepatic gluconeogenesis ad increasing glucose uptake in the peripheral tissues

A

metformin

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52
Q

AE metformin

A

diarrhea, dyspepsia, nausea, lactic acidosis

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53
Q

DM2 drug that works nu decreasing insulin resistance in skeletal mm and liver

A

thiazolidinediones

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54
Q

need to monitor LFTs when using

A

thiazolidinediones

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55
Q

DM2 drug that inhibits enzyme on the intestinal brush border and therefore limits rate of carbohydrate abs reducing posprandial glucose elevation

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitor

56
Q

DM2 drugs that regulates gastric emptying, increases glucose dependent insulin secretion, promotes satiety, decreases postprandial glucagon secretion

A

GLP-1

57
Q

v rare AE of GLP-1

A

pancreatits

58
Q

ADA recommends target BP and LDL of

A

130/80, 70

59
Q

target of elderly HbA1c

A

<8%

60
Q

DM2 need yearly monitoring for

A

retinopathy and micoalbuiminuria

61
Q

tx of proteinuria in DM pt

A

ACEi

62
Q

Antiemetic that acts as a pro kinetic drug

A

Metocloptonide (reglan)

63
Q

Morning stiffness that lasts more than 45 min

A

Inflammatory arthritis

64
Q

Ddx of monoarthropathy

A

Infection, crystal-induced, trauma, osteoarthritis

65
Q

Septic joint fluid analysis will show

A

> 100,000 WBCs

66
Q

Mild to moderate inflammation indicative of RA or crystalline arthritis joint fluid will have

A

2000-50,000 WBCs

67
Q

First like tx for OA

A

Acetaminophen

68
Q

first line and LT tx of gout

A

High does NSAID, allopurinol

69
Q

Bridge tx and LT tx of RA

A

steroids until DMARD (MTX) kicks in

70
Q

Palpitations assd with etoh use

A

SVT, afib

71
Q

SVTs, short PR, delta waves

A

WPW

72
Q

Test for Gonococcal pharyngitis needs

A

ThAyer-Martin Agar

73
Q

Strep tx

A

Penicillin - allergy? Clinda, erythro, azithro

74
Q

Measures total urine [protein]

A

Slufosalicylic acid test

75
Q

Proteinuria is when urinary protein exceeds

A

150mg in 24h

76
Q

Acute medical tx for glaucoma

A

Acetazolamide 500 mg and topical 4% pilocarpine opthamalogic solution

77
Q

Etoh liver enzymes

A

AST to ALT greater than 1

78
Q

Most sensitive indicator of etoh induced liver damage

A

GGT

79
Q

shoulder pain that is worse when overhead activity

A

rotator cuff problem

80
Q

dyscomfort with arm abduction past 90 deg

A

rotator cuff tendonitis

81
Q

pain with AROM and PROM suggest

A

joint or ligament problem

82
Q

pain with only AROM suggests

A

muscle and/or tendon injury

83
Q

sudden withdraw from BB

A

tachyarrhythmias, rebound HTN (upreg of beta receptors d/t chronic therapy)

84
Q

apetite stimulants

A

megestrol acetate and drobinol

85
Q

abn wt loss is concered

A

greater than 5% over 6 mo

86
Q

states where TBG is increased

A

pregnancy, acute liver disease, newborn state, meds (OCPs and tamoxifen)

87
Q

states where TBG is decreased

A

increased androgens, chronic liver dz, glucocorticoid xs, severe illness, nephrotic syndrome

88
Q

tx of hyperthyroidism

A

PTU, methimazole - s/s with BB

89
Q

thyroid peroxidase abs, antithyroglobulin abs

A

hashimotos

90
Q

MCC of anemia worldwide

A

Fe def

91
Q

Diff btwn B12 and folate def anemia labs

A

B12 - inc MMA AND HC folate - inc HC ONLY

92
Q

Imaging of choice for dx diverticulosis

A

CT

93
Q

Arrow sign

A

Diverticulosis

94
Q

Pericolic fat infiltration

A

Diverticulosis

95
Q

first line agents for anxiety

A

abort = benzos, control= SSRIs

96
Q

Vaccine that is CI in pts with eczema

A

smallpox

97
Q

EF <45% suggest

A

systolic HF

98
Q

CCBs that can be used in HF

A

verapamil and diltiazem (NDHP)

99
Q

FSH:LH ratio greater than 2:1

A

PCOS

100
Q

lab hat can help diff btwn heart and pulmonary failure

A

BNP - elevated in HF

101
Q

decrease mortality and sudden death in HF pts

A

BB

102
Q

DEXA T score btwn -1 and -2.5

A

osteopenia

103
Q

DEXA T score than -2.5 from SD

A

osteoporosis

104
Q

daily Ca intake for postmenopausal women

A

1500mg/d

105
Q

MCCs of skin and soft tissue infs

A

S. Areus, GAS

106
Q

FSH:LH ratio greater than 2:1

A

PCOS

107
Q

drug used to induce ovulation in ppl desiring pregnancy

A

clomiphine

108
Q

pt less than 35 yo with high FHS

A

premature ovarian failure

109
Q

OCPs are CIed in

A

F over 35 who smoke, hx of CVD or thrombus, undxed vag bleeding, BC, active liver dz

110
Q

newborns regain birth wt by

A

2 weeks of age

111
Q

birth weight is doubled by

A

4 mo

112
Q

birth weight is tripled by

A

1 yr

113
Q

colic typically resolves by

A

3 mo

114
Q

learn object permanence by

A

8-9 mo

115
Q

nightmares occur during this stage of sleep

A

REM

116
Q

night terrors occur during this stage of sleep

A

stage 4

117
Q

drug of choice for OM

A

amoxicillin, 10d

118
Q

OM but allergic to penicillins

A

3rd gen ceph, erythromycin w sulfasoxazole

119
Q

tympanic membrane on tympanometry

A

decreased TM movement

120
Q

ROM def

A

3 episodes of OM w/in 6mo or 4 episodes w/in 1yr

121
Q

MCC of SCD in athletes less than 35yo

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

122
Q

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy inheritance

A

AD, variable expression

123
Q

murmurs ass’d with HCM increase and decrease with what actions

A

increase with valsalva or standing, decreased when supine or squatting

124
Q

suspect HCM workup

A

CXR, EKG, echo

125
Q

endoscopy end at age

A

75

126
Q

paps end at age

A

65

127
Q

increased optic cup to disc ratio, elevated intraocular pressure

A

glaucoma

128
Q

BB role in glaucoma tx

A

decrease aqueous humor production

129
Q

miotic role in glaucoma tx

A

increase aqueous humor drainage

130
Q

reversible AChEI’s used for tx of AD (4)

A

tacrine, donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine

131
Q

NMDA receptor antagonist tx for AD

A

memantine

132
Q

overactivity of bladder detrusor mm

A

urge incontinence

133
Q

malfunction of the urinary sphincters

A

stress incontinence

134
Q

drugs for urge incontinence

A

oxybutinin, imipramine, tolterodine

135
Q

drugs for stress incontinence

A

pseudopehrine (alpha-and ant)

136
Q

normal PVR

A

75-200 mL

137
Q

surrogate medical decision maker

A

POA

MS3 - Shelfs (6 decks)

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