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MS3 - Shelfs > CK > Flashcards

CK Flashcards

1
Q

mnemonic for the 6 cyanotic heart diseases

A

5 Ts and 1 H - truncus arteriosis, TGV, tricuspid atresia, TOF, TAPVR, hypoplastic L heart

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2
Q

3 noncyanotic heart diseases - 3D

A

VSD, ASD, PDA

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3
Q

fixed, widely split S2

A

ASD

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4
Q

continuous machine like murmur , wide pulse P, bounding peripheral pulses

A

PDA

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5
Q

UE HTN, rib notching on CXR

A

coarc

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6
Q

MC cyanotic heart dz of NEWBORNS

A

transposition of the great vessels

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7
Q

MC cyanotic heart dx of CHILDHOOD

A

TOF

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8
Q

TOF components

A

RV outflow tract obst, overriding aorta, RVH, VSD

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9
Q

type of murmur heard in TOF

A

systolic ejection murmur at the L upper SB, R ventricular heave, single S2

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10
Q

newborns return to their BW by

A

14 d

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11
Q

infants double their BW by

A

4-5 mo

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12
Q

infants triple BW by

A

1 yr

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13
Q

toddlers quadruple BW by

A

2 yr

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14
Q

down syndrome are at increased risk of developing

A

ALL, hypothyroidism, early-onset alzheimers

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15
Q

chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications

A

toxo

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16
Q

PDA or PAH, cataracts, deafness in a neonate

A

rubella - conjenital

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17
Q

hearing loss and periventricular calcifications in a neonate

A

CMV

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18
Q

tx of bordatella

A

azithromycin for 10 d

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19
Q

ppx for pertussis

A

azith for 5 d

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20
Q

MCC menigitis in neonates

A

GBS, e coli, listeria

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21
Q

MCC menigitis infant/children

A

s pneumo, n men, h flu

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22
Q

MCC menigitis adolescents

A

n men, s pneumo

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23
Q

high fever and petechial rash

A

meningocoxemia

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24
Q

tx of h flu

A

ceftriaxone or cefuoxime

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25
Q

tx of acute OM

A

high does amox for 10 d, change to augmentin if not resolving

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26
Q

tx of kawasaki

A

ASA and IVIG

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27
Q

CJD EMG finding

A

bi or triphasic sharp wave complexes

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28
Q

copies circle

A

3 yo

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29
Q

copies cross

A

4 yo

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30
Q

copies triangle

A

5yo

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31
Q

tx of unconjugated hyperbili

A

phototherapy

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32
Q

hyerpK, hyperPhos, hyperurecemia, hypoCa in kid being tx for ALL

A

tumor lysis syndrom

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33
Q

tx of tumor lysis syndrom

A

fluids, diuretics, allopurinol

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34
Q

Tx of GA pharyngitis

A

PCN 10d

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35
Q

Lemierre syndrome

A

Thombophlebitis of the jugular v - possible complication of pharyngitis

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36
Q

Fungus if the SW US

A

Coccidio

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37
Q

MCC of postviral PNA

A

Staph, s pneumo, h flu

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38
Q

CSF findings in ncephalitis

A

Lymphocytic pleocytosis and moderately increased protein

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39
Q

Tx of lyme dz

A

Ceftriaxone

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40
Q

Tx of RMSF

A

Doxy

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41
Q

Tx of MAC

A

Clarithromycin

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42
Q

Tx of bactiuria in pregnant pt

A

Nitrofurantoin, oral cephalosporin, or ammox 3-7d

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43
Q

SIRS criteria

A

2 or more of the following: temp > 38 or <36, tachypnea (>20 or paO2<32), HR>90, WBC <4k or >12k or >10% bands

