Fluoroquinolones Flashcards

1
Q

What is FQ’s MoA? - Bacteriocidal or bacteriostatic?

A

Inhibition of DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV - Bacteriocidal

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2
Q

What is FQ’s primary mechanism of resistance? - What are some additional MoR’s it has?

A

Chromosomal mutations in DNA gyrase or topoisomerase IV - Also development of efflux pumps, plasmid-mediated resistance, altered cell wall permeability (porins)

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3
Q

Which of the FQ’s are active against gram-positive aerobes? (Which aren’t, then?)

A

Levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin (Not ciprofloxacin!)

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4
Q

Describe the relative activity of FQs against gram-negative aerobes. What about for pseudomonas?

A

cipro = levo > moxi cipro > levo, NOT moxi or gemi

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5
Q

Which of the FQ’s are active against anaerobes?

A

Only moxifloxacin

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6
Q

Which of the FQ’s are active against atypical bacteria?

A

All FQs

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7
Q

Which FQ(s) are useful against CA-PNA (CAP)?

A

Levo, moxi, gemi

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8
Q

Which FQ(s) are useful against HA-PNA?

A

Cipro (+ something for gram-positive coverage), levo

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9
Q

Which FQ(s) are useful against sinusitis/bronchitis?

A

All

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10
Q

Which FQ(s) are useful against UTI/prostatitis?

A

Cipro, levo

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11
Q

Besides previously mentioned, what else are FQs useful for? (not sure how to ask this question)

A

Bone infections, STD’s, TB, intra-abdominal w/ added anaerobe coverage

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12
Q

What are the most common adverse affects of FQs? (2) What else can occur?

A

GI, CNS - Prolonged QTc interval - Tendonitis, tendon rupture - Hepatotoxicity, photosensitivity, hypersensitivity, rash, articular damage

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13
Q

What demo should not use FQs? (contraindicated)

A

Pregnant women and children

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14
Q

What drugs do FQs interact w/?

A
  • Divalent, trivalent cations: separate administration to avoid chelation and decreased absorption - Warfarin, cyclosporine, theophylline
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15
Q

Methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae (including PRSP), Viridans streptococci, and Enterococcus spp. are eg’s of what class of bacteria?

A

Gram-positive aerobes

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16
Q

Enterobacteriaceae including Citrobacter spp. E. coli, Klebsiella spp, Enterobacter spp, Proteus spp, Salmonella, Shigella, Serratia marcescens, etc; H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis, Neisseria spp., and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are eg’s of what class of bacteria?

A

Gram-negative aerobes

17
Q

Bacteroides spp such as b. fragilis are eg’s of what class of bacteria?

A

Anaerobes

18
Q

Legionella pneumophila, Chlamydophila and Chlamydia spp., Mycoplasma spp. and Ureaplasma urealyticum are eg’s of what class of bacteria?

A

Atypical bacteria

19
Q

All of the FQs are eliminated mostly through the __________ with the exception of __________, which is eliminated through the __________.

A
  • kidney - moxi - liver (therefore can’t treat UTI)
20
Q

Metronidazole is mainly used against what class of microbe?

A

Anaerobes

21
Q

What is the MoA of metronidazole? - What molecule is responsible for this and how? - Bacteriocidal or bacteriostatic?

A

Inhibits DNA synthesis - Ferredoxins (which nlly make ATP). Metronidazole binds them and creates an e- sink. Drives more drug into cell and reactive species are made. - Bacteriocidal

22
Q

How common is the development of resistance w/metronidazole? What are 2 ways in which bugs acquire resistance to metronidazole?

A

*Uncommon - Altered growth requirements (e.g. higher local O2 conc.) - Altered ferredoxin levels (lower levels)

23
Q

What 2 types of anaerobic bacteria is metronidazole most active against?

A
  • Bacteroides spp. (all) - Clostridium spp. (all)
24
Q

Metronidazole: - IV/PO or both? - Does it penetrate the CSF? - How is it eliminated?

A
  • Both - Yes - Liver
25
Q

What are the clinical uses of metronidazole? Metronidazole is the drug of choice for _____________.

A
  • Anaerobic Infections (including in the CNS): Intraabdominal, pelvic, (skin/soft tissue), diabetic foot and decubitus ulcer infections; brain abscess, trichomonas MILD to MODERATE c-dif dz
26
Q

What are the most common side effects from metronidazole? What are the most serious side effects?

A
  • GI (stomatitis–metallic taste) - CNS (peripheral neuropathy) - Teratogenic (avoid during pregnancy)
27
Q

What 2 important drugs does metronidazole interact with?

A
  • Warfarin (increased anticoagulant effect) - Alcohol (disulfiram rxn; don’t give to alcoholics)
28
Q

FQs are the DOC for what atypical bacterium?

A

* Legionella

29
Q

What is the target organism for cipro and levo when targeting gram-negative aerobes?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa (NOT moxi)

30
Q

What are the target organisms for levo, moxi, and gemi when targeting gram-positive aerobes?

A
  • Methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus* - Streptococcus pneumoniae (including PRSP)*
31
Q

Which FQ has good CSF penetration?

A

Moxifloxacin

32
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis Entamoeba histolytica Giardia lamblia Gardnerella vaginalis are all examples of what class that metronidazole inhibits?

A

Anaerobic protozoa

33
Q

Bacteroides spp. (ALL)* Fusobacterium Prevotella spp. Clostridium spp. (ALL)* Helicobacter pylori Are all examples of what class of organism that metronidazole inhibits?

A

Anaerobic bacteria