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44
Q

IVDU endocarditis

A

s. areus

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45
Q

dental procedure, native valave endocarditis

A

viridans strep

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46
Q

prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

coag negative strep

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47
Q

any of these 3 findings can make the diagnosis of DM

A

random BG >200, fasting BG >125, HgbA1c >6.5

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48
Q

increase in JVP with inspiration

A

kussmaul sign - tamponade or const pericarditis

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49
Q

decreased systolic BP with inspiration

A

plusus paradoxus - tamponade

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50
Q

weakened and delayed pulse

A

pulsus parvus et tardus - aortic stenosis

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51
Q

EF less than 50, increased LV end-diastolic volume

A

systolic dysfunction

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52
Q

acute CHF management - LMNOP

A

lasix, morphine, nitrates, oxygen, position

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53
Q

Dyslipidemia diagnosis requires

A

Total serum cholesterol > 200 on 2 different occasions, LDL >130 OR HDL <40

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54
Q

Unexplained HTN, hypoK, metabolic alkalosis

A

Conn syndeom - hyperaldo

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55
Q

Hypotension, JV, distant heart sounds

A

Becks triad - pericardial tamponade

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56
Q

Electrical alternans

A

Pericardial tamponade

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57
Q

tx of DVT

A

IV unfx hep or SQ LMWH, then 3-6 mo warfarin

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58
Q

4th heart sound is indicative of

A

restrictive cardiomyopathy or LVH

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59
Q

depressed PR-segment on EKG

A

pericarditis

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60
Q

type 1 hsn

A

anaphylactic and atopic - antigen IgE crosslink

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61
Q

autoimmine hemolytic anemia, erythroblastosis fetalis, goodpastures, rheumatic fever are all

A

type II hsn - cytotoxic

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62
Q

type II hsn mediated by

A

IgM and IgG ag binding > phagocytosis or complement lysis

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63
Q

TB test, transplant rejection, contact dermatitis are all

A

type IV hsn - delayed

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64
Q

type IV hsn mediated by

A

sensitized T lymphocytes

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65
Q

neutrophilic infiltration in the stratum corneum with a thickened epidermis

A

psoriasis - munro microabcesses and hyperkeratosis

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66
Q

non-healing ulcerated skin lesion in an area of sun exposure

A

sq cell ca

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67
Q

b/l cellulitis of the submental, submaxillary, and sublingual spaces - complication can lead to

A

ludwig angina - death from asphyxiation

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68
Q

MCC of erysipelas and tx

A

GAS, PCN

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69
Q

tx of scarlet fever

A

PCN

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70
Q

tx of salmonella

A

fluroquinolones and 3rd gen cephs

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71
Q

cellulitis, POOP, blue gray discoloration

A

nec fasc

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72
Q

tx of nec fasc

A

3rd gen ceph, clinda, amp

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73
Q

tx of symptomatic sinus brady

A

atropine

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74
Q

trouble swallowing liquids > solids

A

oropharyngeal dysphagia

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75
Q

trouble swallowing solids > liquids

A

esophageal dysphagia

76
Q

esophageal webs, Fe def anemia, glossitis

A

plummer-vinson syndrome

77
Q

corkscrew esophagus

A

diffuse eso spasm

78
Q

birds beak on barium swallow

A

achalasia

79
Q

MC eso cancer worldwide

A

SqCC - tobacco and etoh

80
Q

MC eso cancer in the US

A

adenoca - barrett

81
Q

tx of sliding vs paraeso hiatal hernia

A

sliding - medical and lifestyle, paraeso - surgical

82
Q

triple therapy for H. pylori

A

amoxicillin (or metro), clarithromycin, and omperazole

83
Q

megaloblastic anemia with normal MMA

A

folate def anemia

84
Q

megaloblastic anemia, elevated MMA, neuro dysfunction

A

B12 def anemia

85
Q

charcots triad

A

RUQ pain, jaundice, fever/chills - acute cholangitis

86
Q

reynolds pentad

A

RUQ pain, jaundice, fever/chills, AMS, shock

87
Q

tx of acute cholecystitis

A

cholecystectomy

88
Q

conjugated hyperbili

A

dubin-johnson, rotor

89
Q

unconjugated hyperbili (3 causes)

A

hemolytic anemia, gilbert, crigler-najjar

90
Q

heart sound that can be heard in pts experiencing an acute MI

A

S4 - atrial gallop d/t LV stiffening and dysfunction

91
Q

tx of cryptococal menigitis

A

ampho plus flucytosine, then fluconazole

92
Q

time needed to dx GAD

A

> or = to 6 month of symptoms

93
Q

crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur found at the LSB

A

HOCM

94
Q

immunity to HBV will show what on serology

A

HBV surface antibody

95
Q

skin necrosis following warfarin admin

A

prot C or S def

96
Q

inc LDH, inc ind bili, inc reticulocytes, dec haptoglobin

A

hemolytic anemia

97
Q

MC childhood malignancy

A

ALL

98
Q

LAP in leukamoid rxn

A

elevated, its dec in malignancy

99
Q

tx of APL

A

ATRA

100
Q

tx of CML

A

imatinib

101
Q

tx of hairy cell

A

cladribine

102
Q

tx of DLBCL

A

R-CHOP

103
Q

best prognosis form of hodgkin lymphoma

A

lymphocyte-predominant

104
Q

tx of NON-M3 variant AML

A

chemo

105
Q

1st step in w/u of nontender LAD

A

excisional LN bx

106
Q

ppx CD4 <200

A

PCP with TMP-SMX

107
Q

ppx CD4 <50-100

A

MAC with weekly azithromycin

108
Q

ppx CD4 <100 and +IgG for toxo

A

double strength TMP-SMX

109
Q

ACEi and ARBS are CI in patients with this kind of HTN

A

b/l RAS - can ppt renal failure

110
Q

hip injury ass’d with shortened, internally rot leg

A

post hip dislocation

111
Q

hip injury ass’d with lengthened, externally rot leg

A

ant hip dislocation

112
Q

hip injury ass’d with shortened, externally rotated leg

A

hip fracture

113
Q

bone tumor at metaphysis with worse pain at night

A

osteosarcoma

114
Q

MC benign bone tumor

A

osteochondroma

115
Q

benign diaphysial bone mass with central nidus that resolves with asa

A

osteoid osteoma

116
Q

greater than 50K WBC in joint aspiration

A

SEPTIC joint

117
Q

anticentromere antibodies

A

CREST

118
Q

hemolytic anemia, schistocytes, thrombocytopenia, normal PT and PTT

A

TTP - tx with plasma exchange

119
Q

3 hz spike and wave pattern on EEG

A

absence epilepsy seizures

120
Q

10 hz activity with slow waves on EEG

A

tonic-clonic seizure

121
Q

scanning speech, intranuclear opthalmoplegia, nystagmus

A

MS triad

122
Q

can decrease disease progression in MS

A

riluzole

123
Q

untxed pseudotumor cerebi can lead to

A

blindness

124
Q

tx of pseudotumor cerebri

A

acetazolamine and wt reduction

125
Q

cafe au lait, short stature, radial thumb hypoplasia in the setting of anemia

A

fanconi syndrome

126
Q

MC primary CNS tumor in adults

A

GBM and meningioma

127
Q

MC primary CNS tumor in kids

A

actrocytomas, medulloblastomas

128
Q

microantheroma formation and lipohylanosis is found in

A

lacunar infarts of vascular dementia

129
Q

NF1 diagnostic criteria

A

6 or more cafe au lait spots, 2 or more neurofibromas, freckling of axillary or ingunal area, optic glioma, lisch nodules, bone abnormality, 1st deg relative with NF1

130
Q

1st line for status epilepticus

A

bezos!

131
Q

tx of trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbameazpime

132
Q

blood supply to broca’s area

A

left superior MCA

133
Q

blood supply to wernicke’s area

A

left posterior MCA

134
Q

encephalopthy, opthalmoplegia, ataxia

A

thiamine (B1) def

135
Q

ppx tx of closed angle glaucoma

A

laer peripheral iridotomy

136
Q

tx of increased ocular pressure

A

eyedrops - timolol, pilocarpine; systemic - acetazolamide, mannitol

137
Q

tx of open angle glaucoma

A

topical beta-blockers

138
Q

tx of exudative AMD

A

VEGF inh

139
Q

needed for BPI dx

A

manic episode(s)

140
Q

needed for BPII dx

A

hypomanic episode(s) with one or more depressive episodes

141
Q

duration of s/s to dx cyclothymic disorder

A

2 yrs

142
Q

mutation in OI

A

collagen type I

143
Q

mutation in marfans

A

fibrillin-1 gene

144
Q

quad screen has what tests in it

A

MSAFP, inhibitin A, estriol, beta-hCG

145
Q

elevated AFP ass’d with these 6 things

A

NTDs, open abd wall defects, multiple ges, incorrect GA, fetal death, placental abnormalities

146
Q

reduced AFP is ass’d with these 3 things

A

tri 18 and 21, fetal demise, incorrect GA

147
Q

gest DM screen occurs at

A

24-28 wks GA with one hour OGTT

148
Q

periventricular calcifications

A

CMV

149
Q

tx of congential CMV

A

postpartum ganciclovir

150
Q

ppx for infants who have HIV+ mom

A

AZT

151
Q

can HIV+ moms breast feed?

A

no

152
Q

can HCV+ moms breast feed?

A

yes

153
Q

tx of syphilis+ pregnancy

A

PCN

154
Q

bleeding, POC expelled with closed cervical os

A

complete SAB

155
Q

partial POC expulsion with open cervical os

A

incomplete SAB

156
Q

uterine bleeding with intact POC and closed os

A

threatened SAB

157
Q

uterine bleeding with intact POC and open os

A

inevitable SAB

158
Q

POC present on u/s without cardiac activity, cramping, loss of early pregnancy symptoms, closed os

A

missed SAB

159
Q

give RhoGAM at

A

28-30 wks GA

160
Q

can find gestational sac

A

5-6 wks from LMP

161
Q

can ID fetal pole at

A

6 wks

162
Q

can detect fetal heart activity on u/s at

A

6-7 wks

163
Q

s/p c-section, fever unresponsive to broad spectrum abx

A

septic pelvic thrombophlebitis

164
Q

adequate contractions

A

greater than or equal to 200 motevid units in 10 min

165
Q

arrest of active labor

A

no cervical change at gt/et 4hrs with good contractions or gt/et 6 hrs with inadequate contractions

166
Q

physiologically normal acid-base status of pregnancy

A

chronic, compensated respiratory alkalosis

167
Q

reaction to a positive cont stress test

A

usually delivery

168
Q

abx ppx for PROM

A

clindamycin and gentamicin

169
Q

midfacial hypoplasia, cleft palate, digit hypoplasia, microcephaly, developmental delay, hirsutism

A

fetal hydantoin syndrome - caused by phenytoin or carbamazepine

170
Q

decrease risk of preterm delivery in pt with short cervix with

A

progesterone therapy

171
Q

preeclampsia diagonsis needs

A

SBP > 140 or DBP > 90 AND proteinuria >300 in 24h AT >20 wks GA

172
Q

BP control in pregnancy

A

labetalol or hydralazine

173
Q

seizure tx in pregnancy

A

IV diazepam

174
Q

cardiac malformation ass’d with DM

A

TGV

175
Q

first line tx of OCD

A

high-dose SSRI with CBT

176
Q

cough, corzyra, conjunctivitis

A

measles

177
Q

autoantibodies to AChR at motor end plate

A

myasthenia gravis

178
Q

ppx for human bite wounds

A

amox-clav

179
Q

contraindications to HRT

A

vaginal bleeding, BC, untxed endoemtrial ca, hx of thromoembolism, chronic liver dz, hypertriglyceridemia

180
Q

ECG shows tachycarida with undiscerable p waves buried in the QRS

A

SVT

181
Q

tx of SVT in stable pt

A

vagal maneuver > adenosine

182
Q

elevated AFP with testicular mass

A

yolk sac tumor

183
Q

newborn F with ambiguous genitalia and adrenal insufficiency

A

CAH - 21OHase def

184
Q

tx of urge incontenence

A

anticholinergics or TCAs

185
Q

precocious puberty, cafe au lait spots, bony abnormalities

A

McCune-Albright syndrome

186
Q

fatigue, palpable purpra, renal disease, peripheral neuropathies ass’d with HCV

A

Mixed cryoglobulinemia syndrome

187
Q

MDD criteria

A

SIGECAPS, GT/ET 5 s/s for at least 2 wks

MS3 - Shelfs (6 decks)

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